{"id":12797,"date":"2026-09-15T12:16:06","date_gmt":"2026-09-15T12:16:06","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=12797"},"modified":"2026-09-15T12:16:06","modified_gmt":"2026-09-15T12:16:06","slug":"pmi-pmp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part20-q381-400","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/pmi-pmp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part20-q381-400\/","title":{"rendered":"PMI PMP Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part20 Q381-400"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full PMI PMP Exam Dumps<\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 381<\/b><\/h3>\n

A project manager discovers that a project activity is delayed because a required decision has not been made. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. Remove the activity from the schedule.<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Identify the decision owner and facilitate timely resolution.<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. Add more resources to the activity.<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Extend the project deadline.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    When an activity is blocked by a pending decision, the project manager should first determine who has the authority to make the decision and facilitate its resolution. The project manager should provide the necessary information, clarify the impact of delay, and ensure the decision is made promptly. Adding resources or extending the deadline does not address the underlying issue. Removing the activity is also inappropriate because it may be essential to the project. Resolving decision bottlenecks helps maintain progress while preserving accountability and governance.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 382<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which estimating technique uses estimates from similar completed projects?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. Parametric estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. Bottom-up estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Three-point estimating<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Analogous estimating<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      Analogous estimating uses historical information and expert judgment from similar previous projects or activities to develop an estimate. It is generally faster and less expensive than detailed estimating but may be less accurate when the current project differs significantly from previous work. Bottom-up estimating calculates estimates from detailed work components, while parametric estimating uses statistical relationships between historical data and measurable variables. Three-point estimating considers optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely values. The selected technique should reflect the project’s available information and required level of accuracy.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 383<\/b><\/h3>\n

      A sponsor asks the project manager to add a feature that is outside the approved scope. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Assess the impact and follow the change control process.<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Add the feature immediately.<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Ask the team to work overtime.<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Reject the request without evaluation.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        A feature outside the approved scope represents a potential scope change. The project manager should first understand the request and assess its impact on scope, schedule, cost, resources, risks, quality, and benefits. If the change is appropriate, it should be processed according to the established change control procedure and approved by the authorized decision-makers. Implementing it immediately could create uncontrolled scope. Rejecting it without evaluation is also inappropriate because the requested feature may provide significant business value or address an important need.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 384<\/b><\/h3>\n

        What is the primary purpose of a stakeholder register?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. To calculate project costs<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. To establish the project schedule<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. To identify stakeholders and relevant information about them<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. To document quality defects<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          The stakeholder register identifies individuals, groups, and organizations that can affect or be affected by the project. It may include information such as stakeholder interests, influence, expectations, engagement needs, and relationships to the project. This information helps the project manager develop suitable engagement and communication strategies. The stakeholder register is not intended to calculate costs, establish the schedule, or document quality defects. Because stakeholder relationships can change during the project, the register should be reviewed and updated as new information becomes available.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 385<\/b><\/h3>\n

          A project manager wants to identify the sequence of activities that determines the shortest possible project duration. Which method should be used?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Critical path method<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. Monte Carlo analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Resource smoothing<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Rolling wave planning<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            The Critical Path Method (CPM) identifies the sequence of activities that determines the shortest possible project duration based on the schedule network. Activities on the critical path generally have the least scheduling flexibility, and delays to critical activities can delay the project unless corrective action is taken. Monte Carlo analysis evaluates possible schedule or cost outcomes using simulations. Resource smoothing adjusts activities within available float, while rolling wave planning develops near-term work in greater detail than future work. CPM is therefore the appropriate method for identifying the critical path.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 386<\/b><\/h3>\n

