{"id":12722,"date":"2026-09-15T11:44:34","date_gmt":"2026-09-15T11:44:34","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=12722"},"modified":"2026-09-15T11:44:34","modified_gmt":"2026-09-15T11:44:34","slug":"isc-ccsp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-16-q301-320","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/isc-ccsp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-16-q301-320\/","title":{"rendered":"ISC CCSP Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 16 Q301-320"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full\u00a0ISC CCSP Exam Dumps<\/a>\u00a0and Practice Test Dumps.<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 301<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which cloud storage class is optimized for infrequently accessed data that requires rapid retrieval when needed?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. Cold archive tape tier<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Standard frequently accessed tier<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. Infrequent access (Standard-IA) storage tier<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Ephemeral local scratch disk storage<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    The infrequent access storage tier is specifically designed for data that is accessed less frequently but must remain available immediately when requested. Unlike deep archive tiers that involve retrieval delays and higher restoration costs, standard infrequent access provides high durability and rapid low-latency retrieval while offering lower baseline storage pricing. Cloud customers utilize this tier for backups, older log files, and secondary datasets. Implementing proper lifecycle management policies ensures that aging records automatically transition to this cost-effective tier, reducing overall enterprise cloud storage expenses without compromising data accessibility or operational readiness across multi-tenant cloud storage ecosystems.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 302<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which international standard specifically establishes a code of practice for protecting Personally Identifiable Information in public clouds?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. ISO\/IEC 27001 Information Security Management<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. ISO\/IEC 27017 Cloud Security Code of Practice<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. ISO\/IEC 27035 Incident Management Standard<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. ISO\/IEC 27018 PII Protection in Public Clouds<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      ISO\/IEC 27018 is an international standard specifically designed to provide a comprehensive code of practice for protecting Personally Identifiable Information in public cloud computing environments. It establishes guidelines that help cloud service providers implement appropriate safeguards for customer PII, ensuring transparency regarding data retention, disclosure, return, and disposal policies. Adopting this standard enables organizations to comply with stringent global privacy regulations, such as GDPR, and assures enterprise customers that their sensitive personal data assets are handled securely across multi-tenant cloud platforms, building vital mutual trust while mitigating regulatory risks during routine cloud operations globally.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 303<\/b><\/h3>\n

      What foundational architectural principle underlies Zero Trust security models in modern cloud computing environments?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Assume zero implicit trust; continuously verify every user and device explicitly<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Trust all network traffic originating inside corporate firewalls<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Exempt internal microservices from authentication checks<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Rely exclusively on physical office badges for data center access<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        Zero Trust is a modern cybersecurity architectural model built upon the core philosophy of assuming zero implicit trust for any user, device, or application, regardless of whether they reside inside or outside the corporate network perimeter. Instead, Zero Trust mandates continuous, explicit verification of user identity, device health, context, and authorization before granting least-privilege access to cloud resources. This approach utilizes micro-segmentation, multi-factor authentication, cryptographic service meshes, and real-time behavioral analytics to minimize blast radiuses, contain security breaches, and protect sensitive data assets across complex multi-tenant cloud environments against sophisticated threat actors safely.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 304<\/b><\/h3>\n

        According to NIST Special Publication 800-61, which incident response phase immediately follows containment, eradication, and recovery?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. Initial event detection and alert triage phase<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Threat containment and network isolation phase<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Post-incident lessons learned review activity phase<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. Preparation and baseline tool configuration phase<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication 800-61 incident response lifecycle, the post-incident activity phase, commonly known as lessons learned, immediately follows the containment, eradication, and recovery stages. This critical phase involves conducting formal debriefs, analyzing incident root causes, documenting operational timeline failures, and updating security policies, detection rules, and employee training programs to prevent similar breaches in the future. Capturing these insights ensures continuous organizational improvement, refines cloud incident response playbooks, and strengthens overall defensive resilience across multi-tenant enterprise environments against evolving cyber threat vectors and malicious intrusion campaigns.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 305<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which Cloud Access Security Broker deployment mode positions the proxy directly in the communication path between users and cloud services for inline enforcement?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Out-of-band API connector discovery mode<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. Inline Proxy Mode (Forward or Reverse)<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Host-based agent log forwarding mode<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Hypervisor memory inspection mode<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            Inline proxy deployment modes position the Cloud Access Security Broker directly in the communication path between end-user devices and cloud service providers, operating either as a forward proxy for managed corporate endpoints or a reverse proxy for unmanaged device access. This architecture enables CASBs to enforce real-time security controls, inspect payload contents, block unauthorized data exfiltration, and apply context-aware access policies instantaneously. In contrast, out-of-band API modes analyze data retroactively. Inline proxying provides proactive threat prevention and granular visibility across all cloud interactions, ensuring robust compliance governance and enterprise perimeter protection within multi-tenant cloud environments safely.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 306<\/b><\/h3>\n

