{"id":12724,"date":"2026-09-15T11:45:13","date_gmt":"2026-09-15T11:45:13","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=12724"},"modified":"2026-09-15T11:45:13","modified_gmt":"2026-09-15T11:45:13","slug":"isc-ccsp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-18-q341-360","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/isc-ccsp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-18-q341-360\/","title":{"rendered":"ISC CCSP Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 18 Q341-360"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full\u00a0ISC CCSP Exam Dumps<\/a>\u00a0and Practice Test Dumps.<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 341<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which cloud deployment model describes a shared infrastructure provisioned for specific organizations that have common compliance or security requirements?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. Public cloud model<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Community cloud model<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. Private cloud model<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Hybrid cloud model<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    A community cloud deployment model is established when multiple distinct organizations share a common computing infrastructure configured to support specific shared concerns, such as regulatory compliance, security baselines, mission objectives, or governance requirements. This collaborative environment can be managed internally by the participating organizations or hosted externally by a third-party service provider. By pooling resources and sharing operational costs among entities with similar compliance needs, organizations achieve enhanced cost efficiency while maintaining rigorous security standards across multi-tenant cloud ecosystems, balancing collective control with scalable architectural flexibility and shared governance models effectively.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 342<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which data discovery technique identifies sensitive information like credit card numbers within unstructured file repositories?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. Physical server motherboard replacement<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. Hypervisor memory introspection inspection<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Static routing table update management<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Automated data classification and regex scanning<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      Automated data classification and regular expression scanning techniques enable organizations to discover, inspect, and label sensitive information\u2014such as credit card numbers, Social Security numbers, and intellectual property\u2014across unstructured file storage repositories and cloud buckets. By executing automated pattern matching rules and content analysis algorithms, discovery tools map data sensitivity levels accurately, empowering security teams to apply appropriate access controls, encryption standards, and data loss prevention policies. This foundational governance process reduces accidental data exposure risks, ensures compliance with international privacy mandates, and maintains comprehensive visibility over sensitive enterprise assets across distributed multi-tenant cloud storage ecosystems.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 343<\/b><\/h3>\n

      Which tool provides automated vulnerability scanning and security posture management across Kubernetes container clusters?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Container security posture management and scanner<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Network packet TAP aggregation tap<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Database activity monitoring audit sensor<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Web application firewall reverse proxy node<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        Container security posture management and automated scanning tools provide continuous visibility, configuration evaluation, and vulnerability assessment across Kubernetes clusters, container images, and deployment manifests. These specialized tools inspect container registries and runtime environments to identify outdated base images, misconfigured RBAC roles, insecure pod security policies, and known software vulnerabilities before deployment. By integrating security checks directly into continuous integration and deployment pipelines, container posture solutions ensure that vulnerabilities are remediated proactively. This automated governance reinforces overall cloud-native security posture, prevents container escapes, and maintains compliance across distributed multi-tenant containerized architectures efficiently.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 344<\/b><\/h3>\n

        According to NIST SP 800-61, which phase involves isolating affected systems to prevent further incident propagation?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. Preparation and tool baseline phase<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Detection and alert triage phase<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Containment, eradication, and recovery phase<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. Post-incident lessons learned review phase<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          According to the National Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication 800-61 incident response lifecycle, the containment, eradication, and recovery phase immediately follows alert detection and focuses on isolating compromised systems to halt incident propagation. Containment strategies involve network segmentation, disconnecting infected virtual machines, and blocking malicious IP addresses. Once contained, incident responders eradicate root causes, remove malware artifacts, and restore clean systems from secure backups during the recovery phase. This systematic approach minimizes operational disruption, preserves forensic integrity, and ensures rapid restoration of critical business services across enterprise multi-tenant cloud computing environments safely.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 345<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which federated authorization framework allows third-party applications to obtain limited access to user resources without exposing credentials?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. OAuth 2.0 Authorization Framework<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Security Assertion Markup Language<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            The OAuth 2.0 authorization framework enables third-party client applications to secure limited, scoped access to HTTP services on behalf of a resource owner without exposing user credentials. By utilizing authorization tokens rather than sharing passwords directly, OAuth 2.0 facilitates secure API delegation across modern cloud-native architectures. It decouples authorization from authentication, allowing users to grant granular permissions to external services safely. This protocol underpins modern enterprise integrations, mobile application connectivity, and federated cloud services, ensuring that access rights remain strictly controlled and revokable across complex distributed multi-tenant application environments efficiently.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 346<\/b><\/h3>\n

