{"id":12791,"date":"2026-09-15T12:17:25","date_gmt":"2026-09-15T12:17:25","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=12791"},"modified":"2026-09-15T12:17:25","modified_gmt":"2026-09-15T12:17:25","slug":"pmi-pmp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part14-q261-280","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/pmi-pmp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part14-q261-280\/","title":{"rendered":"PMI PMP Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part14 Q261-280"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full PMI PMP Exam Dumps<\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 261<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which activity is normally performed during project initiation?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. Creating the detailed project schedule<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Developing the final cost baseline<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. Identifying the project manager and key stakeholders<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Completing all procurement activities<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    During project initiation, the organization establishes the foundation for the project. Key activities include developing the project charter, identifying important stakeholders, understanding high-level objectives, and determining initial assumptions and constraints. Detailed planning occurs after initiation and includes developing the schedule, cost baseline, risk responses, and other management plans. Identifying the project manager and key stakeholders early helps establish authority, communication channels, and expectations. Therefore, identifying the project manager and key stakeholders is the activity most closely associated with the initiation stage.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 262<\/b><\/h3>\n

    A project manager needs to determine whether a requirement has been formally accepted. Which document should be reviewed?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. Requirements documentation<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. Accepted deliverables<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Project calendar<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      Accepted deliverables provide evidence that completed deliverables have been formally reviewed and accepted by the appropriate customer or sponsor. Formal acceptance is important because it confirms that the deliverable meets agreed requirements and can support project closure or transition activities. Requirements documentation describes what the project should produce but does not necessarily prove that the customer has accepted the completed work. The risk register and project calendar serve different purposes. Therefore, when confirming formal acceptance, the project manager should review the records of accepted deliverables.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 263<\/b><\/h3>\n

      A project manager wants to compare actual project performance against the approved cost baseline. Which process is most relevant?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Control Costs<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Plan Cost Management<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Estimate Costs<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Determine Budget<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        Control Costs involves monitoring project status to update project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline. The project manager compares actual expenditures and earned value information against the approved baseline to determine whether the project is performing as expected. Plan Cost Management establishes how costs will be planned and controlled, Estimate Costs develops cost estimates for activities or work packages, and Determine Budget aggregates estimates into an authorized baseline. Therefore, comparing actual cost performance against the approved cost baseline is primarily part of Control Costs.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 264<\/b><\/h3>\n

        A stakeholder provides a new requirement after the scope baseline has been approved. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. Add the requirement immediately<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Reject the requirement automatically<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Ask the team to implement it informally<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. Evaluate the request through the change control process<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          A new requirement introduced after the scope baseline has been approved represents a potential change to the project. The project manager should not automatically accept or reject it. Instead, the request should be documented and evaluated according to the established change control process. The analysis should consider impacts on scope, schedule, cost, quality, resources, risks, and benefits. The appropriate authority can then decide whether the change should be approved. Following this process prevents uncontrolled scope changes and helps maintain alignment with project objectives.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 265<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which estimating technique uses historical information from a similar project to estimate the current project?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Bottom-up estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. Analogous estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Three-point estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Parametric estimating<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            Analogous estimating uses historical information and expert judgment from a previous, similar project to develop an estimate for the current project. It is generally faster and less expensive than detailed estimating but may be less accurate when the projects differ significantly. Bottom-up estimating calculates estimates by aggregating detailed estimates from lower-level components. Parametric estimating uses a statistical relationship between historical data and measurable parameters. Three-point estimating considers optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely values. Therefore, using information from a similar previous project describes analogous estimating.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 266<\/b><\/h3>\n

            A project has limited resources, and activities are adjusted so that resource demand does not exceed availability. Which technique is being applied?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Resource leveling<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Fast tracking<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Crashing<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Scope validation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              Resource leveling is a schedule technique used when resource availability is limited or when resource demand exceeds available capacity. Activities may be delayed or rescheduled to resolve resource conflicts, which can sometimes extend the project completion date. Crashing adds resources to shorten schedule activities, while fast tracking overlaps activities that were originally planned sequentially. Scope validation focuses on obtaining formal acceptance of completed deliverables. Therefore, adjusting activities to ensure resource demand remains within available capacity is an example of resource leveling.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 267<\/b><\/h3>\n

