{"id":12796,"date":"2026-09-15T12:16:14","date_gmt":"2026-09-15T12:16:14","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=12796"},"modified":"2026-09-15T12:16:14","modified_gmt":"2026-09-15T12:16:14","slug":"pmi-pmp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part19-q361-380","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/pmi-pmp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part19-q361-380\/","title":{"rendered":"PMI PMP Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part19 Q361-380"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full PMI PMP Exam Dumps<\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 361<\/b><\/h3>\n

A project manager notices that several stakeholders have different expectations about the project’s final outcome. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. Escalate the disagreement to the sponsor.<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Update the project schedule.<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. Facilitate a discussion to align expectations.<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Submit a change request.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    When stakeholders have conflicting expectations, the project manager should first facilitate communication and work toward a shared understanding. This helps identify the source of the disagreement and clarify what the project is expected to deliver. Escalating immediately may be unnecessary if the issue can be resolved collaboratively. Updating the schedule or submitting a change request should occur only after the expectations and requirements have been properly clarified. Effective stakeholder engagement reduces misunderstandings and helps keep the project aligned with its intended objectives.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 362<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which activity is typically performed during project closing?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. Finalizing lessons learned and archiving project records<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. Creating the initial project charter<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Developing the stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Defining the project scope<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      Project closing includes completing administrative activities and formally transitioning or closing the project. The project manager should document lessons learned, archive relevant records, obtain final acceptance where applicable, release resources, and confirm that contractual and administrative obligations are complete. Creating the charter, stakeholder register, and initial scope definition normally occurs earlier in the project. Proper closure ensures that organizational knowledge is preserved and the project is formally completed rather than simply abandoned when deliverables appear finished.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 363<\/b><\/h3>\n

      A Scrum team consistently carries unfinished work from one sprint into the next. What should the project manager or Scrum Master do?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Increase the sprint length immediately.<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Assign additional work to team members.<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Inspect the causes during the retrospective and improve planning.<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Remove the Product Owner from sprint planning.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        Repeatedly carrying unfinished work indicates that the team should inspect its planning, capacity, dependencies, estimation, or impediments. The Sprint Retrospective provides an appropriate opportunity to identify the underlying causes and agree on improvements. Simply increasing sprint length or assigning additional work may hide the problem rather than solve it. Removing the Product Owner would also be inappropriate because the Product Owner plays an important role in product value and backlog management. Agile teams should continuously inspect and adapt their way of working.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 364<\/b><\/h3>\n

        A project manager is informed that a regulatory requirement has changed. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. Ignore the change until the next phase.<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Assess the impact on the project and required deliverables.<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Immediately cancel the project.<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. Ask the team to implement the change without review.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          A regulatory change can affect scope, schedule, cost, quality, risks, and compliance obligations. The project manager should first assess the impact and determine what changes may be necessary. After understanding the implications, the appropriate change control or governance process can be followed. Ignoring the requirement creates compliance risk, while immediately canceling the project is premature. Implementing changes without assessment can introduce additional problems. Impact analysis provides the information needed for informed decision-making and proper project governance.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 365<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which contract type places the greatest cost risk on the seller when requirements are well defined?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Time and materials<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. Cost plus incentive fee<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Cost plus fixed fee<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Firm-fixed-price<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            A firm-fixed-price contract establishes a fixed price for the agreed scope of work. When requirements are well defined, the seller assumes significant cost risk because the seller generally must complete the contracted work for the agreed price even if its actual costs increase. Cost-reimbursable contracts place more financial risk on the buyer because allowable costs are reimbursed according to the contract. Time-and-materials contracts share characteristics of both approaches but generally provide less fixed-price certainty than a firm-fixed-price arrangement.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 366<\/b><\/h3>\n

            A project team member and functional manager disagree about resource priorities. What is the best initial action for the project manager?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Replace the team member.<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Facilitate a discussion to understand both perspectives.<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Escalate immediately to the sponsor.<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Ignore the conflict.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              The project manager should first attempt to understand the concerns and facilitate a constructive discussion between the parties. Conflict can often be resolved through collaboration when the underlying interests, responsibilities, and priorities are clarified. Immediate escalation should generally be reserved for situations that cannot be resolved at the appropriate level or that require higher authority. Replacing the team member is not an appropriate first response, and ignoring the conflict may allow it to negatively affect performance. Collaborative conflict resolution supports a healthier and more productive project environment.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 367<\/b><\/h3>\n

