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Question 196:
What is the primary purpose of implementing log management?
A) To increase storage capacity
B) To collect, store, and analyze system and security logs for monitoring and investigation
C) To improve application performance
D) To reduce network bandwidth
Answer: B
Explanation:
Log management collects, stores, and analyzes system and security logs enabling monitoring, incident detection, forensic investigation, and compliance demonstration. Organizations generate massive volumes of log data from operating systems, applications, network devices, security tools, and databases. Effective log management centralizes this data, ensures appropriate retention, enables efficient searching and analysis, and provides the visibility necessary for security operations and incident response.
Log collection aggregates data from diverse sources across organizational infrastructure. Agents deployed on systems forward logs to central repositories. Network devices send logs via syslog or similar protocols. Applications write to logging systems through standardized interfaces. Cloud services provide logging APIs and integrations. Centralization enables correlation across sources identifying patterns invisible when examining individual logs in isolation.
Storage management addresses retention requirements and search efficiency. Regulations and policies specify how long different log types must be retained. Hot storage enables rapid searching of recent logs for operational monitoring. Warm and cold storage tiers retain older logs meeting retention requirements while managing costs. Indexing enables efficient searching across massive log volumes.
A) Log management requires significant storage but increasing storage capacity is not its primary purpose which focuses on security visibility.
B) Log management specifically collects, stores, and analyzes logs for monitoring and investigation purposes, making this the correct answer.
C) Application performance depends on code optimization and infrastructure rather than log management which may add slight overhead.
D) Log transmission consumes bandwidth rather than reducing it, with log management focusing on security visibility not bandwidth optimization.
Organizations implement comprehensive log management supporting security operations, incident response, compliance requirements, and operational troubleshooting across their technology environments.
Question 197:
Which attack involves manipulating employees to gain physical access to facilities?
A) Phishing
B) Tailgating
C) SQL injection
D) Buffer overflow
Answer: B
Explanation:
Tailgating, also called piggybacking, involves manipulating employees to gain physical access to facilities by following authorized personnel through access-controlled entry points. Attackers exploit social norms and common courtesy, relying on employees to hold doors open or not challenge people following them through secured entrances. This social engineering technique bypasses electronic access controls allowing unauthorized individuals to enter facilities and potentially access sensitive areas, equipment, or information.
Attackers employ various tactics to facilitate tailgating. Dressing professionally or wearing uniforms suggesting legitimate access reduces suspicion. Carrying equipment, packages, or appearing rushed creates pretexts explaining presence. Engaging in phone conversations diverts attention from security considerations. Timing attempts during busy periods when many people enter simultaneously provides cover. These approaches exploit human tendencies to be helpful and avoid confrontation.
Successful tailgating enables various malicious activities. Physical access to computer systems allows installing malware or hardware keyloggers. Unattended workstations may provide unauthorized system access. Sensitive documents left visible reveal confidential information. Network ports enable unauthorized device connections. Equipment theft becomes possible. Server rooms or data centers accessed could enable significant damage.
A) Phishing uses electronic communications to deceive recipients rather than manipulating employees for physical facility access.
B) Tailgating specifically involves following authorized personnel to gain physical facility access through social manipulation, making this the correct answer.
C) SQL injection exploits database vulnerabilities through technical means rather than physical access manipulation.
D) Buffer overflow exploits memory handling vulnerabilities technically rather than manipulating employees for physical access.
Defense requires physical barriers like mantraps preventing multiple entries, security awareness training encouraging employees to challenge unknown individuals, clear policies prohibiting holding doors, and security personnel monitoring entry points.
Question 198:
What security measure restricts users to accessing only information needed for their jobs?
A) Separation of duties
B) Need to know
C) Dual control
D) Job rotation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Need to know restricts users to accessing only information necessary for performing their specific job functions, preventing unnecessary exposure of sensitive data even to authorized personnel who might have security clearances or access to related systems. This principle recognizes that limiting information access based on job requirements reduces risks from both intentional misuse and accidental disclosure. Users only receive access to data they actually need, not everything their position or clearance might theoretically permit.