            A team member has strong technical skills but frequently causes conflict with others. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Remove the team member immediately.<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Avoid discussing the behavior.<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Provide feedback and coach the team member on collaboration.<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Reduce the team member’s responsibilities without discussion.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              Strong technical skills do not eliminate the need for effective teamwork. When interpersonal behavior creates recurring conflict, the project manager should address the issue constructively through feedback, coaching, and discussion of expected behaviors. The goal is to help the team member understand the impact of the behavior and develop better collaboration skills. Immediate removal may be unnecessary and could negatively affect project performance. Avoiding the problem allows conflict to continue, while reducing responsibilities without discussion does not address the underlying behavioral issue.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 387<\/b><\/h3>\n

              A project’s CPI is 1.15. What does this indicate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. The project is behind schedule.<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. The project is over budget.<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. The project is exactly on budget.<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. The project is receiving more value than the cost incurred.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                The Cost Performance Index is calculated as CPI = EV \u00f7 AC. A CPI greater than 1.00 indicates that the project is receiving more earned value for the money spent than planned. Therefore, a CPI of 1.15 indicates favorable cost efficiency. It does not directly indicate schedule performance because schedule efficiency is measured using SPI. The project manager should still review the overall cost and schedule trends rather than relying on one metric alone. CPI provides an important indicator of how efficiently project spending is producing earned value.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 388<\/b><\/h3>\n