            Which cryptographic key management practice ensures that cloud customers retain sole ownership and control over the keys protecting their encrypted data?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Provider-managed default transparent encryption<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Automated hardware token expiration rotation<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Static string plaintext password hashing<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Customer-Managed Keys (CMK) via Cloud HSM<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              Utilizing Customer-Managed Keys via dedicated cloud hardware security modules ensures that cloud tenants maintain absolute ownership, control, and auditing capability over the cryptographic keys protecting their stored data assets. Unlike default provider-managed encryption where the cloud service provider controls key lifecycles, CMK implementation allows organizations to rotate, archive, or revoke keys instantly, enforcing the principle of separation of duties. This cryptographic control satisfies rigorous regulatory compliance requirements and protects sensitive enterprise workloads against unauthorized data access or external legal subpoena exposure across distributed multi-tenant cloud storage repositories.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 347<\/b><\/h3>\n

              What primary security function does an API Gateway provide when positioned in front of cloud-native microservices architectures?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. Centralized authentication, rate limiting, and request payload inspection<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. Physical hardware cooling and power supply distribution management<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. Bare-metal hypervisor kernel patching and virtualization management<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. Raw block storage allocation and redundant disk array mirroring<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                An API Gateway serves as the centralized entry point and reverse proxy for microservices architectures deployed in cloud environments, providing critical security functions such as token-based authentication validation, rate limiting, request payload inspection, SSL termination, and traffic routing. By intercepting incoming client API requests before they reach backend microservices, the gateway enforces consistent security policies, prevents volumetric denial-of-service attacks, and shields internal service structures from external exploitation. This architectural pattern simplifies security management, ensures robust API governance, and protects cloud-native applications against malicious threat vectors across distributed enterprise multi-tenant deployments seamlessly.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 348<\/b><\/h3>\n

                Under the shared responsibility model for Software as a Service (SaaS), what is the primary operational responsibility of the cloud customer?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Physical data center facility perimeter fencing<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Underlying server hardware maintenance and cooling<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. User identity governance, access control, and data configuration<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Hypervisor kernel patching and network virtualization<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Under the shared responsibility model governing Software as a Service, the cloud service provider manages the entire application infrastructure, underlying operating systems, database engines, and physical data center facilities, while the cloud customer retains primary responsibility for user identity governance, role-based access control, data classification, and secure configuration settings. Although infrastructure security is fully outsourced, customers remain accountable for protecting their own data assets against unauthorized internal access, configuring tenant permissions properly, and enforcing multi-factor authentication across all active user accounts within enterprise cloud platforms.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 349<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  In the STRIDE threat modeling framework, which threat category corresponds to altering data packets or system files maliciously?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Spoofing user identity credentials<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. Tampering with data integrity<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Repudiation of transaction logs<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. Elevation of privilege escalation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Within the STRIDE threat modeling framework developed by Microsoft, the tampering category represents threats that involve the unauthorized modification or destruction of data packets, storage files, database records, or system source code. Tampering undermines data integrity and can lead to silent corruption or malicious system manipulation. Mitigating tampering risks requires robust cryptographic hashing, digital signatures, strict access control lists, and file integrity monitoring tools across cloud-native environments. Identifying these vulnerabilities early in the software development lifecycle ensures that applications maintain high reliability and resistance against sophisticated cyber attacks.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 350<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which disaster recovery metric defines the maximum acceptable data loss measured in time following a catastrophic system failure?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Recovery Time Objective<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Mean Time Between Failures<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Mean Time to Repair<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Recovery Point Objective (RPO)<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      The Recovery Point Objective is a critical disaster recovery metric that defines the maximum tolerable data loss, measured in time, that an organization can endure following a disruptive incident or system failure. RPO dictates how frequently data backups or asynchronous replication cycles must occur to prevent unacceptable data loss thresholds. Establishing strict RPO benchmarks enables cloud architects to design appropriate multi-region replication strategies, snapshot schedules, and continuous data protection mechanisms. Aligning RPO requirements with organizational business continuity objectives ensures minimal operational disruption and rapid data restoration during enterprise emergencies.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 351<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      Which Cloud Access Security Broker deployment mode analyzes logs retroactively to discover unsanctioned shadow IT usage?