              What is the main purpose of a stakeholder engagement assessment?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. To calculate stakeholder costs<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. To identify project defects<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. To compare current and desired stakeholder engagement<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. To establish the cost baseline<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                A stakeholder engagement assessment compares stakeholders\u2019 current levels of engagement with the levels needed for project success. This helps the project manager determine where additional communication, involvement, support, or relationship management may be necessary. Stakeholder engagement can change throughout a project because stakeholder interests, influence, and expectations may evolve. The assessment is not intended to calculate costs, identify defects, or establish the cost baseline. By identifying gaps between current and desired engagement, the project manager can develop targeted actions to improve stakeholder support and participation.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 268<\/b><\/h3>\n

                A team identifies an event that may cause a significant delay if it occurs. What should be documented to help recognize when the risk is becoming imminent?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Risk trigger<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Cost baseline<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. Scope statement<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Product roadmap<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  A risk trigger is a condition or event that indicates a risk is about to occur or has occurred. Identifying triggers allows the project team to monitor warning signs and implement planned responses at the appropriate time. For example, a supplier missing an agreed milestone could trigger a response to a procurement-related risk. A cost baseline establishes approved cost expectations, while a scope statement defines project and product boundaries. A product roadmap communicates planned product direction. Therefore, documenting a risk trigger helps the team recognize when a risk response may need to be activated.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 269<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  Which leadership approach focuses on helping team members remove obstacles and succeed rather than directing every task?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Transactional leadership<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. Servant leadership<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Autocratic leadership<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. Directive leadership<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Servant leadership focuses on supporting team members, removing obstacles, encouraging collaboration, and helping individuals develop their capabilities. In agile environments, servant leadership is particularly valuable because teams are often empowered to organize their work and make decisions. Instead of controlling every activity, the leader creates conditions that enable the team to perform effectively. Directive leadership relies more heavily on giving instructions, while autocratic leadership concentrates decision-making with the leader. Therefore, helping team members succeed by removing impediments is a key characteristic of servant leadership.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 270<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    A project manager notices that several stakeholders have conflicting expectations. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Ignore the differences until project completion<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Select the expectations of the most senior stakeholder<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Remove the conflicting stakeholders<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Facilitate discussions to reach alignment<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Conflicting stakeholder expectations should be addressed through communication and collaboration rather than ignored or automatically resolved according to organizational rank. The project manager should understand the different expectations, identify their underlying interests, explain project constraints, and facilitate discussions to establish realistic alignment. This approach can reduce misunderstandings and improve stakeholder support. Ignoring conflicts may cause them to become larger later, while simply choosing the most senior stakeholder\u2019s expectations may create unnecessary resistance from others. Therefore, facilitating discussions and working toward alignment is the most appropriate approach.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 271<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      Which measurement indicates that a project is receiving less value than planned for the money spent?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. CPI less than 1.0<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. SPI greater than 1.0<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. CPI greater than 1.0<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. SPI equal to 1.0<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        The Cost Performance Index (CPI) measures cost efficiency and is calculated as Earned Value divided by Actual Cost. A CPI below 1.0 means the project is receiving less earned value for each unit of money spent than planned, indicating unfavorable cost performance. A CPI above 1.0 indicates favorable cost efficiency. SPI measures schedule performance rather than cost performance. Therefore, when the question asks about receiving less value than planned for money spent, a CPI below 1.0 is the appropriate indicator.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 272<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        A Product Owner wants the team to work on the highest-value items first. What should primarily guide the ordering of the product backlog?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Developer preference<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Product value and priorities<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Random selection<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Team member seniority<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          The product backlog should be ordered according to factors that maximize product value and support the product strategy. The Product Owner considers customer needs, business value, dependencies, risks, market conditions, and other relevant factors when determining priorities. Developer preferences and team seniority should not independently determine backlog order. Random selection would also fail to ensure that the most valuable work is delivered first. Proper backlog ordering helps an agile team focus on the work that provides the greatest benefit and supports incremental value delivery.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 273<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          A project manager discovers that an activity has no schedule flexibility and any delay will affect the project completion date. What does this indicate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. The activity has high free float<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. The activity is outside the network diagram<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. The activity is likely on the critical path<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. The activity should be removed<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            An activity with no schedule flexibility and a delay that directly affects the planned project completion date is typically associated with the critical path. The critical path represents the longest sequence of dependent activities that determines the shortest possible project duration. Activities on the critical path generally have zero or very limited total float. The project manager should monitor these activities closely because delays may directly affect the completion date. Therefore, an activity with no flexibility that can delay project completion is likely part of the critical path.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 274<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which quality technique helps identify the few causes responsible for the largest number of problems?