{"id":12472,"date":"2026-09-15T09:29:34","date_gmt":"2026-09-15T09:29:34","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=12472"},"modified":"2026-09-15T09:29:34","modified_gmt":"2026-09-15T09:29:34","slug":"itil-itilfnd-v5-itil-foundation-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-18-q341-360","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/itil-itilfnd-v5-itil-foundation-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-18-q341-360\/","title":{"rendered":"ITIL ITILFND V5 ITIL Foundation Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 18 Q341-360"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full\u00a0ITIL ITILFND V5 Exam Dumps<\/a>\u00a0and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/p>\n

 <\/p>\n

Q341. Which ITIL practice is responsible for maximizing successful changes by assessing risks and authorizing changes?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Incident Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Change Enablement<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Service Desk<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Problem Management<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 2)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Change Enablement is responsible for maximizing the number of successful changes by ensuring that changes are properly assessed, authorized, scheduled, and managed. The practice considers the potential risks and benefits of a proposed change and determines the appropriate level of control. Changes can range from routine standard changes to higher-risk normal or emergency changes. Effective Change Enablement helps organizations introduce useful improvements while minimizing disruption to services. It does not mean preventing changes; instead, it provides a structured approach that allows valuable changes to be implemented safely and efficiently. This supports organizational agility while maintaining service stability and reliability.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q342. Which type of change is pre-authorized, low risk, and well understood?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Emergency change<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Normal change<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Standard change<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Major change<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 3)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

A standard change is a low-risk, well-understood, and frequently performed change that follows a documented procedure. Because its risks and implementation steps are known, it can be pre-authorized rather than requiring individual authorization every time it is performed. Examples might include routine password resets or other established operational activities, depending on the organization’s policies. Normal changes generally require assessment and authorization before implementation, while emergency changes are handled using accelerated procedures because they address urgent situations. Standard changes improve efficiency by reducing unnecessary approval effort while maintaining appropriate control. Their procedures should still be periodically reviewed to ensure they remain appropriate.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q343. Which type of change requires assessment and authorization before implementation and does not follow the standard-change procedure?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Normal change<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Standard change<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Automatic change<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Informational change<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 1)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

A normal change is a change that requires assessment and authorization before it is implemented and does not qualify as a standard change. The level of assessment and approval depends on factors such as risk, impact, urgency, and organizational policy. Normal changes can range from relatively simple modifications to significant changes that require extensive planning and coordination. Change Enablement ensures that these changes are evaluated appropriately and implemented in a controlled manner. The objective is not to create unnecessary bureaucracy but to ensure that risks are understood and managed. Proper planning, authorization, scheduling, and review help increase the likelihood of successful outcomes.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q344. Which type of change is used to resolve an incident or address an urgent situation as quickly as possible?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Standard change<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Emergency change<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Normal change<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Routine request<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 2)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

An emergency change is used when urgent action is required to resolve an incident, address a security threat, or respond to another critical situation. Emergency changes generally require an accelerated assessment and authorization process because delaying implementation could create greater harm. Although speed is important, emergency changes should still be controlled and documented as much as practical. Organizations normally define specific procedures and authorities for handling them. After implementation, the change should be reviewed to determine whether it achieved the desired result and whether any follow-up actions are necessary. Effective emergency change procedures balance urgency with appropriate risk management and accountability.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q345. What is the primary purpose of Incident Management?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> To identify the root cause of every incident<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> To restore normal service as quickly as possible<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> To approve all organizational changes<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> To negotiate supplier contracts<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 2)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

The purpose of Incident Management is to minimize the negative impact of incidents by restoring normal service as quickly as possible. An incident is an unplanned interruption to a service or a reduction in the quality of a service. Incident Management focuses on restoring service rather than necessarily identifying the underlying root cause. Root-cause investigation is primarily associated with Problem Management. Incident Management may use workarounds when a permanent solution is not immediately available. Effective incident handling helps reduce disruption to users and the organization while maintaining clear communication, prioritization, escalation, and coordination throughout the incident lifecycle.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q346. What is the primary purpose of Problem Management?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> To manage all user requests<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> To restore service after every interruption<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> To reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> To approve service budgets<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 3)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Problem Management aims to reduce the likelihood and impact of incidents by identifying actual and potential causes of incidents and managing workarounds and known errors. While Incident Management focuses on restoring normal service quickly, Problem Management looks beyond individual incidents to understand underlying causes and prevent recurrence where possible. A problem may be identified from one serious incident, multiple recurring incidents, or analysis of trends and data. Problem Management can also proactively identify weaknesses before incidents occur. By addressing underlying causes and managing known errors, the practice helps improve service stability, reliability, and overall service quality.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q347. What is a known error?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> A problem that has been analyzed but has not been resolved<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> An incident that has already been closed<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> A service request awaiting approval<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> A failed emergency change<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 1)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