Implementation requires analyzing job functions to determine specific information access requirements. Each role receives access only to data directly necessary for assigned responsibilities rather than broad categorical access. An employee handling certain customer accounts needs access to those specific accounts, not the entire customer database. A developer working on specific components needs access to relevant code and documentation, not all source repositories.
Need to know complements other access control principles. Security clearances or classification levels establish maximum access potential, but need to know further restricts access within those boundaries. Someone with secret clearance can only access secret information they actually need for their work, not all secret information. This layered approach minimizes exposure throughout organizations.
A) Separation of duties divides sensitive functions among multiple people preventing single-person fraud but does not specifically restrict information access to job requirements.
B) Need to know specifically restricts users to accessing only information necessary for their jobs, making this the correct answer.
C) Dual control requires multiple people to complete sensitive operations but does not address restricting information access based on job requirements.
D) Job rotation moves people between positions periodically for cross-training and fraud prevention but does not restrict information access to current job needs.
Organizations implement need to know through granular access controls, data classification, and regular access reviews ensuring permissions align with current job responsibilities.
Question 199:
Which type of testing simulates comprehensive adversarial attacks against organizations?
A) Vulnerability scanning
B) Penetration testing
C) Red team exercise
D) Compliance audit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Red team exercises simulate comprehensive adversarial attacks against organizations by employing diverse attack techniques across multiple vectors to achieve specific objectives, mimicking how real sophisticated attackers operate. Unlike narrowly scoped penetration tests focusing on specific systems or vulnerabilities, red teams attempt to accomplish missions like accessing sensitive data or compromising critical systems using any available methods including technical exploitation, social engineering, physical security testing, and combined approaches reflecting actual threat actor behavior.
Red team methodology emphasizes realistic threat simulation. Teams operate with attacker mindsets, employing creativity and persistence to find paths to objectives. They may combine phishing employees to gain initial access, exploiting discovered vulnerabilities to escalate privileges, moving laterally through networks, and extracting target data. Physical penetration attempts might accompany digital attacks. Social engineering targets employees at various levels.
Exercise scope typically defines objectives, rules of engagement, and boundaries while allowing significant flexibility in methods. Organizations may task red teams with specific goals like exfiltrating particular data sets, accessing specific systems, or demonstrating business disruption capabilities. Duration extends beyond typical penetration tests, sometimes spanning weeks or months for comprehensive campaigns.
A) Vulnerability scanning automates identification of potential weaknesses without exploiting them or simulating comprehensive attacks.
B) Penetration testing actively exploits vulnerabilities but typically with narrower scope than full adversarial simulation exercises.
C) Red team exercises specifically simulate comprehensive adversarial attacks using diverse techniques to achieve objectives, making this the correct answer.
D) Compliance audits review policies and controls for regulatory adherence rather than simulating adversarial attacks.
Organizations use red team exercises to evaluate security posture against realistic threats, identify defensive gaps, and test incident detection and response capabilities.
Question 200:
What is the primary purpose of implementing incident response procedures?
A) To prevent all security incidents
B) To minimize damage and restore operations after security incidents
C) To eliminate the need for security controls
D) To increase system performance
Answer: B
Explanation:
Incident response procedures are designed to minimize damage and restore normal operations following security incidents by providing a structured approach to detecting, analyzing, containing, eradicating, and recovering from security events. These procedures acknowledge that no preventive control is perfect and that security incidents will inevitably occur. Organizations with well-defined incident response processes can respond more efficiently, limiting damage, preserving critical evidence, and restoring operations faster than those without formal procedures.
Incident response typically follows standardized phases. Preparation establishes the organization’s response capabilities before incidents occur, including defining response teams, procuring necessary tools, conducting training, and documenting procedures. Detection and analysis involve identifying potential incidents through monitoring, alerts, and investigations to determine the scope, severity, and nature of the threat. Containment aims to prevent further damage by isolating affected systems, blocking malicious activity, or taking other immediate mitigation steps. Eradication removes the attacker’s presence from the environment, eliminating malware, compromised accounts, or unauthorized access points. Recovery restores affected systems and services to normal operation. Post-incident activities focus on lessons learned, updating procedures, and improving overall security posture.