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Out-of-band API connector discovery mode<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Inline Proxy Mode (Forward or Reverse)<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Host-based agent log forwarding mode<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Hypervisor memory inspection mode<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Out-of-band API connector discovery modes enable Cloud Access Security Brokers to analyze cloud service usage retroactively by integrating directly with cloud provider APIs and examining historical firewall or proxy log files. This non-invasive inspection approach identifies unsanctioned shadow IT applications, evaluates data exposure risks, and maps user activity without sitting directly in the active network traffic path. While out-of-band modes lack real-time inline blocking capabilities, they provide vital visibility into organizational cloud adoption, empowering security teams to assess risk profiles and establish appropriate governance policies across enterprise environments effectively.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 352<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which asymmetric cryptographic algorithm is widely used for secure key exchange and digital signatures across cloud applications?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Advanced Encryption Standard symmetric cipher<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Triple Data Encryption Standard block cipher<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Rivest-Shamir-Adleman (RSA) algorithm<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Secure Hash Algorithm cryptographic digest<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          The Rivest-Shamir-Adleman algorithm is a foundational asymmetric cryptographic system widely utilized across modern cloud environments for secure key exchange, digital signature generation, and identity verification. RSA relies on the mathematical difficulty of factoring large composite numbers, utilizing a public key for encryption and verification alongside a private key for decryption and signing. This dual-key architecture enables secure communication over untrusted public networks and authenticates users during federated single sign-on transactions, establishing robust trust relationships and cryptographic confidentiality across distributed enterprise cloud infrastructures seamlessly.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 353<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          Which specialized cryptographic process renders encrypted cloud storage files permanently unrecoverable by intentionally destroying the decryption keys?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. Multi-pass magnetic disk overwriting standards<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Cryptographic erasure (crypto-shredding)<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Physical media shredding and thermal incineration<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Symmetric key rotation and archiving protocols<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Cryptographic erasure, commonly referred to as crypto-shredding, provides a secure and efficient data sanitization method by intentionally deleting, destroying, or losing the cryptographic keys required to decrypt stored data files. Because encrypted ciphertext without its corresponding key is mathematically indistinguishable from random noise, crypto-shredding achieves instant and verifiable data destruction without necessitating physical destruction of underlying multi-tenant cloud storage media. This technique complies with stringent international privacy regulations and enables rapid, secure data decommissioning across distributed cloud storage environments while maintaining absolute confidentiality standards successfully.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 354<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which network security mechanism restricts lateral movement between virtual machines residing on the same physical host hypervisor?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Unencrypted shared disk mounting<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Physical data center perimeter fencing<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Automated backup snapshot retention<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Virtual local area network micro-segmentation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Virtual local area network micro-segmentation and software-defined networking security groups provide granular network isolation that restricts lateral movement between guest virtual machines sharing the same physical host hypervisor. By enforcing strict firewall rules and traffic inspection policies at the virtual interface level, organizations ensure that even if one virtual workload is compromised, attackers cannot pivot laterally to neighboring co-tenant workloads on the same physical server. This defense-in-depth networking control is critical for maintaining robust workload isolation across multi-tenant public cloud infrastructures, preventing unauthorized data exfiltration effectively.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 355<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              Which specialized third-party attestation report evaluates the design suitability of security controls at a single specific point in time?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. SOC 1 Type I Financial Controls Report<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. SOC 2 Type II Trust Services Report<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. ISO\/IEC 27001 Certification Audit Report<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. SOC 3 General Use Summary Attestation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                A SOC 1 Type I audit report evaluates the design suitability and implementation of internal controls relevant to user entity financial reporting at a specific, designated point in time. Unlike Type II reports which assess operational effectiveness over a sustained observation period, Type I provides a baseline assessment confirming whether controls are designed appropriately. Enterprise customers utilize this attestation to verify that third-party service providers maintain adequate financial control environments, satisfying corporate governance mandates and supporting comprehensive risk management reviews across distributed outsourcing relationships safely and efficiently.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 356<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                What security testing methodology involves injecting malformed, random inputs into an application to discover unhandled exceptions and crashes?