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Question 166:
A company wants to ensure that data on employee laptops remains secure even if the devices are lost or stolen. Which of the following should be implemented?
A) BIOS password
B) Strong Wi-Fi password
C) Full disk encryption
D) Screensaver password
Answer: C) Full disk encryption
Explanation:
Full disk encryption is the most effective security measure for protecting data on laptops that may be lost or stolen. Full disk encryption, also known as whole disk encryption, encrypts all data stored on the device’s hard drive or solid-state drive, rendering it completely inaccessible without the proper encryption key or password. This protection ensures that even if someone physically removes the storage device from the laptop or attempts to access it using boot media or other operating systems, the data remains securely encrypted and unreadable.
Modern full disk encryption solutions use strong cryptographic algorithms such as AES with 256-bit keys to encrypt data transparently in the background. The encryption process is typically initiated during initial device setup or through administrative deployment tools, and once enabled, it automatically encrypts all new data written to the disk and decrypts data when accessed by authorized users. The encryption is tied to user authentication credentials, meaning users must successfully log in before the system decrypts and provides access to stored data.
The importance of full disk encryption for mobile devices like laptops cannot be overstated. Laptops are frequently used in various locations including coffee shops, airports, hotels, and during commuting, greatly increasing the risk of loss or theft compared to desktop computers. These devices often contain sensitive corporate data, customer information, financial records, intellectual property, and personal data that could cause significant harm if exposed. Full disk encryption ensures that even if physical security fails and a device falls into unauthorized hands, the data itself remains protected.
Windows offers BitLocker as its integrated full disk encryption solution, while macOS provides FileVault, and various Linux distributions include LUKS encryption. These solutions integrate seamlessly with the operating system, requiring minimal performance overhead on modern hardware while providing enterprise-grade security. Organizations can enforce encryption through group policies, mobile device management systems, or endpoint management platforms, ensuring consistent protection across all company devices.
A BIOS password provides limited protection as it can often be bypassed by removing the CMOS battery or using manufacturer backdoors, and it does not protect the actual data on the storage device. Strong Wi-Fi passwords protect network access but provide no protection for data stored on the device. Screensaver passwords only protect against unauthorized access while the computer is running and logged in, offering no protection if someone accesses the physical storage device directly. Full disk encryption is the only solution that protects data at rest regardless of how someone attempts to access it.
Question 167:
A user reports that applications are running slowly and the computer is unresponsive. The technician checks and finds that CPU usage is consistently at 100%. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) Insufficient RAM
B) Background processes consuming resources
C) Full hard drive
D) Outdated graphics drivers
Answer: B) Background processes consuming resources
Explanation:
When CPU usage is consistently at 100 percent and causing system unresponsiveness, the most likely cause is background processes consuming excessive resources. Background processes are programs and services that run without direct user interaction, and while many are necessary for system operation, others may malfunction, contain malware, or be poorly optimized, leading to excessive CPU consumption that degrades system performance.
High CPU usage directly impacts system responsiveness because the processor is fully occupied executing instructions for running processes, leaving insufficient processing capacity for user applications and system tasks. When the CPU is saturated at 100 percent utilization, even simple tasks like moving the mouse cursor, typing, or switching between windows can become sluggish or delayed. The operating system’s scheduler must compete to allocate limited CPU time among all running processes, and if one or more processes are monopolizing the CPU, legitimate applications receive insufficient processor time to function normally.
Several categories of background processes commonly cause excessive CPU usage. Malware such as cryptocurrency miners, botnet agents, or worms specifically designed to utilize system resources can drive CPU usage to maximum levels. System services that malfunction or enter error loops may repeatedly attempt failed operations, consuming CPU cycles indefinitely. Windows Update or other update mechanisms might be downloading or installing updates in the background. Antivirus software performing system scans can temporarily cause high CPU usage. Third-party applications with memory leaks or inefficient code may progressively consume more resources over time.
Identifying the specific processes causing high CPU usage requires using Task Manager or similar system monitoring tools. In Task Manager, the Processes tab displays all running applications and background processes along with their individual CPU consumption percentages. Sorting processes by CPU usage reveals which specific programs are responsible for the high utilization. Once identified, technicians can research the process to determine if it is legitimate, terminate problematic processes, update or reinstall malfunctioning applications, or remove malware using appropriate security tools.
