{"id":12789,"date":"2026-09-15T12:17:43","date_gmt":"2026-09-15T12:17:43","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=12789"},"modified":"2026-09-15T12:17:43","modified_gmt":"2026-09-15T12:17:43","slug":"pmi-pmp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part12-q221-240","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/pmi-pmp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part12-q221-240\/","title":{"rendered":"PMI PMP Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part12 Q221-240"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full PMI PMP Exam Dumps<\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 221<\/b><\/h3>\n

What is the primary purpose of a project business case?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. To document employee responsibilities<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. To justify why the project should be undertaken<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. To record daily project activities<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. To track team attendance<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    The business case provides justification for undertaking a project. It typically describes the business need, expected benefits, costs, risks, alternatives, and alignment with organizational objectives. It helps decision-makers determine whether the proposed investment is worthwhile. The business case is different from the project charter, which formally authorizes the project after approval. A strong business case supports informed investment decisions and provides context for measuring whether the project continues to make sense as circumstances change throughout its life cycle.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 222<\/b><\/h3>\n

    A project has EV of $90,000 and AC of $100,000. What is the CPI?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. 1.11<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. 0.90<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. 1.90<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. 0.10<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      The Cost Performance Index is calculated using CPI = EV \/ AC. With an earned value of $90,000 and actual cost of $100,000, the calculation is 90,000 \/ 100,000 = 0.90. A CPI below 1.0 indicates unfavorable cost performance because the project is earning less value than the amount being spent. The project manager should investigate the reason for the unfavorable performance and determine whether corrective action is necessary. CPI should also be considered with other performance information before making major project decisions.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 223<\/b><\/h3>\n

      A stakeholder is resistant to a new project process. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Remove the stakeholder<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Ignore the resistance<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Understand the concern<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Escalate immediately<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        Resistance should first be understood rather than immediately escalated or ignored. The stakeholder may have concerns about additional workload, unclear benefits, lack of information, potential risks, or changes to established responsibilities. The project manager should listen to the stakeholder, identify the underlying concern, and provide appropriate information or involve the stakeholder in finding a solution. Understanding the cause can make it easier to build support for the new process. Escalation may become appropriate later if the concern cannot be resolved at the current level.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 224<\/b><\/h3>\n

        Which approach is most appropriate for a highly uncertain project?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. Detailed planning for the entire project only<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Adaptive and iterative planning<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Avoiding stakeholder feedback<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. Eliminating all changes<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          Highly uncertain projects often benefit from adaptive and iterative planning because requirements, solutions, and priorities may evolve as the team learns more. Instead of attempting to define every detail far in advance, the team plans near-term work in greater detail and adjusts future plans based on feedback and new information. This approach supports inspection and adaptation while reducing the risk of committing heavily to assumptions that may later prove incorrect. Stakeholder collaboration and frequent feedback are also important when uncertainty is high.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 225<\/b><\/h3>\n

          What is the main purpose of a project baseline?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. To provide an approved basis for measuring performance<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. To identify all project stakeholders<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. To replace the project charter<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. To record team conflicts<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            A project baseline provides an approved version of a plan or measurement reference against which actual performance can be compared. Common baselines include scope, schedule, and cost. By comparing actual results with approved baselines, the project manager can identify variances and determine whether corrective action is necessary. Baselines should not be changed casually because uncontrolled changes can make performance measurement unreliable. When changes are necessary, they should follow the established change control process and receive appropriate authorization.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 226<\/b><\/h3>\n

            A team member reports a serious issue that could affect a major milestone. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Ignore it until the milestone date<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Analyze the issue and its impact<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Blame the responsible person<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Cancel the milestone immediately<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              A serious issue affecting a major milestone should be analyzed promptly to understand its cause, impact, urgency, and available response options. The project manager should determine whether the issue affects schedule, cost, scope, quality, resources, or other objectives. Appropriate stakeholders should be informed based on the issue’s significance and the project’s communication approach. Immediately cancelling a milestone without analysis may be premature. A structured assessment allows the project manager to select corrective actions and communicate realistic expectations to stakeholders.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 227<\/b><\/h3>\n