            Which specialized cryptographic process renders encrypted cloud storage files permanently unrecoverable by intentionally destroying the decryption keys?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Multi-pass magnetic disk overwriting standards<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Symmetric key rotation and archiving protocols<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Physical media shredding and thermal incineration<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Cryptographic erasure (crypto-shredding)<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              Cryptographic erasure, commonly referred to as crypto-shredding, provides a secure and efficient data sanitization method by intentionally deleting, destroying, or losing the cryptographic keys required to decrypt stored data files. Because encrypted ciphertext without its corresponding key is mathematically indistinguishable from random noise, crypto-shredding achieves instant and verifiable data destruction without necessitating physical destruction of underlying multi-tenant cloud storage media. This technique complies with stringent international privacy regulations and enables rapid, secure data decommissioning across distributed cloud storage environments while maintaining absolute confidentiality standards, minimizing data retention liability and protecting sensitive enterprise records against unauthorized recovery attempts successfully.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 307<\/b><\/h3>\n

              Under the shared responsibility model for Platform as a Service (PaaS), which operational domain remains strictly the responsibility of the cloud provider?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. Underlying database engine patching and operating system runtimes<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. Application source code development and business logic<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. User access role assignments and permission policies<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. Data classification and sensitive record labeling rules<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                Under the shared responsibility model governing Platform as a Service, the cloud service provider assumes responsibility for managing the underlying infrastructure, physical hardware, operating system runtimes, middleware, and database engine patching, while the customer retains responsibility for application source code, business logic, user access controls, and stored data. This division allows developers to focus exclusively on application functionality without managing server provisioning or OS-level security patches. However, customers must still ensure that application code is secure, input validation is enforced, and identity permissions are configured properly to prevent unauthorized access across multi-tenant cloud developer environments successfully.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 308<\/b><\/h3>\n

                What primary security function does an API Gateway provide when positioned in front of cloud-native microservices architectures?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Physical hardware cooling and power supply distribution management<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Bare-metal hypervisor kernel patching and virtualization management<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. Centralized authentication, rate limiting, and request payload inspection<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Raw block storage allocation and redundant disk array mirroring<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  An API Gateway serves as the centralized entry point and reverse proxy for microservices architectures deployed in cloud environments, providing critical security functions such as token-based authentication validation, rate limiting, request payload inspection, SSL termination, and traffic routing. By intercepting incoming client API requests before they reach backend microservices, the gateway enforces consistent security policies, prevents volumetric denial-of-service attacks, and shields internal service structures from external exploitation. This architectural pattern simplifies security management, ensures robust API governance, and protects cloud-native applications against malicious threat vectors across distributed enterprise multi-tenant deployments seamlessly while optimizing overall performance metrics.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 309<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  What foundational security benefit does maintaining a Software Bill of Materials (SBOM) provide for cloud applications?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Permanent elimination of network-level denial of service attacks<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. Complete inventory tracking of all open-source and third-party software components<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Automated physical cooling adjustment for server racks<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. Instantaneous cryptographic erasure of legacy database storage volumes<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    A Software Bill of Materials functions as a formal, structured inventory detailing all third-party libraries, open-source modules, and software components utilized within an application build. Maintaining an up-to-date SBOM enables security and engineering teams to rapidly identify and remediate newly discovered vulnerabilities within underlying dependencies, such as open-source libraries, before malicious actors exploit them in production environments. As software supply chain attacks increase across cloud ecosystems, SBOM transparency empowers organizations to enforce strict dependency governance, accelerate patch management cycles, and maintain compliance standards across complex microservice application deployments effectively without operational disruption or administrative delays.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 310<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which mechanism restricts lateral movement between virtual machines residing on the same physical host hypervisor?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Unencrypted shared disk mounting<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Physical data center perimeter fencing<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Automated backup snapshot retention<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Virtual local area network micro-segmentation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Virtual local area network micro-segmentation and software-defined networking security groups provide granular network isolation that restricts lateral movement between guest virtual machines sharing the same physical host hypervisor. By enforcing strict firewall rules and traffic inspection policies at the virtual interface level, organizations ensure that even if one virtual workload is compromised, attackers cannot pivot laterally to neighboring co-tenant workloads on the same physical server. This defense-in-depth networking control is critical for maintaining robust workload isolation across multi-tenant public cloud infrastructures, preventing unauthorized data exfiltration and mitigating lateral intrusion risks effectively.