Effective incident response procedures clearly define roles and responsibilities, communication protocols, escalation criteria, and specific actions for common incident types. Playbooks provide step-by-step guidance for handling scenarios such as ransomware attacks, data breaches, or account compromises. Regular drills and simulations test the team’s ability to execute procedures under realistic conditions, ensuring preparedness and identifying gaps for improvement.
A) No security program can prevent all incidents; incident response procedures address what happens when prevention fails rather than claiming to prevent all incidents.
B) Incident response procedures specifically minimize damage and restore operations after security events occur, making this the correct answer.
C) Incident response complements preventive security controls rather than replacing them; both prevention and response are necessary for comprehensive security.
D) Incident response focuses on mitigating security events and does not directly address system performance, which depends on infrastructure and application optimization.
Organizations should establish comprehensive incident response capabilities, regularly test and update them, and continuously refine procedures based on lessons learned from exercises and real-world incidents. This proactive approach ensures resilience, limits operational impact, and strengthens the organization’s overall security posture.
Question 201:
Which security control protects against unauthorized physical access to facilities?
A) Encryption
B) Physical access control
C) Intrusion detection system
D) Data loss prevention
Answer: B
Explanation:
Physical access control protects facilities against unauthorized entry through the use of barriers, locks, authentication systems, and monitoring. These controls are designed to prevent threats such as unauthorized entry, theft, vandalism, and physical tampering with equipment or systems. Physical security is a critical component of overall organizational security because attackers who gain physical access can often bypass technical controls, steal devices, install malicious hardware, or directly manipulate unprotected systems.
Physical access control mechanisms operate at multiple levels. Perimeter security, including fences, gates, and barriers, establishes the first line of defense by defining the boundaries of a facility. Building access systems such as badge readers, biometric scanners, or keypads require authentication before entry. Internal access controls restrict sensitive areas, including server rooms, research labs, and executive offices, to authorized personnel only. Mantraps prevent tailgating by ensuring that only one person can enter at a time after successful authentication. Visitor management systems track and control the movement of non-employees within a facility, ensuring temporary access is authorized and monitored.
Monitoring and surveillance enhance physical access control by providing oversight and evidence for investigations. Security cameras record activities to deter unauthorized behavior and support incident review. Security guards add a human verification layer, checking identities and responding to security breaches in real time. Alarm systems detect unauthorized access attempts, alerting personnel to respond promptly. Access logs record who entered specific areas and at what times, creating an audit trail for investigation and compliance purposes.
A) Encryption protects data confidentiality through cryptographic methods but does not control physical access to facilities.
B) Physical access control specifically protects against unauthorized physical entry through barriers, authentication systems, and monitoring, making this the correct answer.
C) Intrusion detection systems monitor network traffic for suspicious activities and security threats, rather than enforcing physical access control.
D) Data loss prevention tools monitor, detect, and block unauthorized data transmissions but do not control physical access to buildings or sensitive areas.
Organizations implement physical security controls appropriate to the sensitivity of their facilities. Critical sites such as data centers, research laboratories, and areas containing sensitive equipment or information require more stringent controls, combining authentication, monitoring, and physical barriers to ensure only authorized personnel gain access. Proper physical security reduces the risk of theft, sabotage, and direct attacks on organizational assets.
Question 202:
What type of malware records user keystrokes to capture sensitive information?
A) Ransomware
B) Keylogger
C) Adware
D) Rootkit
Answer: B
Explanation:
Keyloggers record user keystrokes in order to capture sensitive information such as passwords, credit card numbers, personal messages, and any other data typed on a keyboard. As a form of spyware or specialized malware, keyloggers operate silently in the background, intercepting keyboard input before or after it is processed by the operating system. The captured keystrokes are then stored locally or transmitted to attackers. Because keyloggers harvest information at the moment it is typed, they bypass many other security protections that secure data only at rest or in transit. This capability enables credential theft, financial fraud, identity theft, and corporate espionage.
Keyloggers vary in how they are implemented and in the techniques they use. Software keyloggers are installed on systems through malware infections, phishing attacks, malicious downloads, or compromised websites. They may hook into the operating system’s keyboard processing routines, inject themselves into browser processes, or monitor specific applications. Some capture keystrokes globally while others focus on high-value targets such as online banking or corporate login portals. Hardware keyloggers, by contrast, are physical devices covertly placed between a keyboard and a computer. They require no software installation, making them difficult for antivirus tools to detect. More advanced keyloggers may also capture screenshots, record clipboard contents, or monitor browser forms to collect additional sensitive information.