              Which Scrum event is focused on improving the team’s way of working?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. Sprint Planning<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. Sprint Review<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. Daily Scrum<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. Sprint Retrospective<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                The Sprint Retrospective focuses on inspecting how the team worked during the sprint and identifying opportunities for improvement. Team members discuss what went well, what challenges occurred, and what changes could improve effectiveness in future sprints. Sprint Planning focuses on determining the work and approach for the sprint, while the Sprint Review focuses on inspecting the increment and gathering stakeholder feedback. The Daily Scrum focuses on inspecting progress toward the Sprint Goal and adapting the plan for the next day.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 228<\/b><\/h3>\n

                A project manager discovers that a deliverable does not meet quality requirements. What should happen?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Accept it anyway<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Hide the defect<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. Analyze and correct the problem<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Close the project<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  A deliverable that does not meet quality requirements should be analyzed to determine the nature and cause of the problem. The team may need to perform rework, correct defects, or take other appropriate corrective action before the deliverable can be accepted. The project manager should also consider whether the problem indicates a broader process issue that requires preventive action. Accepting or hiding a defective deliverable can create additional problems and stakeholder dissatisfaction. Quality issues should be handled transparently and according to established project processes.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 229<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  What does SPI below 1.0 generally indicate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Favorable cost performance<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. Unfavorable schedule performance<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Favorable schedule performance<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. No schedule information<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    The Schedule Performance Index, or SPI, is calculated as EV divided by PV. An SPI below 1.0 generally indicates that the project has earned less value than planned at that point, suggesting unfavorable schedule performance. An SPI above 1.0 indicates favorable schedule efficiency, while an SPI of 1.0 represents performance consistent with the plan. The project manager should investigate the reasons for unfavorable schedule performance and determine whether corrective action is needed. SPI should be reviewed alongside other schedule information and project constraints.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 230<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    A project manager wants to improve collaboration between team members. What should be encouraged?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Shared problem-solving<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Individual competition<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Limited communication<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Unclear responsibilities<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Shared problem-solving encourages team members to exchange knowledge, understand different perspectives, and work toward common project objectives. Collaboration is strengthened when team members communicate openly, trust one another, and contribute to decisions and solutions. Excessive competition or limited communication can create silos and reduce cooperation. Clear responsibilities should also be maintained so collaboration does not create confusion about ownership. The project manager can support collaboration through workshops, team discussions, joint planning, and an environment where different viewpoints can be expressed respectfully.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 231<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      A project manager needs to estimate activity duration when historical information from a similar project is available. Which technique may be useful?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Bottom-up estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Analogous estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Three-point estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Parametric estimating<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Analogous estimating uses historical information from similar activities or projects to estimate the duration or cost of current work. It is generally faster than detailed estimating but may be less accurate if the current project differs significantly from the previous one. Bottom-up estimating involves estimating smaller components and aggregating them. Three-point estimating considers optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely estimates, while parametric estimating uses statistical relationships between variables. The project manager should select the technique that best fits the available information and required level of accuracy.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 232<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        A project manager wants to ensure that project decisions support organizational strategy. What should be considered?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Strategic alignment<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Team popularity<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Personal preferences<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Office location<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Strategic alignment ensures that project objectives and decisions support broader organizational goals and priorities. A project may be technically successful but still provide limited value if it does not contribute to the organization’s strategy or expected benefits. The project manager should consider the business case, organizational objectives, expected outcomes, and changing strategic priorities when making important decisions. Personal preferences and unrelated factors should not drive project direction. Maintaining strategic alignment helps ensure that project resources are invested in work that provides meaningful organizational value.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 233<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          A project manager identifies an opportunity that could increase product benefits. Which response seeks to ensure the opportunity occurs?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. Accept<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Transfer<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Exploit<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Avoid<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Exploitation is an opportunity response strategy intended to ensure that a positive risk or opportunity is realized. The project team may allocate additional resources, modify the approach, or take other actions that increase the likelihood that the opportunity will occur. Acceptance means taking advantage of the opportunity if it occurs without actively pursuing it. Transfer is generally associated with shifting responsibility to another party, while avoidance is typically a response to threats. Selecting the response depends on the opportunity’s potential value, feasibility, and project context.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 234<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            What is the purpose of a lessons learned session during a project?