              A project’s actual cost is significantly higher than its earned value. What does this indicate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. The project is over budget.<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. The project is ahead of schedule.<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. The project has no cost variance.<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. The project is under budget.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                When Actual Cost (AC) is greater than Earned Value (EV), the project has spent more money than the value of the work accomplished. This produces a negative Cost Variance, calculated as CV = EV \u2212 AC. A negative cost variance indicates that the project is over budget relative to the work completed. Schedule performance cannot be determined from EV and AC alone; Planned Value is also required to assess schedule variance or the Schedule Performance Index. Therefore, the information specifically indicates unfavorable cost performance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 368<\/b><\/h3>\n

                During a Sprint Review, stakeholders request a new feature that could provide significant customer value. What should the Product Owner do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Add the feature directly to the current sprint.<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Ask the developers to implement it immediately.<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. Evaluate and prioritize the feature in the product backlog.<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Reject all new requests until the project ends.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  New feature requests identified during a Sprint Review should normally be evaluated and incorporated into the product backlog when appropriate. The Product Owner is responsible for maximizing product value and ordering the backlog based on value, risk, dependencies, and other relevant factors. Adding unplanned work directly into an active sprint can disrupt the Sprint Goal and reduce focus. The request should therefore be captured, assessed, and prioritized for future work. This approach preserves agility while maintaining transparency and product direction.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 369<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  Which document helps the project manager identify who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for project activities?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. RACI matrix<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Issue log<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. Communications management plan<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    A RACI matrix is a responsibility assignment tool that clarifies roles for specific activities or deliverables. RACI stands for Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. It helps prevent confusion about ownership and ensures that stakeholders and team members understand their expected involvement. A risk register tracks identified risks, while an issue log records current problems requiring attention. The communications management plan describes communication requirements and approaches. Using a RACI matrix can improve accountability and reduce delays caused by unclear responsibilities.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 370<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    A project manager wants to determine whether a process is stable and operating within expected limits. Which tool is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Histogram<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Pareto chart<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Scatter diagram<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Control chart<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      A control chart is used to determine whether a process is stable and operating within established control limits. It displays process measurements over time and helps identify unusual variation that may indicate special causes. A histogram shows the distribution of data, a Pareto chart helps prioritize causes based on frequency or impact, and a scatter diagram examines relationships between variables. Control charts are particularly useful in quality management because they allow the project team to distinguish normal process variation from conditions that may require investigation or corrective action.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 371<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      A stakeholder with high power and low interest requires what general engagement approach?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Keep satisfied.<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Manage closely.<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Monitor continuously through daily meetings.<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Keep informed with detailed technical reports.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Stakeholders with high power and low interest should generally be kept satisfied. They have enough influence to affect the project significantly but may not require intensive day-to-day involvement. The project manager should provide sufficient information to maintain confidence and prevent unexpected concerns while avoiding unnecessary communication overload. Stakeholders with high power and high interest generally require closer management. Stakeholder engagement should remain flexible because a stakeholder’s level of interest or influence can change during the project.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 372<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        A project has an opportunity to reduce costs by using a proven new supplier. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Reject the opportunity because changing suppliers is risky.<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Analyze the opportunity, including benefits and risks.<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Immediately replace the existing supplier.<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Remove the procurement budget.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          An opportunity is a positive uncertainty that may provide benefits to the project. Before acting, the project manager should evaluate its potential benefits, feasibility, risks, dependencies, and impact on objectives. This analysis helps determine whether the opportunity should be exploited, enhanced, shared, or accepted. Immediately replacing a supplier without assessment could create operational or contractual problems. Similarly, rejecting the opportunity without analysis may cause the project to lose potential savings. A structured evaluation supports informed risk-response and procurement decisions.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 373<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          A customer formally accepts a completed deliverable. What should the project manager do with this information?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. Return the deliverable to the team for additional testing.<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Add unrelated requirements to the scope.<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Record the formal acceptance and proceed according to the project plan.<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Reopen the requirements baseline.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Formal acceptance confirms that the customer or authorized stakeholder has approved the completed deliverable. The project manager should document the acceptance and continue with the appropriate project activities, such as transition, subsequent work, or closure. Reopening the requirements baseline without a valid reason is unnecessary. Adding unrelated requirements would constitute uncontrolled scope expansion. Additional testing may be appropriate only if it is required by the agreed quality or acceptance criteria. Proper documentation of acceptance provides evidence that the deliverable has met the agreed expectations.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 374<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which approach is most appropriate when a team has a recurring technical problem with an unclear cause?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Perform root cause analysis.<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Replace the entire team.<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Increase the project budget immediately.<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Close the issue without investigation.