Insufficient RAM typically manifests as high memory usage and increased disk activity due to paging or swapping, not necessarily high CPU usage. A full hard drive can slow system performance by preventing the creation of temporary files and swap space, but this typically does not directly cause sustained 100 percent CPU utilization. Outdated graphics drivers primarily affect graphical performance and display issues rather than causing persistent maximum CPU usage. While these factors can contribute to overall system slowness, the specific symptom of sustained 100 percent CPU usage points most directly to problematic background processes.
Question 168:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that is displaying a “No Boot Device Found” error message during startup. The technician has verified that the hard drive is properly connected and receiving power. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?
A) Update the operating system
B) Check the BIOS boot order settings
C) Replace the RAM modules
D) Run a disk defragmentation tool
Answer: B) Check the BIOS boot order settings
Explanation:
When a computer displays a “No Boot Device Found” error message, it indicates that the system cannot locate a bootable device to load the operating system. Since the technician has already confirmed that the hard drive is properly connected and receiving power, the next logical step in the troubleshooting process is to check the BIOS boot order settings. The boot order determines the sequence in which the computer searches for bootable devices during the startup process.
The BIOS boot order settings can become misconfigured for several reasons. A recent BIOS update might reset the boot order to default settings, which may not prioritize the correct hard drive. If a USB device or optical drive is listed before the hard drive in the boot sequence, the system might attempt to boot from these devices first, and if no bootable media is present, it will display the error message. Additionally, if the system has multiple storage devices installed, the BIOS might be attempting to boot from the wrong drive.
To resolve this issue, the technician should access the BIOS setup utility during system startup by pressing the appropriate key, which is typically displayed on the screen during POST. Once in the BIOS, the technician should navigate to the boot order or boot priority section and ensure that the hard drive containing the operating system is listed as the first boot device. If the hard drive is not visible in the BIOS at all, this could indicate a more serious hardware failure or connection issue that would require further investigation.
Option A is incorrect because updating the operating system is not possible when the system cannot even locate a boot device. Option C is incorrect because RAM issues typically cause different symptoms, such as beeping sounds or failure to POST, rather than a “No Boot Device Found” error. Option D is incorrect because disk defragmentation is a maintenance task performed on a functioning system and cannot be run when the system cannot boot. Checking the BIOS boot order is the most appropriate next step in this troubleshooting scenario, as it addresses the most common cause of this specific error message.
Question 169:
A user reports that their laptop keyboard is typing the wrong characters when certain keys are pressed. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
A) The keyboard driver needs to be updated
B) The wrong keyboard layout is selected in the operating system
C) The keyboard cable is loose
D) The laptop has a virus infection
Answer: B) The wrong keyboard layout is selected in the operating system
Explanation:
When a laptop keyboard is typing incorrect characters, the most common cause is that the wrong keyboard layout has been selected in the operating system settings. Keyboard layouts vary by language and region, and they determine which characters are produced when specific keys are pressed. For example, a QWERTY keyboard layout used in the United States differs from an AZERTY layout used in France, and pressing the same physical key will produce different characters depending on which layout is active.
This issue can occur accidentally when users press certain key combinations that trigger a keyboard layout switch. In Windows, for instance, pressing Alt plus Shift can cycle through available keyboard layouts. Users may inadvertently activate this shortcut without realizing it, resulting in unexpected character output. The problem becomes particularly noticeable when typing special characters or punctuation marks, as these are often positioned differently across various keyboard layouts.
To resolve this issue, the technician should verify the keyboard layout settings in the operating system. In Windows, this can be accessed through Settings, then Time and Language, and finally Language preferences. The technician should ensure that the correct keyboard layout for the user’s physical keyboard is selected and remove any unnecessary layouts that might cause confusion. Additionally, the technician can disable the keyboard layout switching shortcut to prevent future accidental changes.