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Identify useful experiences and improvements<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Approve new funding<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Assign salaries<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Replace the project schedule<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Lessons learned sessions help the team capture experiences, successes, failures, challenges, and improvement opportunities. Conducting them during the project allows useful knowledge to be applied to upcoming work rather than waiting until closure. The team can identify practices that should continue and problems that should be avoided or addressed. Lessons learned also contribute to organizational knowledge when properly documented and shared. These sessions are not primarily financial or administrative activities. Continuous learning helps teams improve performance while the project is still underway.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 235<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              A project manager must select between two vendors. What should be evaluated?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. Relevant selection criteria and procurement requirements<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Personal relationships only<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. Vendor popularity<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Office distance only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Vendor selection should be based on established procurement requirements and relevant evaluation criteria. Depending on the procurement, these may include technical capability, cost, quality, delivery capability, experience, financial stability, risk, compliance, and contractual terms. Using objective criteria improves fairness and supports the selection of a supplier that can meet project needs. Personal relationships or popularity should not determine the decision unless they are formally relevant. The project manager should also follow organizational procurement policies and ensure that the evaluation process is documented appropriately.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 236<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                A project manager sees that a risk’s probability has increased. What should be done?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. Reassess the risk and response<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Delete the risk<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Ignore the change<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Close the risk register<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  An increase in risk probability can change the overall exposure and may require the project manager to reassess the planned response. The manager should review the risk’s probability, impact, urgency, triggers, owner, and response strategy. If the exposure has increased beyond the project’s risk threshold, additional action may be required. Risk information should be updated to reflect the current situation. Ignoring a significant change can leave the project exposed to greater uncertainty and may prevent the team from responding effectively.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 237<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  What is the main purpose of a product roadmap?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Show the expected direction and evolution of the product<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Track employee attendance<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Replace all project contracts<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Record only completed defects<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    A product roadmap provides a high-level view of the product’s expected direction, major outcomes, features, releases, or priorities over time. It helps stakeholders understand how the product may evolve and how planned work supports broader product goals. A roadmap is not necessarily a detailed schedule and can change as customer needs, market conditions, and feedback evolve. It also does not replace contracts or function as an employee attendance record. A useful roadmap supports communication, prioritization, and alignment around product direction.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 238<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    A project manager needs to resolve a disagreement quickly because the issue is blocking critical work. Which factor should influence the conflict approach?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Urgency and importance of resolution<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Personal preference only<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Team size only<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Project logo<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      The urgency and importance of resolving a conflict should influence the approach selected. When a disagreement is blocking critical work, the project manager may need to use a more direct approach than would be appropriate for a low-impact disagreement. The manager should still understand the issue, maintain professionalism, and seek a solution that protects project objectives. Conflict approaches should consider factors such as urgency, importance, relationship, and available time. Selecting an approach based only on personal preference may not address the project’s actual needs.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 239<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      A project manager calculates PV = $50,000 and EV = $60,000. What is the SV?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. -$10,000<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. $110,000<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. $10,000<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. $0<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Schedule Variance is calculated as SV = EV \u2212 PV. With earned value of $60,000 and planned value of $50,000, the calculation is $60,000 \u2212 $50,000 = $10,000. A positive schedule variance indicates that the project has earned more value than was planned at that point in time. Although SV provides useful schedule performance information, the project manager should also review SPI and the actual schedule to understand the broader situation. Earned value results should be interpreted within the project’s specific context.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 240<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        A project is nearing completion. Which activity is important before final closure?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Add new requirements<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Confirm deliverable acceptance and complete closure activities<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Start unrelated work<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Ignore remaining documentation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Before final project closure, the project manager should confirm that the required deliverables have been accepted and that closure activities are complete. These may include obtaining formal acceptance, closing contracts, releasing resources, documenting lessons learned, archiving project records, and confirming that outstanding administrative matters are resolved. Adding new requirements near closure can create unnecessary scope and delay completion. Ignoring documentation can also result in lost organizational knowledge. Proper closure ensures that the project is formally completed and that useful information is retained for future work.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full PMI PMP Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 221 What is the primary purpose of a project business case? To document employee responsibilities To justify why the project should be undertaken To record daily project activities To track team attendance Correct Answer: 2 Explanation The business case provides justification for undertaking […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12789"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=12789"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12789\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":12809,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12789\/revisions\/12809"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=12789"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=12789"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=12789"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}