A known error is a problem that has been analyzed but has not been resolved. During Problem Management, investigation may identify the cause of a problem and document useful information about its symptoms, impact, and possible workarounds. Even when a permanent resolution is not immediately available, recording the problem as a known error helps support faster response to related incidents. Service desk staff and technical teams can use documented information to apply appropriate workarounds and reduce service disruption. Known errors therefore provide valuable knowledge while organizations determine whether and when a permanent solution should be implemented.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q348. Which ITIL practice manages user-initiated and predefined service requests?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Problem Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Change Enablement<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Service Request Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Service Configuration Management<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 3)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Service Request Management handles predefined and user-initiated requests in an effective and user-friendly manner. Examples can include requests for access, information, standard software, equipment, or other services that an organization routinely provides. Service requests are generally different from incidents because they do not necessarily represent an unplanned interruption or reduction in service quality. Service Request Management establishes consistent procedures for fulfilling common requests and may use automation where appropriate. The practice helps improve user experience, efficiency, and predictability by ensuring that common requests are handled through clearly defined workflows, responsibilities, approvals, and fulfillment procedures.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q349. Which practice is responsible for observing services and service components and recording selected changes of state identified as events?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Monitoring and Event Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Service Level Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Service Financial Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Relationship Management<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 1)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Monitoring and Event Management observes services and service components and records selected changes of state that are significant for service management. These changes are known as events and can provide useful information about normal operation, potential problems, or conditions requiring action. Monitoring may involve infrastructure, applications, networks, security systems, or other service components. Effective event management helps teams detect conditions early and respond appropriately before they develop into more serious service issues. The practice supports proactive service management by providing information that can be used for incident detection, performance analysis, capacity decisions, security monitoring, and other operational activities.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q350. Which type of event indicates that normal operation is occurring and no action is generally required?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Exception<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Warning<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Informational<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Emergency<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 3)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

An informational event indicates normal operation or provides useful information about the status of a service or component. It generally does not require immediate action because it does not indicate that a threshold has been exceeded or that an abnormal condition has occurred. Warning events indicate a situation that may require attention, while exception events indicate that a defined threshold or condition has been exceeded and may require action. Event categorization helps organizations prioritize responses and avoid treating every system notification as an incident. Proper classification allows monitoring tools and support teams to focus attention where it is most needed.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q351. What is the purpose of Service Level Management?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> To manage hardware purchases<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> To set clear business-based targets for service levels<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> To investigate every technical problem<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> To approve employee salaries<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 2)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Service Level Management sets clear, business-based targets for service levels and ensures that delivery of services is properly assessed, monitored, and managed against those targets. The practice helps create a shared understanding between service providers and consumers regarding expected service performance. Targets may address availability, response times, support arrangements, or other relevant service characteristics. Service Level Management also supports communication and reporting so stakeholders can understand whether services are meeting agreed expectations. Rather than focusing solely on technical measurements, the practice connects service performance with customer and business requirements, helping ensure that service agreements remain relevant and valuable.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q352. What document commonly records agreed service-level targets between a service provider and customer?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Service level agreement<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Known error record<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Incident model<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Configuration baseline<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 1)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