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 311<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      Which network security technique is utilized to absorb and mitigate volumetric Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks against cloud applications?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Anycast network routing and traffic scrubbing centers<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Static Layer 3 static routing firewall rules<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Local host-based file integrity monitoring agents<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Unencrypted client-side data masking scripts<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Mitigating volumetric Distributed Denial of Service attacks in cloud environments relies heavily on Anycast network routing combined with specialized traffic scrubbing centers distributed globally. When a massive flood of malicious traffic targets an application, Anycast routing disperses the traffic load across multiple edge scrubbing centers where advanced filtering algorithms distinguish legitimate user requests from malicious botnet packets in real-time. This automated scrubbing absorbs high-volume attack payloads before they saturate backend cloud infrastructure, ensuring continuous application availability and robust operational resilience for enterprise cloud services against disruptive cyber threat campaigns without impacting legitimate traffic performance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 312<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which structured threat modeling methodology utilizes an attacker-centric approach to analyze threat actor motivations, operational capabilities, and business impacts?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. STRIDE application vulnerability categorization<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS)<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis (PASTA)<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, and Evaluation (OCTAVE)<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          The Process for Attack Simulation and Threat Analysis is a structured, seven-step risk-centric threat modeling methodology that aligns security requirements with business objectives by adopting an attacker-centric perspective. PASTA evaluates threat actor motivations, potential attack paths, and operational vulnerabilities to assess business impact risks accurately. By integrating risk management directly into software architecture and application design phases, PASTA enables security teams to prioritize threat remediation based on actual business criticality. This comprehensive approach enhances application security posture and ensures effective risk mitigation across complex cloud development lifecycles and modern microservice deployments.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 313<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          Which disaster recovery metric defines the maximum allowable downtime for critical business applications following a service disruption?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF)<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Recovery Time Objective (RTO)<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Recovery Point Objective (RPO)<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Mean Time to Repair (MTTR)<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Recovery Time Objective is a crucial disaster recovery metric that specifies the maximum tolerable downtime allowed for an organization’s critical business applications and infrastructure following a disruptive incident or catastrophic system failure. Unlike Recovery Point Objective which focuses exclusively on data loss limits and synchronization tolerances, RTO dictates how rapidly IT teams must restore functional services and network availability to prevent severe operational disruption and financial losses. Establishing precise RTO benchmarks enables cloud architects to design appropriate high-availability multi-region active-active architectures, automated failover workflows, and resilient disaster recovery plans that satisfy rigorous corporate governance mandates.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 314<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which federated identity standard uses XML-based assertions to securely pass user authentication and entitlement data between an identity provider and a cloud service?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. OAuth 2.0 Authorization Grant Framework<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. OpenID Connect JSON Web Token Standard<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Security Assertion Markup Language is an open XML-based standard used extensively in enterprise environments to exchange secure authentication and authorization identity data between an identity provider and external cloud service providers. SAML enables seamless single sign-on experiences by allowing users to authenticate once against a central corporate directory, which subsequently issues cryptographically signed XML assertions granting authorized access to software-as-a-service applications. This eliminates the security risks associated with managing separate user passwords across multiple cloud platforms while centralizing credential management and access governance for corporate security teams across distributed multi-tenant enterprise environments.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 315<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              What primary security objective does implementing a robust data classification policy achieve in cloud environments?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. Categorizing data based on sensitivity to apply appropriate security controls<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Automating physical data center server rack cooling<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. Eliminating the need for cryptographic encryption keys<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Restricting network bandwidth allocation for virtual machines<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Implementing a robust data classification policy enables organizations to categorize information assets based on sensitivity, regulatory requirements, and business value\u2014such as public, internal, confidential, and restricted. By accurately labeling data, security teams can apply proportionate technical controls, including granular access permissions, strict encryption standards, and tailored data loss prevention rules. This risk-based approach ensures that high-value assets receive maximum protection while optimizing resource allocation across distributed enterprise storage repositories. Effective data classification is a foundational pillar of comprehensive cloud governance, reducing accidental exposure risks and ensuring compliance with international privacy mandates.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 316<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                What advanced security inspection technique enables hypervisors to monitor the memory space and CPU execution states of guest virtual machines without installing in-guest agent software?