The information gathered by keyloggers gives attackers powerful opportunities. Credentials for email, banking, corporate systems, and social media accounts allow attackers to take over identities, steal funds, or access confidential data. Credit card numbers typed during online purchases can be used for fraudulent transactions. Private communications may reveal personal or business secrets. Even highly secure communication channels are vulnerable because keyloggers capture plaintext before encryption is applied, defeating protections such as TLS or encrypted messaging apps.
A) Ransomware encrypts files and demands payment for decryption but does not focus on recording keystrokes or capturing typed information.
B) Keyloggers specifically record user keystrokes to capture sensitive information such as login credentials and financial data, making this the correct answer.
C) Adware displays unwanted advertisements and may track browsing habits but does not attempt to capture keyboard input.
D) Rootkits conceal the presence of malware and maintain persistent, hidden access to a system; while rootkits may hide keyloggers, keystroke recording is not inherent to rootkits themselves.
Defense strategies include using endpoint security solutions capable of detecting keylogger behaviors, limiting exposure by using password managers that autofill credentials without typing, using virtual keyboards for high-risk transactions, and implementing multi-factor authentication to reduce the usefulness of stolen credentials. Organizations also benefit from monitoring systems for unusual behavior and ensuring devices remain patched and protected against malware infiltration.
Question 203:
Which protocol secures email content through encryption and digital signatures?
A) SMTP
B) POP3
C) S/MIME
D) IMAP
Answer: C
Explanation:
S/MIME, or Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, secures email content by providing encryption for confidentiality and digital signatures for authentication and integrity. This widely used standard enhances email security by ensuring sensitive information remains protected from eavesdropping while enabling recipients to verify the true sender and detect any tampering. Because S/MIME relies on public key infrastructure and digital certificates, it delivers strong, reliable protections suitable for business, healthcare, financial, and government communications where confidentiality and authenticity are essential.
S/MIME encryption works by using the recipient’s public key to encrypt the message. Only recipients with the corresponding private key can decrypt and read the protected content. This guarantees confidentiality, even if emails are intercepted in transit, stored on compromised servers, or accessed by unauthorized parties. Without the matching private key, attackers cannot recover the encrypted message content.
Digital signatures within S/MIME provide authentication and integrity verification. When senders apply a digital signature using their private key, they create a cryptographic proof linking the message directly to them. Recipients validate the signature using the sender’s public key contained in their certificate. A valid signature confirms that the message truly originated from the identified sender and that it has not been altered during transmission. This dual assurance strengthens trust and prevents impersonation or message tampering.
A) SMTP is a mail transport protocol that moves emails between servers but does not provide encryption or digital signature functionality on its own.
B) POP3 retrieves emails from servers to email clients but does not offer any built-in content encryption or digital signing capabilities.
C) S/MIME specifically provides both email encryption and digital signatures, ensuring confidentiality, authentication, and integrity, making this the correct answer.
D) IMAP allows users to access and manage email stored on servers but does not inherently provide encryption or digital signature features.
Organizations implement S/MIME to secure sensitive communications by deploying certificate infrastructure, managing public and private keys, and configuring email clients to support encryption and signing. Proper implementation enables strong email security that protects against interception, forgery, and tampering.
Question 204:
What is the primary purpose of implementing network monitoring?
A) To increase network speed
B) To observe and analyze network traffic for security and operational purposes
C) To reduce hardware costs
D) To eliminate the need for firewalls
Answer: B
Explanation:
Network monitoring observes and analyzes network traffic for both security and operational purposes, giving organizations critical visibility into communications flowing across their infrastructure. This visibility enables administrators and security teams to detect anomalies, identify potential threats, troubleshoot performance issues, and maintain the overall health and reliability of the network. By continuously examining network activity, organizations can understand what types of traffic traverse their systems, recognize suspicious or unauthorized behavior, monitor bandwidth usage, and diagnose connectivity problems. Effective network monitoring strengthens both security operations and network management.