A Service Level Agreement, or SLA, is a documented agreement between a service provider and customer that describes agreed service-level targets and other relevant expectations. SLAs help establish a shared understanding of what service performance should be delivered and how it may be measured and reported. Depending on the service, an SLA may include targets for availability, response times, support hours, or other service characteristics. Service Level Management helps ensure that these agreements remain aligned with business needs. Effective SLAs should be clear, measurable, realistic, and meaningful to the customer rather than containing technical metrics that do not relate to valuable outcomes.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q353. Which practice ensures that accurate and reliable information about configuration items is available when needed?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Incident Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Service Configuration Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Relationship Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Service Request Management<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 2)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Service Configuration Management ensures that accurate and reliable information about configuration items and their relationships is available when and where it is needed. Configuration items may include hardware, software, services, documentation, or other components that need to be managed to deliver services effectively. Understanding relationships between configuration items can help teams assess the impact of incidents, problems, changes, and other activities. Reliable configuration information supports better decision-making and reduces the risk of making changes without understanding dependencies. The practice therefore contributes to effective service operation, change planning, incident investigation, and overall control of service configurations.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q354. What is the primary purpose of Availability Management?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> To ensure services meet agreed availability requirements<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> To approve emergency changes<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> To manage supplier invoices<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> To create user accounts<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 1)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Availability Management ensures that services consistently meet agreed availability requirements. It considers the ability of services and their supporting components to perform their required functions when needed. Availability can be influenced by system design, maintenance, resilience, recovery capabilities, capacity, and many other factors. The practice monitors availability performance and works with other practices to identify opportunities for improvement. For example, Availability Management may work with Service Continuity Management to improve resilience and recovery arrangements. The objective is not simply to maximize uptime regardless of cost, but to achieve appropriate availability that meets agreed business and consumer requirements.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q355. Which practice ensures that an organization can continue operating during major disruptions?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Service Desk<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Service Continuity Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Service Request Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Supplier Management<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 2)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Service Continuity Management supports the organization’s ability to continue operating during major disruptions by preparing for significant service interruptions and recovery requirements. The practice identifies continuity needs, develops appropriate plans, and helps ensure that services can recover within agreed requirements. Continuity planning may involve recovery strategies, backup arrangements, alternative facilities, communication procedures, and regular testing. Service Continuity Management differs from Incident Management because it focuses on significant disruption and recovery capability rather than the normal handling of individual incidents. Effective continuity planning reduces the potential business impact of major disruptions and improves organizational resilience.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q356. Which information security objective ensures that information is accessible to authorized users when required?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Confidentiality<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Integrity<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Availability<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Authentication<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 3)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Availability is the information security objective concerned with ensuring that information and services are accessible and usable by authorized users when required. Confidentiality protects information from unauthorized access, while integrity ensures that information remains accurate, complete, and protected from unauthorized modification. Availability can be affected by system failures, cyberattacks, capacity problems, disasters, or other disruptions. Organizations use controls such as redundancy, backups, resilience, monitoring, and recovery arrangements to support availability. The three core information security objectives\u2014confidentiality, integrity, and availability\u2014work together to protect information and support reliable service delivery.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q357. Which practice manages relationships with suppliers and monitors their performance?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Supplier Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Incident Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Service Desk<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Release Management<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 1)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Supplier Management ensures that the organization’s suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to support the delivery of quality products and services. Suppliers may provide technology, software, infrastructure, support, specialist expertise, or other resources required by services. The practice helps establish effective supplier relationships, monitor performance against agreed expectations, and manage supplier-related risks and improvements. Supplier Management also supports coordination between suppliers and other parts of the organization. Effective supplier relationships are important because service providers often depend on external organizations to deliver parts of a service. Poor supplier performance can directly affect service quality, cost, availability, and customer satisfaction.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q358. What is the main purpose of the Service Desk?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> To approve organizational budgets<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> To act as the entry point and point of contact for users<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> To design every business process<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> To manage supplier contracts<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 2)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

The Service Desk acts as an entry point and point of contact between the service provider and users. It helps users with incidents, service requests, questions, communication, and other support needs. The Service Desk can also contribute to user experience by providing clear communication, appropriate escalation, and effective coordination with specialist teams. Modern Service Desk practices may use multiple communication channels, self-service capabilities, automation, and knowledge resources. The Service Desk is not simply a technical help function; it can play an important role in understanding user needs and maintaining positive relationships with consumers throughout service interactions.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q359. Which practice manages information and knowledge so that it is available to the right people when needed?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Knowledge Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> Availability Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Change Enablement<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Service Financial Management<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 1)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

Knowledge Management ensures that useful knowledge and information are collected, maintained, organized, and made available to the appropriate people when needed. Effective knowledge can help service desk staff resolve incidents faster, help users find answers through self-service, and support technical teams during troubleshooting and decision-making. Knowledge may include procedures, known errors, workarounds, guides, FAQs, or lessons learned. The practice should also consider the quality, security, accuracy, and accessibility of knowledge. By making relevant information easier to find and reuse, Knowledge Management can improve efficiency, reduce repeated effort, support consistent service delivery, and improve the overall user experience.<\/span><\/p>\n

Q360. Which practice focuses on managing the lifecycle of IT assets to maximize their value?<\/b><\/h3>\n

1)<\/b> Service Level Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 2)<\/b> IT Asset Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 3)<\/b> Problem Management<\/span>
\n<\/span> 4)<\/b> Monitoring and Event Management<\/span><\/p>\n

Correct Answer: 2)<\/b><\/p>\n

Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

IT Asset Management manages the lifecycle of IT assets to maximize their value, control costs, manage risks, and support informed decisions. IT assets may include hardware, software, devices, licenses, and other resources that have financial or operational value to the organization. Effective asset management includes activities such as planning, acquisition, deployment, maintenance, utilization, and retirement. IT Asset Management is different from Service Configuration Management, although the two practices may work closely together. Asset Management focuses on the value, ownership, lifecycle, and risks of assets, while Configuration Management focuses on information about configuration items and their relationships.<\/span><\/p>\n

 <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

View Full\u00a0ITIL ITILFND V5 Exam Dumps\u00a0and Practice Test Dumps   Q341. Which ITIL practice is responsible for maximizing successful changes by assessing risks and authorizing changes? 1) Incident Management 2) Change Enablement 3) Service Desk 4) Problem Management Correct Answer: 2) Explanation: Change Enablement is responsible for maximizing the number of successful changes by ensuring […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12472"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=12472"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12472\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":12493,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12472\/revisions\/12493"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=12472"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=12472"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=12472"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}