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. Static application security testing analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Manual code peer review walkthroughs<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Automated software fuzz testing (fuzzing)<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Infrastructure port vulnerability scanning<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Automated software fuzz testing, commonly known as fuzzing, is a dynamic security testing technique that involves automatically feeding massive volumes of invalid, unexpected, or malformed data inputs into an application to monitor for unhandled exceptions, memory corruption flaws, and application crashes. Fuzzing is exceptionally effective at uncovering zero-day vulnerabilities, buffer overflows, and input validation errors in software code before production release. By integrating fuzzing into secure development pipelines, engineering teams identify obscure coding defects that traditional unit tests might miss, significantly enhancing application resilience across cloud-native deployments.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 357<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  Which log management process aggregates security telemetry from diverse cloud sources into a centralized analytical repository?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Local terminal command history clearing<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Security Information and Event Management (SIEM)<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Unencrypted network packet mirroring<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Manual backup snapshot rotation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    A Security Information and Event Management solution aggregates, normalizes, and correlates security telemetry, log files, and event alerts from diverse cloud services, firewalls, and host systems into a centralized analytical repository. By leveraging automated threat intelligence feeds and custom correlation rules, SIEM platforms enable security operations teams to detect suspicious behavior, investigate security incidents, and satisfy regulatory compliance logging mandates in real-time. Centralized log management provides vital visibility across distributed multi-tenant cloud architectures, empowering organizations to identify complex multi-stage cyber attacks and coordinate rapid incident response workflows efficiently.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 358<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    What access management capability grants administrative privileges strictly on-demand and for a limited time window?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Permanent root account assignment<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Implicit global network trust<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Unrestricted API token sharing<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Just-In-Time (JIT) privileged access management<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Just-In-Time privileged access management is a security control that eliminates standing administrative accounts by granting elevated permissions dynamically only when required and automatically revoking those privileges after a predefined time window expires. JIT access significantly reduces the attack surface and minimizes the potential blast radius if an administrative credential is compromised by malicious actors. In modern cloud environments, implementing ephemeral administrative roles enforces the principle of least privilege, satisfies strict regulatory auditing mandates, and prevents unauthorized privilege escalation across distributed enterprise cloud infrastructures securely.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 359<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      What architectural design strategy ensures that system components can fail gracefully without causing a total service outage?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. High availability and fault-tolerant multi-region design<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Single point of failure dependency integration<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Static monolithic server consolidation architecture<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Manual backup recovery scheduling workflow<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        High availability and fault-tolerant architectural design strategies ensure that cloud applications incorporate redundant infrastructure components, automated failover mechanisms, and multi-region load balancing so that localized hardware or software failures do not cause catastrophic service outages. By eliminating single points of failure and utilizing asynchronous or synchronous data replication across multiple availability zones, cloud architects maintain continuous operational continuity and satisfy strict service level agreements. This resilient design approach underpins modern enterprise cloud computing, enabling systems to absorb disruptions, self-heal automatically, and maintain seamless user experiences successfully.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 360<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        Which core data protection principle under the General Data Protection Regulation restricts processing personal data to specified, legitimate purposes?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Unlimited data retention and sharing mandate<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Public disclosure of all consumer records<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Purpose limitation and data minimization principle<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Mandatory hardware token encryption requirement<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          The purpose limitation and data minimization principles under the General Data Protection Regulation dictate that personal data must be collected for specified, explicit, and legitimate purposes and not further processed in a manner incompatible with those initial purposes. Furthermore, organizations must ensure that data collection is adequate, relevant, and limited to what is strictly necessary relative to the processing goals. Adhering to these privacy tenets minimizes unnecessary data storage in cloud repositories, reduces regulatory exposure, and protects consumer rights against overreach during big data processing initiatives across multi-tenant enterprise environments safely.<\/span><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full\u00a0ISC CCSP Exam Dumps\u00a0and Practice Test Dumps.   Question 341 Which cloud deployment model describes a shared infrastructure provisioned for specific organizations that have common compliance or security requirements? Public cloud model Community cloud model Private cloud model Hybrid cloud model Correct Answer: 2 Explanation A community cloud deployment model is established when multiple […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12724"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=12724"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12724\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":12735,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12724\/revisions\/12735"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=12724"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=12724"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=12724"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}