From a security perspective, monitoring focuses on detecting indicators of compromise, malicious communications, policy violations, and deviations from established norms. Intrusion detection systems analyze packets for attack signatures, exploit attempts, and unusual traffic patterns. Network flow analysis identifies abnormal communication behaviors, such as irregular connection destinations or unusual data transfers, which may signal command-and-control activity, data exfiltration, or lateral movement. Protocol analysis verifies that protocols are being used as intended and detects misuse, tunneling, or covert channels. Organizations also establish behavioral baselines and use anomaly detection to spot traffic patterns that differ from normal operations, potentially revealing stealthy or emerging threats.
Operational monitoring, on the other hand, addresses performance, capacity, and availability. Bandwidth utilization monitoring helps administrators identify congestion points or the need for capacity expansions. Latency and jitter measurements help pinpoint sources of delays, enabling proactive troubleshooting before users experience noticeable degradation. Availability monitoring verifies that critical devices, links, and network paths are functioning as expected. Traffic analysis also informs capacity planning, ensuring infrastructure remains capable of supporting business requirements. These operational insights help prevent outages, improve service quality, and support efficient network management.
A) Network monitoring does not directly increase network speed; it consumes resources to analyze traffic. Network speed depends on hardware capacity, bandwidth, and infrastructure design.
B) Network monitoring specifically observes and analyzes network traffic for both security and operational purposes, making this the correct answer.
C) Network monitoring requires investments in tools, sensors, and personnel and does not inherently reduce costs, though it can prevent expensive incidents by detecting issues early.
D) Network monitoring complements, rather than replaces, firewalls. Monitoring provides visibility and analysis, while firewalls enforce access controls and block unauthorized traffic.
Organizations commonly deploy a suite of network monitoring tools—including packet analyzers, flow collectors, security monitoring systems, and performance monitoring platforms—to achieve comprehensive visibility across their environments. Monitoring data is also integrated into security operations centers to support threat detection, incident response, and continuous improvement of security posture.
Question 205:
Which attack involves sending malicious input to cause applications to crash?
A) SQL injection
B) Buffer overflow
C) Phishing
D) Social engineering
Answer: B
Explanation:
Buffer overflow attacks involve sending malicious input that exceeds the boundaries of an allocated memory buffer, potentially causing applications to crash, behave unpredictably, or execute attacker-provided instructions. When a program attempts to write more data to a buffer than the allocated space allows, the extra data spills over into adjacent memory regions. This overflow can corrupt the program’s internal state, overwrite return addresses on the call stack, or modify other critical data structures. Attackers intentionally craft input that overflows buffers in precise ways to achieve specific malicious objectives, such as hijacking program execution or elevating privileges.
The vulnerability stems from insufficient input validation and a lack of bounds checking within software. It is especially prevalent in languages such as C and C++, which allow direct low-level memory manipulation and do not automatically verify that memory writes remain within allocated limits. When developers allocate fixed-size buffers for user input but fail to validate the size of incoming data before copying it, excessively long input can overwrite adjacent memory segments, creating opportunities for memory corruption and potential exploitation.
Basic buffer overflow incidents often result in programs crashing because corrupted memory leads to illegal operations or invalid memory access. However, more advanced attacks leverage deliberate overwriting of specific memory areas to influence program control flow. A classic technique involves overwriting a function’s return address so that when the function completes, the program jumps to attacker-controlled code instead of the legitimate return point. Although modern systems employ defenses such as stack canaries, non-executable memory regions, and address space layout randomization, determined attackers may still craft sophisticated payloads or use return-oriented programming to bypass these protections. Even with hardened defenses, poorly written software may remain vulnerable.
A) SQL injection targets database query logic by inserting malicious SQL statements, not by corrupting memory or overflowing application buffers.
B) Buffer overflow attacks specifically involve sending malicious input that exceeds memory buffer boundaries and can lead to crashes or arbitrary code execution, making this the correct answer.
C) Phishing relies on tricking users via deceptive messages and does not exploit memory handling flaws in software.
D) Social engineering manipulates human behavior and psychology rather than exploiting technical vulnerabilities such as unsafe memory operations.