Option A is less likely because outdated keyboard drivers typically cause keys to not work at all rather than produce wrong characters. Option C is incorrect because laptop keyboards use an internal ribbon cable connection, and if this cable were loose, entire sections of the keyboard would fail to respond rather than typing wrong characters. Option D is incorrect because while malware can cause various system issues, it rarely manifests as typing wrong characters specifically. The symptoms described are characteristic of a keyboard layout mismatch, making option B the most appropriate answer for this scenario.
Question 170:
A technician needs to configure a Windows 10 computer to automatically log in a specific user account without requiring password entry at startup. Which of the following tools should the technician use?
A) User Accounts in Control Panel
B) Local Security Policy
C) Computer Management
D) System Configuration
Answer: A) User Accounts in Control Panel
Explanation:
To configure automatic login in Windows 10, the most straightforward method is to use the User Accounts tool in Control Panel. This utility provides a simple interface for managing user account settings, including the option to require users to enter a username and password to use the computer. By disabling this requirement, the technician can set up automatic login for a specific user account.
The process involves accessing the User Accounts tool by typing “netplwiz” or “control userpasswords2” in the Run dialog. This opens the User Accounts window, which displays all user accounts on the system. The technician should select the user account that needs to automatically log in and uncheck the box that says “Users must enter a user name and password to use this computer.” After clicking Apply, the system will prompt for the username and password of the account that should automatically log in. Once this information is entered and confirmed, the computer will bypass the login screen and automatically log into the specified account during startup.
It is important to note that automatic login should only be configured in environments where physical security is not a concern, as it removes an important security barrier. Anyone with physical access to the computer can gain immediate access to the user’s files and applications without authentication. This feature is typically appropriate for home computers in secure locations or for systems used in controlled environments like kiosks or digital signage displays.
Option B is incorrect because Local Security Policy is used for configuring security settings and policies but does not provide a straightforward method for configuring automatic login. Option C is incorrect because Computer Management is used for managing various system components like disk drives, services, and event logs, but it does not directly handle automatic login configuration. Option D is incorrect because System Configuration is primarily used for managing startup programs and boot options, not user account login settings.
Question 171:
A user is unable to access a specific website on their computer, but other websites load without issues. Other users on the same network can access the problematic website without problems. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST?
A) The computer’s DNS cache
B) The network router configuration
C) The website’s server status
D) The computer’s firewall settings
Answer: A) The computer’s DNS cache
Explanation:
When a user cannot access a specific website while other websites work normally, and other users on the same network can access the problematic site, the issue is likely isolated to that particular computer. The most common cause of this type of problem is a corrupted or outdated entry in the computer’s DNS cache. The DNS cache stores recent DNS lookup results to speed up subsequent visits to the same websites, but if this cache contains incorrect information, it can prevent the browser from connecting to the correct server.
DNS cache issues can occur for several reasons. A website might have changed its IP address, but the computer’s cache still contains the old address. DNS cache poisoning or corruption can also occur due to malware, network issues, or system crashes. When the browser attempts to connect to the website, it uses the cached DNS information, which points to an incorrect or non-existent IP address, resulting in connection failure.
To resolve this issue, the technician should clear the DNS cache on the affected computer. In Windows, this is accomplished by opening a command prompt with administrative privileges and executing the command “ipconfig /flushdns.” This command removes all cached DNS entries, forcing the system to perform fresh DNS lookups for subsequent website visits. After flushing the DNS cache, the user should attempt to access the problematic website again.
Option B is incorrect because if the router configuration were the problem, all users on the network would experience the same issue, not just one user. Option C is incorrect because other users on the same network can access the website successfully, which confirms that the website’s server is functioning properly. Option D is less likely to be the immediate cause because firewall settings typically affect entire categories of traffic rather than blocking access to a single website while allowing others to work normally. Checking the DNS cache is the most appropriate first step in this troubleshooting scenario.
Question 172:
A technician is setting up a new Windows 10 workstation and needs to ensure that all user files are automatically backed up to a network location. Which of the following Windows features should the technician configure?
A) File History
B) System Restore
C) Previous Versions
D) Shadow Copy
Answer: A) File History
Explanation:
File History is the Windows feature specifically designed to automatically back up user files to a secondary location, including network drives. Introduced in Windows 8 and continuing through Windows 10 and 11, File History provides continuous backup protection for personal files stored in libraries, desktop, favorites, and contacts folders. This feature is ideal for ensuring that user data is regularly backed up without requiring manual intervention.