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Control chart<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Pareto chart<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Scatter diagram<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Flowchart<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              A Pareto chart helps identify and prioritize the most significant causes contributing to problems. It is based on the principle that a relatively small number of causes can account for a large proportion of effects. Project teams can use this technique to focus improvement efforts on the causes that are likely to provide the greatest benefit. Control charts monitor process stability, scatter diagrams examine relationships between variables, and flowcharts illustrate process steps. Therefore, when the goal is to identify the causes responsible for the largest share of problems, a Pareto chart is appropriate.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 275<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              An agile team wants to determine whether a backlog item is ready to be selected for a sprint. What should they review?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. Definition of Ready or agreed readiness criteria<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Project charter<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. Cost performance index<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Procurement statement<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                A Definition of Ready or similar agreed readiness criteria can help an agile team determine whether a backlog item is sufficiently prepared for consideration in a sprint. Such criteria may include a clear description, acceptance criteria, dependencies identified, and enough information for the team to understand the work. The exact use of a Definition of Ready can vary by organization because it is not a mandatory Scrum artifact. A project charter, CPI, and procurement statement serve different purposes. Therefore, agreed readiness criteria are the most relevant consideration.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 276<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                What is the primary purpose of a project management plan?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. To replace the project charter<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. To authorize organizational funding<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. To define how the project will be executed, monitored, and controlled<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. To list only project risks<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  The project management plan describes how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed. It integrates subsidiary management plans and baselines, along with other information needed to guide project work. The project charter authorizes the project, while the project management plan provides detailed direction for managing it. The plan contains much more than risks, including approaches for scope, schedule, cost, quality, resources, communications, risk, procurement, and stakeholder engagement as applicable. Therefore, defining how the project will be managed throughout its life cycle is its primary purpose.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 277<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  A team member reports a problem that has already occurred and is currently affecting project work. Where should it normally be recorded?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Issue log<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Lessons learned register<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    An issue is a problem or situation that has already occurred and requires attention. Current issues should normally be recorded in the issue log so they can be assigned, monitored, analyzed, and resolved. A risk register is used for uncertain events that may occur in the future, although risks can later become issues if they occur. The stakeholder register contains stakeholder information, while lessons learned capture knowledge that can improve current or future work. Therefore, a problem that is already affecting project activities should generally be documented in the issue log.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 278<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    A project team completes a major deliverable and wants formal customer confirmation that it meets the agreed requirements. Which process is most relevant?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Validate Scope<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Control Scope<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Plan Scope Management<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Collect Requirements<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Validate Scope is the process of formalizing acceptance of completed project deliverables. During this process, the customer or sponsor reviews the deliverables and confirms whether they meet the agreed acceptance criteria. Formal acceptance provides important evidence that the work has satisfied the required expectations. Control Scope focuses on monitoring the status of project scope and managing changes, while Plan Scope Management establishes how scope will be managed. Collect Requirements focuses on determining stakeholder needs and expectations. Therefore, formal customer confirmation of completed deliverables belongs to Validate Scope.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 279<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      A project manager wants to determine whether the estimated final project cost is likely to exceed the approved budget. Which measure can help?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Schedule Variance<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Estimate at Completion<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Schedule Performance Index<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Free Float<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Estimate at Completion (EAC) is a forecast of the expected total cost of completing the project. Comparing EAC with the approved budget can help the project manager determine whether the project is likely to finish over or under the authorized amount. EAC can be calculated using different formulas depending on the project\u2019s performance assumptions. Schedule Variance and SPI focus on schedule performance, while free float concerns schedule flexibility. Therefore, when forecasting the expected final project cost, Estimate at Completion is the most relevant measure.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 280<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        During a hybrid project, the predictive portion requires formal approvals while the agile team needs flexibility in daily execution. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Apply only predictive practices<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Apply only agile practices<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Ignore organizational governance<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Tailor the approach to satisfy both needs<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          A hybrid project combines practices from predictive and adaptive approaches based on the project\u2019s needs. The project manager should tailor the management approach so that mandatory governance, approvals, and controls are maintained while the agile team retains appropriate flexibility in executing iterative work. Using only predictive or only agile practices may fail to address important project requirements. Governance should not be ignored simply because part of the project is adaptive. Effective tailoring allows the project to meet organizational requirements while still benefiting from iterative delivery and team flexibility.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full PMI PMP Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 261 Which activity is normally performed during project initiation? Creating the detailed project schedule Developing the final cost baseline Identifying the project manager and key stakeholders Completing all procurement activities Correct Answer: 3 Explanation During project initiation, the organization establishes the foundation for […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12791"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=12791"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12791\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":12807,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12791\/revisions\/12807"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=12791"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=12791"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=12791"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}