Defense against buffer overflow attacks includes strict input validation to limit input size, using memory-safe programming languages that perform automatic bounds checking, enabling compiler-based protections, applying operating system defenses, and regularly patching software to address known vulnerabilities. Adopting secure coding practices and performing rigorous code reviews also significantly reduces the risk of buffer overflow flaws in applications.
Question 206:
What security measure ensures users cannot deny performing specific actions?
A) Authentication
B) Authorization
C) Non-repudiation
D) Availability
Answer: C
Explanation:
Non-repudiation ensures that users cannot deny performing specific actions by providing undeniable evidence that particular individuals executed transactions, sent messages, or carried out operations. This security property establishes accountability by producing cryptographic or procedural proof that cannot be reasonably disputed. Non-repudiation is especially important in legal agreements, financial transactions, regulatory submissions, and any context where demonstrating who performed an action is essential for dispute resolution, compliance, or forensic analysis.
Digital signatures serve as the primary technical mechanism enabling non-repudiation. When individuals sign documents, messages, or transactions using their private keys, they generate cryptographic evidence uniquely tied to them because only they control their private keys. Recipients validate these signatures using the signer’s public key, confirming both the origin of the signature and the integrity of the signed content. If verification succeeds, it becomes strong evidence that the individual associated with the private key performed the action and that the content has not been altered.
However, effective non-repudiation extends beyond cryptographic tools alone. Strong supporting processes and infrastructure are required to ensure digital signatures hold legal and operational weight. Secure private key management is crucial so only authorized individuals can access and use their signing keys. Certificate authorities verify identities before issuing digital certificates, creating a trusted link between individuals and their public keys. Audit logs document when signatures are created or verified, creating traceable records. Time-stamping services establish when signatures occurred, preventing disputes related to timing. Together, these elements create a legally defensible framework for accountability.
A) Authentication verifies a user’s identity at the moment of access but does not inherently generate evidence that can later prove a user performed a particular action.
B) Authorization determines what actions users are allowed to perform but does not provide evidence showing that users actually performed those actions.
C) Non-repudiation specifically ensures users cannot deny performing actions by providing undeniable proof tied to individual identities, making this the correct answer.
D) Availability ensures systems and services are accessible but does not relate to proving who performed specific operations.
Organizations implement non-repudiation mechanisms for contracts, financial operations, audit-critical activities, regulatory filings, and any processes requiring provable, accountable actions to meet legal, operational, or compliance requirements.
Question 207:
Which security framework addresses payment card data protection requirements?
A) HIPAA
B) PCI DSS
C) GDPR
D) SOX
Answer: B
Explanation:
PCI DSS, or Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, establishes comprehensive security requirements designed to protect payment card data throughout its entire lifecycle. It was developed by major payment card brands to ensure that all entities involved in processing, storing, or transmitting credit card information implement consistent and effective security controls. The goal is to reduce cardholder data theft, minimize fraud, and maintain consumer trust in electronic payment systems. Because these standards protect sensitive financial information, compliance is mandatory for merchants, service providers, and any organization that handles payment card data. Failure to comply may result in fines, higher processing fees, reputational damage, or even the loss of card processing privileges.
PCI DSS organizes its requirements into twelve major categories addressing different aspects of data security. These include building and maintaining secure network configurations, implementing strong access control measures, protecting cardholder data through encryption and secure storage, maintaining vulnerability management programs, and regularly monitoring and testing networks. Specific requirements include deploying and maintaining firewalls, eliminating vendor-supplied default passwords, encrypting stored cardholder data, encrypting data transmissions across public networks, using up-to-date antivirus and anti-malware tools, developing secure systems and applications, restricting access based on business needs, assigning unique usernames to system users, enforcing physical access controls, tracking and monitoring all access to cardholder data, performing routine security system testing, and maintaining a robust, documented information security policy.
Compliance validation depends on the organization’s transaction volume and role. Larger merchants typically undergo annual assessments performed by Qualified Security Assessors, while smaller merchants may complete self-assessment questionnaires tailored to their environment. Service providers also follow specific requirements based on the types of services they offer and the level of access they have to cardholder data.
A) HIPAA focuses on the privacy and security of healthcare information and has no relation to payment card data protections.
B) PCI DSS directly addresses payment card data protection requirements for organizations handling credit card information, making this the correct answer.