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Root cause analysis is appropriate when a recurring problem has an unclear underlying cause. Instead of repeatedly treating symptoms, the team investigates why the problem occurs and identifies actions that can prevent recurrence. Techniques such as the five whys or cause-and-effect diagrams can support the investigation. Replacing the team or increasing the budget does not necessarily address the underlying issue. Closing the issue without investigation allows the problem to continue. Root cause analysis supports sustainable corrective and preventive actions.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 375<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              In an agile project, the team wants to visualize work and limit the amount of work in progress. Which tool is most suitable?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. Milestone chart<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. Kanban board<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Cost baseline<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                A Kanban board visually represents workflow and can include explicit work-in-progress limits. These limits help prevent the team from starting excessive amounts of work simultaneously and encourage completion before new work is pulled into the workflow. This can improve flow, expose bottlenecks, and reduce multitasking. A milestone chart focuses on significant schedule events, while a risk register tracks uncertainty and the cost baseline represents approved project costs. Kanban is particularly useful for teams seeking continuous flow and visibility into work status.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 376<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                A project manager discovers that two activities can overlap even though they were originally scheduled sequentially. What schedule technique could shorten the project duration?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. Resource leveling<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Fast tracking<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Bottom-up estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Analogous estimating<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Fast tracking involves performing activities in parallel that were originally planned sequentially, when it is feasible and acceptable to do so. It can shorten the overall schedule without necessarily adding resources, but it increases the risk of rework because overlapping activities may create dependencies or require changes. Resource leveling adjusts schedules based on resource constraints, while analogous and bottom-up estimating are estimating techniques rather than schedule compression methods. The project manager should assess the risks and dependencies before deciding whether fast tracking is appropriate.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 377<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  A project manager learns that a key stakeholder is becoming resistant to a major project change. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Remove the stakeholder from communications.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Implement the change without informing the stakeholder.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Analyze the stakeholder’s concerns and engagement needs.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Immediately escalate the stakeholder to senior management.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Resistance often indicates concerns about impact, uncertainty, loss of influence, workload, or insufficient information. The project manager should first understand the stakeholder’s concerns and assess the appropriate engagement approach. This may involve one-on-one discussions, additional information, clarification of benefits, or involvement in decision-making. Removing the stakeholder or implementing the change without communication can increase resistance. Escalation may be necessary later if the issue cannot be resolved at the appropriate level, but understanding the cause of resistance should generally come first.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 378<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    Which statement best describes the purpose of a project management plan?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. It replaces the project charter.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. It defines only the project budget.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. It documents only stakeholder expectations.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. It integrates subsidiary plans and project management baselines.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      The project management plan integrates the various subsidiary management plans and baselines that guide project execution, monitoring, and control. Depending on the project, it may include components related to scope, schedule, cost, quality, resources, communications, risk, procurement, stakeholders, and other areas. The plan does not replace the project charter, which formally authorizes the project and provides high-level direction. It also goes beyond budgeting or stakeholder expectations. An integrated project management plan provides a coordinated framework for managing the project throughout its lifecycle.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 379<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      A team member identifies a previously unknown threat that could delay a critical deliverable. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Record and analyze the risk.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Ignore it because it has not occurred.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Immediately increase the project budget.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Close the risk register.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        A newly identified threat should be documented and analyzed to determine its probability, potential impact, urgency, and appropriate response. The project manager should update the risk register and involve relevant stakeholders or team members as needed. Depending on the analysis, an appropriate response such as mitigation, avoidance, transfer, or acceptance may be selected. Ignoring a risk because it has not yet occurred defeats proactive risk management. Increasing the budget without understanding the threat is premature and may not address the actual exposure.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 380<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        At the end of a project, the project manager confirms that all deliverables have been accepted and contractual obligations are complete. What should happen next?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Start a new project immediately.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Reopen completed requirements.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Conduct formal project closure and archive relevant information.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Add new deliverables to increase project value.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Once deliverables are accepted and contractual obligations are complete, the project manager should proceed with formal closure. Closure includes confirming completion, documenting lessons learned, finalizing records, releasing resources, archiving project information, and communicating the project’s completion to appropriate stakeholders. Starting additional work or adding deliverables after acceptance could create unauthorized scope. Reopening completed requirements is unnecessary unless a legitimate change or follow-up effort has been formally initiated. Proper closure ensures organizational knowledge is preserved and the project is formally completed.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full PMI PMP Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 361 A project manager notices that several stakeholders have different expectations about the project’s final outcome. What should the project manager do first? Escalate the disagreement to the sponsor. Update the project schedule. Facilitate a discussion to align expectations. Submit a change request. […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12796"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=12796"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12796\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":12802,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12796\/revisions\/12802"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=12796"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=12796"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=12796"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}