When File History is configured, it automatically saves copies of files at regular intervals, typically every hour by default, though this schedule can be customized. The feature monitors specified folders for changes and creates versioned backups of files whenever they are modified. This means that users can not only recover deleted files but also restore previous versions of files if needed. File History can be configured to save backups to various locations, including external hard drives, network shares, or other connected storage devices.
To set up File History for network backup, the technician would navigate to Settings, then Update and Security, and select Backup. From there, they can add a network drive as the backup destination by clicking “Add a drive” and selecting the network location. The technician should ensure that the network path is accessible and that the computer has appropriate permissions to write to the destination. Additionally, File History settings can be customized to control how long backed-up versions are kept and how frequently backups occur.
Option B is incorrect because System Restore creates restore points for system files and settings, not user files. It is designed to recover from system changes and software installations that cause problems, not to back up personal data. Option C is incorrect because Previous Versions is a feature that allows users to restore files from existing backups, but it relies on other backup mechanisms like File History or Shadow Copy to create those backups. Option D is incorrect because Shadow Copy is primarily a server-side technology used on Windows Server to create point-in-time copies of files, though it can work on workstations, File History is the more appropriate and user-friendly solution.
Question 173:
A user’s smartphone is experiencing rapid battery drain even when not actively being used. Which of the following should a technician recommend FIRST to address this issue?
A) Replace the smartphone battery
B) Check for apps running in the background
C) Perform a factory reset
D) Update the phone’s firmware
Answer: B) Check for apps running in the background
Explanation:
When a smartphone experiences rapid battery drain during periods of inactivity, the most common cause is applications running in the background that are consuming system resources. Many apps continue to operate even when not actively in use, performing tasks such as syncing data, checking for updates, tracking location, or maintaining network connections. Some poorly optimized or malfunctioning apps can become particularly aggressive in their background activity, resulting in significant battery consumption.
To identify problematic apps, the technician should guide the user to check the battery usage statistics on their smartphone. Both Android and iOS devices provide detailed battery usage information that shows which apps are consuming the most power. This information typically includes both screen-on time and background activity. If a particular app shows unusually high background battery usage, it may need to be restricted, updated, or uninstalled. Most modern smartphones also offer battery optimization settings that can limit background activity for selected apps or automatically restrict apps that are detected as battery-draining.
Common culprits for excessive background battery drain include social media apps that constantly refresh content, email clients with aggressive sync schedules, navigation apps that continue tracking location, and poorly coded third-party applications. The user should consider adjusting sync settings, disabling unnecessary location services, and removing apps that are not essential. The technician can also recommend enabling battery saver modes, which automatically restrict background activity and reduce performance to extend battery life.
Option A is premature because replacing the battery should only be considered after software-related causes have been ruled out, as battery replacement is more invasive and expensive. Option C is too drastic as a first step, as a factory reset will erase all user data and settings and should only be attempted after simpler solutions have failed. Option D could be helpful but is not the first step, as firmware updates should be performed as part of regular maintenance rather than as an immediate troubleshooting step.
Question 174:
A technician is configuring email on a user’s mobile device. The user wants to ensure that emails are synchronized across all devices and remain on the server. Which of the following protocols should the technician configure?
A) POP3
B) IMAP
C) SMTP
D) SNMP
Answer: B) IMAP
Explanation:
IMAP, which stands for Internet Message Access Protocol, is the email protocol that allows emails to be synchronized across multiple devices while keeping the messages stored on the email server. This protocol is specifically designed for situations where users need to access their email from multiple devices, such as smartphones, tablets, and computers, and want to maintain a consistent view of their mailbox across all platforms.
When IMAP is configured, all email management actions, including reading, deleting, moving, and organizing messages into folders, are performed on the server itself. This means that when a user reads an email on their smartphone, that message will also appear as read on their computer and tablet. Similarly, if a user deletes an email or moves it to a folder on one device, that change is reflected across all devices that connect to the same email account. IMAP only downloads email headers by default and retrieves the full message content when the user opens an email, which helps save storage space on the device.