C) GDPR governs the protection and processing of personal data broadly across the European Union and is not specific to payment card industry requirements.
D) SOX establishes requirements for financial reporting integrity and internal controls within publicly traded companies, not payment card security.
Organizations that accept or process payment cards must achieve and maintain PCI DSS compliance by implementing required controls, continuously monitoring their environments, and validating compliance through appropriate assessment methods. Ongoing adherence ensures that cardholder data remains protected against evolving threats and that organizations uphold the trust placed in them by customers and payment card brands.
Question 208:
What type of attack exploits trust between websites and user browsers?
A) SQL injection
B) Cross-site scripting
C) Buffer overflow
D) Brute force
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cross-site scripting, or XSS, is an attack technique that abuses the trust relationship between websites and user browsers by injecting malicious scripts into web applications that are then executed by other users’ browsers. Because browsers assume that scripts delivered by a website are legitimate, they execute injected malicious code with the same privileges as the site’s genuine scripts. Attackers take advantage of this inherent trust to steal session cookies, capture login credentials, alter or spoof page content, perform unauthorized actions on behalf of victims, or redirect users to harmful websites. Since the malicious script appears to originate from a site the victim intentionally visited, the browser grants it full trust, amplifying the potential for harm.
This attack becomes possible when web applications fail to properly validate and sanitize user input or fail to safely encode output before rendering it in a browser. When user-supplied content is inserted into web pages without proper protection, attackers can embed scripts that are subsequently served to other users. Because the browser cannot identify which parts of the page are legitimate and which were injected by an attacker, it executes all embedded scripts as if they were trusted components of the web application.
XSS attacks fall into several categories based on delivery and persistence. Reflected XSS occurs when the application immediately returns unsanitized user input in its response, requiring attackers to lure victims into clicking crafted links. Stored XSS persists on the server, such as in a database or message board, causing the malicious script to execute for every user who views the infected content. DOM-based XSS operates on the client side by exploiting vulnerabilities in existing client-side scripts or manipulating the DOM environment without involving altered server responses.
A) SQL injection targets backend databases through maliciously crafted queries and does not depend on a browser’s trust relationship with a website.
B) Cross-site scripting specifically exploits trust between websites and browsers through injected scripts executed in the victim’s browser, making this the correct answer.
C) Buffer overflow attacks manipulate memory by supplying input that exceeds memory boundaries, not by exploiting browser trust mechanisms.
D) Brute force attacks rely on repeatedly guessing credentials, unrelated to exploiting web browser trust in content supplied by a website.
Mitigation strategies include strict input validation to prevent malicious data from entering the system, output encoding to transform dangerous characters into harmless representations, implementing Content Security Policies to control which scripts are allowed to run, and using HTTPOnly cookie flags to prevent scripts from accessing session tokens. When properly implemented, these protections significantly reduce the risk of XSS attacks and strengthen overall web application security.
Question 209:
What is the primary purpose of implementing vulnerability management?
A) To increase network speed
B) To identify, assess, and remediate security vulnerabilities
C) To reduce storage costs
D) To eliminate user authentication
Answer: B
Explanation:
Vulnerability management identifies, assesses, and remediates security vulnerabilities across organizational systems through an ongoing, cyclical process that continuously discovers weaknesses, evaluates their associated risk, prioritizes remediation, and verifies that corrective actions are effective. This proactive approach helps reduce an organization’s attack surface by addressing potential weaknesses before adversaries can exploit them. Because modern environments evolve rapidly—with new software deployments, configuration changes, and emerging threats—vulnerability management plays a critical role in maintaining a resilient security posture over time. Effective programs combine automated scanning tools with risk-based prioritization methods, ensuring that limited remediation efforts are directed toward the most critical vulnerabilities first.
The vulnerability management lifecycle begins with discovery, during which automated tools scan networks, endpoints, cloud environments, and applications to detect potential vulnerabilities. These scanners compare system configurations, software versions, and known signatures against up-to-date vulnerability databases to identify issues such as missing patches, insecure settings, or outdated components. Assessment follows discovery, evaluating each detected vulnerability by considering factors such as how easily it can be exploited, the potential business impact if exploited, the importance of the affected asset, and any compensating controls that may already be in place. Prioritization then ranks vulnerabilities according to their associated risk, allowing organizations to focus on the issues most likely to result in significant harm if left unaddressed.