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. Host-based antivirus agent scanning<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Network packet mirroring tap collection<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Hypervisor introspection (VM introspection)<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Web application firewall payload filtering<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Hypervisor introspection is an advanced security monitoring technique where the underlying hypervisor examines the volatile memory space, CPU register states, and execution flows of guest virtual machines directly from the outside, operating completely independently of the guest operating system. Because VM introspection does not require installing in-guest agent software, malicious rootkits or compromised guest kernels cannot tamper with or disable the security monitoring tools. This out-of-band visibility empowers security teams to detect unauthorized kernel modifications, memory injection attacks, and advanced persistent threats efficiently across multi-tenant cloud infrastructure environments without affecting virtual workload performance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 317<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  What primary cultural and technical objective does integrating security early into the DevOps pipeline (DevSecOps) achieve?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Eliminating the need for any production environment logging or monitoring<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Embedding automated security testing throughout the software development lifecycle<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Transferring all legal liability for data breaches to the cloud provider<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Restricting software deployment frequencies exclusively to annual releases<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Integrating security practices early into the software development lifecycle transforms traditional workflows into a DevSecOps model, where automated security testing, vulnerability scanning, and compliance checks are embedded continuously across every pipeline stage. By shifting security left, development teams identify and remediate code vulnerabilities, misconfigured dependencies, and architectural flaws before software reaches production environments. This proactive approach eliminates friction between engineering and security groups, reduces costly remediation efforts, and accelerates secure software delivery speeds while maintaining rigorous compliance baselines across modern cloud-native microservice architectures and distributed application deployments.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 318<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    Which log management process aggregates security telemetry from diverse cloud sources into a centralized analytical repository?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Local terminal command history clearing<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Unencrypted network packet mirroring<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Manual backup snapshot rotation<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      A Security Information and Event Management solution aggregates, normalizes, and correlates security telemetry, log files, and event alerts from diverse cloud services, firewalls, and host systems into a centralized analytical repository. By leveraging automated threat intelligence feeds and custom correlation rules, SIEM platforms enable security operations teams to detect suspicious behavior, investigate security incidents, and satisfy regulatory compliance logging mandates in real-time. Centralized log management provides vital visibility across distributed multi-tenant cloud architectures, empowering organizations to identify complex multi-stage cyber attacks and coordinate rapid incident response workflows efficiently.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 319<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      Which core data protection principle under the General Data Protection Regulation restricts processing personal data to specified, legitimate purposes?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Purpose limitation and data minimization principle<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Unlimited data retention and sharing mandate<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Public disclosure of all consumer records<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Mandatory hardware token encryption requirement<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        The purpose limitation and data minimization principles under the General Data Protection Regulation dictate that personal data must be collected for specified, explicit, and legitimate purposes and not further processed in a manner incompatible with those initial purposes. Furthermore, organizations must ensure that data collection is adequate, relevant, and limited to what is strictly necessary relative to the processing goals. Adhering to these privacy tenets minimizes unnecessary data storage in cloud repositories, reduces regulatory exposure, and protects consumer rights against overreach during big data processing initiatives across multi-tenant enterprise environments safely.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 320<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        What core security capability does a Hardware Security Module provide for cryptographic key management?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Lowering wide-area network query latency<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Automating virtual machine snapshot schedules<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Tamper-resistant physical storage and secure cryptographic processing<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Eliminating multi-factor authentication needs<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          A Hardware Security Module is a specialized physical computing device engineered specifically to safeguard digital cryptographic keys, accelerate cryptographic operations, and provide tamper-resistant storage environments. HSMs protect sensitive master keys and certificates from unauthorized extraction by performing all cryptographic functions within a secure, hardened hardware boundary equipped with physical and logical tamper-detection sensors. Whether deployed on-premises or consumed as a cloud-based managed service, HSMs ensure that critical encryption keys remain secure against software-level compromises and malicious insider threats, satisfying rigorous regulatory compliance requirements and establishing absolute data confidentiality across distributed enterprise cloud architectures.<\/span><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full\u00a0ISC CCSP Exam Dumps\u00a0and Practice Test Dumps.   Question 301 Which cloud storage class is optimized for infrequently accessed data that requires rapid retrieval when needed? Cold archive tape tier Standard frequently accessed tier Infrequent access (Standard-IA) storage tier Ephemeral local scratch disk storage Correct Answer: 3 Explanation The infrequent access storage tier is […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12722"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=12722"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12722\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":12733,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12722\/revisions\/12733"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=12722"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=12722"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=12722"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}