The typical port numbers used for IMAP are port 143 for unencrypted connections and port 993 for encrypted connections using SSL/TLS. Modern email configurations should always use the encrypted port to protect email content during transmission. When setting up IMAP on a mobile device, the technician will need to provide the incoming mail server address, port number, and the user’s email credentials. Most email providers support IMAP, and it has become the preferred protocol for mobile email access.
Option A is incorrect because POP3 downloads emails from the server to the device and typically removes them from the server, making synchronization across multiple devices impossible. Option C is incorrect because SMTP is the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol used for sending emails, not receiving them. Option D is incorrect because SNMP stands for Simple Network Management Protocol, which is used for network device management and monitoring, not email communication.
Question 175:
A Windows 10 computer is running extremely slowly and the hard drive activity light is constantly illuminated. A technician checks Task Manager and notices that disk usage is consistently at 100 percent. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A) The computer needs more RAM
B) Windows Search indexing is running
C) The computer has a malware infection
D) The hard drive is failing
Answer: B) Windows Search indexing is running
Explanation:
When a Windows 10 computer exhibits constant 100 percent disk usage, one of the most common causes is the Windows Search indexing service. This service continuously scans and catalogs files on the computer to enable fast file searches through the Windows search feature. During the indexing process, especially after a fresh Windows installation, major system updates, or when large amounts of new data are added to the system, the Windows Search service can consume significant disk resources.
The Windows Search indexing process typically runs in the background with lower priority, but it can still cause noticeable performance degradation, particularly on systems with traditional mechanical hard drives rather than solid-state drives. The indexing service reads through all files in specified locations, analyzing their content and metadata to build a searchable database. This process can take hours or even days to complete on systems with large amounts of data, and during this time, users may experience slow application launch times, delayed file operations, and general system sluggishness.
To verify if Windows Search is causing the issue, the technician should open Task Manager and examine the Processes or Details tab to identify which specific process is consuming disk resources. If the Windows Search service or SearchIndexer.exe is the culprit, the technician has several options. They can temporarily disable the service to provide immediate relief, adjust the indexing options to exclude certain file types or locations, or allow the indexing to complete while the computer is idle. In some cases, rebuilding the search index can resolve issues where the indexing process has become stuck or corrupted.
Option A might contribute to performance issues but would primarily manifest as high memory usage rather than constant disk activity. Option C is possible, as malware can cause high disk usage, but Windows Search indexing is more common and should be ruled out first. Option D is a possibility that should be investigated if simpler explanations are ruled out, but a failing hard drive would typically show errors in disk health monitoring tools.
Question 176:
A user reports that pop-up advertisements are appearing constantly on their computer, even when no web browser is open. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely affecting the system?
A) Ransomware
B) Adware
C) Rootkit
D) Trojan
Answer: B) Adware
Explanation:
The symptoms described indicate that the computer is infected with adware, which is a type of potentially unwanted program designed to display advertisements to generate revenue for its creators. Adware typically manifests as persistent pop-up windows, banner advertisements, or browser redirects that appear unexpectedly. The key indicator in this scenario is that advertisements appear even when no web browser is open, which suggests that the adware has installed itself as a standalone application or system service that runs independently of web browsing activity.
Adware infections commonly occur when users download and install free software from untrusted sources. Many free applications bundle adware as part of their installation process, and users who rush through installation steps without carefully reading each screen may inadvertently agree to install additional unwanted software. Adware can also be distributed through malicious websites, fake software updates, or email attachments. Once installed, adware may modify system settings, install browser extensions, change the default search engine, or add new toolbars to web browsers.
To remove adware, the technician should use a combination of approaches. First, they should check the installed programs list in Windows and remove any suspicious or unfamiliar applications, particularly those that were installed around the time the symptoms began. The technician should also run a comprehensive malware scan using reputable anti-malware software that specializes in detecting potentially unwanted programs and adware. Browser settings should be reviewed and reset to defaults, and any suspicious browser extensions should be removed. In some cases, multiple adware programs may be installed simultaneously, requiring thorough and systematic removal.