Remediation involves applying patches, implementing configuration changes, modifying access controls, or applying compensating controls when direct fixes are not immediately feasible. Operational requirements, downtime limitations, and compatibility concerns can delay patching efforts, making compensating controls necessary to temporarily reduce risk. Verification is the final phase, confirming through rescanning or testing that remediation efforts have successfully addressed the identified vulnerabilities and that no residual issues remain.
A) Vulnerability management addresses security weaknesses, not network performance. Network performance relates to bandwidth, throughput, and infrastructure efficiency rather than security flaws.
B) Vulnerability management specifically identifies, assesses, and remediates security vulnerabilities to reduce organizational risk, making this the correct answer.
C) Storage costs pertain to data management and capacity planning, not to identifying or resolving security vulnerabilities.
D) Vulnerability management aims to strengthen authentication controls because weak authentication is itself a security vulnerability. It does not eliminate authentication but rather seeks to improve it.
Organizations implement continuous vulnerability management programs that integrate with patch management, configuration management, change management, and broader security operations to ensure comprehensive coverage throughout the vulnerability lifecycle. When executed properly, vulnerability management helps organizations minimize exposure, improve resilience, and respond effectively to the evolving threat landscape.
Question 210:
Which security control restricts network communications to necessary connections only?
A) Encryption
B) Firewall
C) Authentication
D) Backup
Answer: B
Explanation:
Firewalls restrict network communications to only what is necessary by examining traffic and making permit-or-deny decisions based on predefined rules that outline which communications are allowed. These security devices enforce network access policies and ensure that only authorized, business-critical traffic can pass between network segments. By doing so, they implement the principle of least privilege at the network level, allowing only essential connections while blocking all others. This selective filtering is crucial for reducing the attack surface, preventing unauthorized access, and mitigating the spread of malicious traffic. Firewalls act as gatekeepers, forming a critical layer of defense in both perimeter security and internal segmentation strategies.
Firewall rules serve as the core mechanism through which traffic control is applied. Each rule typically specifies conditions such as source and destination IP addresses, port numbers, protocols, direction of traffic, and sometimes application characteristics. Associated with each rule is an action—permit or deny—that dictates how matching traffic is handled. Firewalls evaluate rules in a top-down order, meaning the first matching rule determines the outcome; subsequent rules are ignored. To maintain a secure posture, most firewalls implement a “default deny” or “implicit deny” rule at the end of the rule set, ensuring that any traffic not explicitly permitted is automatically blocked. This approach guarantees that only well-defined, necessary communications are authorized.
Different types of firewalls provide varying levels of inspection depth and sophistication. Packet-filtering firewalls operate at the network layer, inspecting individual packet headers for basic criteria like IP addresses and ports. Stateful firewalls add intelligence by maintaining awareness of active sessions, allowing them to verify that packets are part of legitimate, established connections. Next-generation firewalls (NGFWs) extend these capabilities further by offering application-layer inspection, threat intelligence, integrated intrusion prevention, and granular control over specific applications and behaviors. This progression enhances an organization’s ability to detect, prevent, and respond to advanced threats.
A) Encryption protects data confidentiality by transforming plaintext into unreadable ciphertext but does not govern which systems may communicate across a network. It secures data in transit, not communication permissions.
B) Firewalls explicitly restrict network communications by enforcing rule-based traffic filtering. Because they control which connections are allowed or denied, this makes Option B the correct answer.
C) Authentication verifies the identity of users or systems so that access decisions can be made, but identity verification alone does not determine which network connections are permitted between endpoints.
D) Backup operations create copies of data for recovery and continuity purposes but have no role in regulating network traffic or enforcing communication policies.
Organizations deploy firewalls at network perimeters, between internal network zones, in cloud environments, and even on endpoints, ensuring that communication flows align with security requirements. By thoughtfully designing and maintaining firewall rule sets, organizations minimize unnecessary communication pathways that attackers could use to infiltrate or move laterally within a network. Effective firewall management is therefore foundational to a robust cybersecurity posture.