Option A is incorrect because ransomware encrypts user files and demands payment for decryption, rather than displaying advertisements. Option C is incorrect because rootkits are sophisticated malware that hide deep within the operating system to conceal other malicious activities, and they do not typically display advertisements. Option D is less specific, as trojans are a broad category of malware that disguise themselves as legitimate software, while adware specifically describes the advertising-focused behavior described in the question.
Question 177:
A technician needs to securely dispose of several hard drives that contain sensitive company data. Which of the following methods provides the HIGHEST level of data destruction?
A) Formatting the drives multiple times
B) Using disk wiping software with multiple passes
C) Physical destruction of the drives
D) Encrypting the drives before disposal
Answer: C) Physical destruction of the drives
Explanation:
Physical destruction of hard drives is the most secure and reliable method of ensuring that sensitive data cannot be recovered. This method involves damaging the physical storage media to the point where it becomes impossible to retrieve any data, even with specialized recovery equipment. Physical destruction techniques include shredding the drives using industrial shredders designed specifically for electronic media, crushing the drives using hydraulic presses, or drilling multiple holes through the platters to ensure that the magnetic surfaces are irreparably damaged.
The reason physical destruction provides the highest level of security is that it eliminates any possibility of data recovery, regardless of how advanced the recovery techniques might be. Even if data has been overwritten or encrypted, there is always a theoretical possibility that sophisticated forensic analysis could recover some information, particularly with older overwriting methods. Physical destruction removes this possibility entirely by destroying the actual medium on which the data was stored. For organizations handling highly sensitive data, such as financial institutions, healthcare providers, or government agencies, physical destruction is often required by data protection regulations and security policies.
When implementing physical destruction, organizations should maintain proper documentation of the disposal process, including serial numbers of destroyed drives and the destruction method used. This documentation is important for compliance purposes and audit trails. Some organizations use third-party services that specialize in secure data destruction and provide certificates of destruction as proof that the drives have been properly disposed of. These services often use industrial-grade equipment that meets or exceeds Department of Defense standards for data destruction.
Option A is inadequate because formatting does not actually erase data; it only removes file system references, leaving the actual data intact and recoverable with appropriate tools. Option B is more secure than formatting and can be effective, but sophisticated forensic techniques may still potentially recover some data remnants, particularly from solid-state drives. Option D is insufficient because encryption only protects data from unauthorized access while the drive is intact; if the encryption is broken or if the keys are discovered, the data could still be accessed.
Question 178:
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that displays a “BOOTMGR is missing” error during startup. Which of the following actions should the technician take to resolve this issue?
A) Run the System File Checker utility
B) Use the Windows Recovery Environment to repair the boot sector
C) Reinstall the operating system
D) Replace the hard drive
Answer: B) Use the Windows Recovery Environment to repair the boot sector
Explanation:
The “BOOTMGR is missing” error indicates that the Windows Boot Manager, which is responsible for loading the operating system, cannot be found or accessed. This typically occurs due to corruption or damage to the boot sector, boot configuration data, or the boot partition itself. The most appropriate resolution is to use the Windows Recovery Environment to repair the boot sector and restore the boot configuration.
The Windows Recovery Environment provides several tools specifically designed to fix boot-related issues. The technician can access this environment by booting from a Windows installation media, such as a USB drive or DVD, and selecting the repair option instead of installation. Once in the recovery environment, the technician should use the Startup Repair tool, which automatically diagnoses and fixes common boot problems, including missing or corrupted boot files. If automatic repair does not resolve the issue, the technician can use the command prompt in the recovery environment to manually run commands such as bootrec /fixmbr, bootrec /fixboot, and bootrec /rebuildbcd, which repair the master boot record, write a new boot sector, and rebuild the boot configuration data respectively.
The boot manager issue can occur for several reasons. It may result from improper shutdowns, disk corruption, malware infection, failed Windows updates, or physical issues with the hard drive. In most cases, the problem is software-related and can be resolved through the boot repair process without data loss. However, if the hard drive has physical damage or if the boot partition has been accidentally deleted, additional steps may be necessary, such as recreating the partition structure or recovering data before attempting repairs.
Option A is incorrect because the System File Checker utility repairs corrupted system files but requires Windows to be running, which is not possible when the boot manager is missing. Option C is premature and should only be considered as a last resort after attempting boot repairs, as reinstalling the operating system will require backing up data and reconfiguring settings. Option D is unnecessary unless diagnostic tests indicate actual hardware failure, as the “BOOTMGR is missing” error is typically a software issue that can be resolved without hardware replacement.
Question 179:
A user wants to share files between their Windows 10 computer and an Android smartphone without using cables or cloud storage. Which of the following features should the technician enable on the Windows computer?
A) Bluetooth
B) Remote Desktop
C) Nearby Sharing
D) Network Discovery
Answer: C) Nearby Sharing
Explanation:
Nearby Sharing is a Windows 10 feature that allows users to wirelessly share files, links, and other content with nearby devices using Bluetooth and Wi-Fi. This feature is specifically designed for convenient local file sharing without requiring cables, network configuration, or cloud storage services. When enabled, Nearby Sharing allows the Windows computer to discover and communicate with compatible devices in close proximity, making it ideal for quick file transfers between a computer and a smartphone.
To use Nearby Sharing, the technician must first enable the feature on the Windows computer through the Settings app by navigating to System and then Shared experiences. The user can choose whether to receive files from everyone nearby or only from their own devices that are signed in with the same Microsoft account. For sharing files with an Android smartphone, the user would need to ensure that the phone has Bluetooth enabled and is using an app or feature that supports the sharing protocol, such as Nearby Share on Android devices, which is Google’s implementation of similar functionality.
The actual file sharing process is straightforward. The user can right-click on a file they wish to share and select the Share option from the context menu, then choose Nearby Sharing and select the target device from the list of available recipients. The recipient must accept the incoming transfer on their device. This method is particularly useful for sharing photos, documents, and other files quickly without the delays associated with uploading to and downloading from cloud storage services or the hassle of connecting cables.
Option A is partially correct because Bluetooth is one of the underlying technologies that Nearby Sharing uses, but simply enabling Bluetooth alone does not provide the integrated sharing experience that Nearby Sharing offers. Option B is incorrect because Remote Desktop is used for controlling a computer remotely, not for sharing files between different types of devices. Option D is incorrect because Network Discovery allows devices to find each other on a network but does not provide a direct mechanism for file sharing between a Windows computer and an Android device.
Question 180:
A technician is setting up a new printer in an office environment where multiple users will need to print to it from their individual workstations. Which of the following is the BEST method to accomplish this?
A) Connect the printer to one workstation and share it
B) Install the printer as a network printer
C) Connect the printer to each workstation via USB
D) Email documents to a central computer connected to the printer
Answer: B) Install the printer as a network printer
Explanation:
Installing the printer as a network printer is the most efficient and professional solution for providing print access to multiple users in an office environment. A network printer connects directly to the network, either through an Ethernet cable or Wi-Fi, and is assigned its own IP address. This configuration allows all workstations on the network to communicate with the printer directly without relying on any intermediate computer, providing reliability, efficiency, and ease of management.
Network printers offer several advantages over other sharing methods. They eliminate dependency on any single workstation, meaning users can print regardless of whether other computers are powered on or available. Performance is optimized because print jobs are sent directly to the printer’s memory rather than being routed through another computer, which can cause delays. Network printers typically include web-based management interfaces that allow administrators to monitor print queues, check supplies, configure settings, and troubleshoot issues remotely. Additionally, most modern network printers support both wired and wireless connections, providing flexibility in placement and accommodating different types of devices, including laptops and mobile devices.
Setting up a network printer involves connecting the printer to the network and configuring its network settings, either through the printer’s control panel or web interface. Once the printer has a network address, it can be added to each workstation using the Add Printer wizard in Windows. Users can add the printer by searching for it on the network or by entering its IP address directly. The technician should ensure that appropriate printer drivers are installed on each workstation and consider implementing print management features such as secure printing, usage tracking, or print quotas if required by organizational policies.
Option A creates a single point of failure because the shared printer will be unavailable whenever the host workstation is turned off or disconnected. Option C is impractical and physically impossible, as USB printers can typically only connect to one computer at a time. Option D is inefficient, cumbersome, and creates workflow bottlenecks that would frustrate users and reduce productivity.