                During an agile project, the team identifies an impediment that prevents progress. Who should help facilitate its removal?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. The customer alone<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. The Scrum Master or appropriate servant leader<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. The project accountant<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. The procurement department<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  In Scrum, the Scrum Master helps the team by facilitating removal of impediments that interfere with progress and by supporting an environment where the team can work effectively. The Scrum Master does not simply solve every problem personally but helps the team and organization address barriers. Depending on the situation, the Scrum Master may coordinate with managers, stakeholders, or other groups. The customer, accountant, and procurement department may become involved when their expertise is relevant, but impediment removal is a key servant-leadership responsibility.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 389<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  A project has a threat that cannot be completely eliminated but whose impact can be reduced. Which risk response is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Mitigate<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. Exploit<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Share<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. Enhance<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Mitigation is a risk response strategy used to reduce the probability of a threat occurring or reduce its potential impact to an acceptable level. For example, a team might conduct additional testing, use redundancy, or implement preventive controls to reduce the effect of a known threat. Exploit and enhance are responses to opportunities rather than threats. Sharing is generally associated with opportunities when another party can help realize the benefit. Selecting the correct response depends on the nature of the uncertainty and the project’s risk objectives.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 390<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    What is the main purpose of a lessons learned repository?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. To replace the project schedule<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. To approve project changes<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. To preserve knowledge that can benefit future projects<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. To assign daily team tasks<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      A lessons learned repository preserves knowledge gained from projects so that future teams can benefit from successful practices and avoid repeating mistakes. Lessons can include information about processes, risks, stakeholder engagement, technical approaches, communication, procurement, and other areas. The repository does not replace the project schedule, approve changes, or assign daily tasks. Capturing lessons throughout the project and during closure makes organizational learning more effective because important insights are documented while they are still fresh and relevant.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 391<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      A project manager receives a complaint from a stakeholder about poor communication. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Review the communication needs and discuss the stakeholder’s concerns.<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Send more emails to every stakeholder.<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Escalate the complaint immediately.<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Remove the stakeholder from the communication plan.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        The project manager should first understand why the stakeholder considers communication inadequate. Reviewing the stakeholder’s communication requirements and discussing the specific concerns can reveal whether the problem involves frequency, content, format, timing, or communication channels. Sending more messages without understanding the need could make communication worse. Immediate escalation is generally unnecessary unless the problem cannot be resolved appropriately. Removing the stakeholder is inappropriate because stakeholder engagement is essential. Communication should be tailored to stakeholder needs and adjusted when circumstances change.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 392<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which reserve is intended for known-unknown risks that have been identified and analyzed?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Management reserve<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Contingency reserve<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Profit reserve<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Schedule reserve<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Contingency reserve is allocated for identified risks that may occur during the project and for which a response may require additional cost or time. These are commonly referred to as known-unknowns. Management reserve, in contrast, is generally used for unforeseen work within the project’s scope that results from unknown-unknowns and is controlled at an appropriate management level. The project manager should use reserves according to organizational policies and the project’s governance framework. Proper reserve management helps maintain realistic cost and schedule expectations.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 393<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          A project manager notices that a stakeholder’s influence has increased significantly. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. Continue using the original engagement strategy without review.<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Remove the stakeholder from the register.<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Reassess the stakeholder and update the engagement approach.<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Ask the sponsor to take over all communication.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Stakeholder influence can change as project circumstances, organizational structures, or decisions evolve. When a stakeholder’s influence increases, the project manager should reassess the stakeholder’s power, interest, expectations, and engagement needs. The stakeholder register and engagement approach should be updated accordingly. Continuing with an outdated strategy may create communication gaps or resistance. Removing the stakeholder is inappropriate, and transferring all communication to the sponsor may create unnecessary dependency. Continuous stakeholder assessment helps the project manager maintain effective relationships throughout the project lifecycle.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 394<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            A quality inspection identifies several defects caused by the same process problem. What should the project manager encourage the team to do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Ignore the defects because they are minor.<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Perform root cause analysis and implement corrective action.<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Increase the number of project meetings.<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Replace the quality team.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              When multiple defects originate from the same process problem, the team should investigate the underlying cause rather than simply correcting individual defects. Root cause analysis can identify why the problem is occurring and help determine appropriate corrective or preventive actions. Ignoring defects can allow the problem to grow, while increasing meetings does not necessarily improve the process. Replacing the quality team is also an excessive response without evidence that personnel are responsible. Addressing the root cause supports sustainable quality improvement and reduces recurring defects.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 395<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              A project uses a hybrid approach. Which statement best describes hybrid project management?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. It combines predictive and adaptive practices where appropriate.<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. It requires every activity to follow Scrum.<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. It eliminates formal planning.<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. It can only be used for software projects.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                A hybrid approach combines elements of predictive and adaptive methods to suit the project’s needs. For example, a project may use predictive planning for regulatory, contractual, or infrastructure components while using iterative development for product features that require frequent feedback. Hybrid approaches are tailored rather than applied through a single fixed formula. They do not eliminate planning or require every activity to use Scrum. Hybrid project management can be applied across many industries when different parts of a project benefit from different delivery approaches.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 396<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                A project manager calculates EV = $80,000 and PV = $100,000. What is the schedule variance?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. $20,000<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. $180,000<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. -$20,000<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. -$180,000<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Schedule Variance is calculated as SV = EV \u2212 PV. With an Earned Value of $80,000 and Planned Value of $100,000, the calculation is $80,000 \u2212 $100,000 = -$20,000. A negative Schedule Variance indicates that the project has accomplished less work than planned at the measurement point. SV is expressed in monetary terms even though it represents schedule performance. The project manager should investigate the reason for the unfavorable variance and determine whether corrective or preventive action is necessary.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 397<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  A product owner wants to maximize value from the next iteration. Which factor should primarily guide backlog prioritization?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Team preference only<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Value, risk, dependencies, and stakeholder needs<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. The order in which requirements were received<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. The easiest tasks first<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Backlog prioritization should focus on maximizing product and business value while considering factors such as risk, dependencies, stakeholder needs, urgency, and technical considerations. Selecting work solely because it is easy or because it was requested first may not produce the highest value. The Product Owner is responsible for ordering the backlog, while the team provides valuable input about feasibility and technical considerations. Effective prioritization helps ensure that the most valuable and appropriate work is delivered earlier and that the product evolves according to changing needs.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 398<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    A project manager wants to determine whether communication activities are achieving their intended results. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Measure stakeholder feedback and communication effectiveness.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Increase the number of status reports automatically.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Send identical information to every stakeholder.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Stop collecting stakeholder feedback.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Communication effectiveness should be evaluated based on whether stakeholders receive, understand, and can use the information they need. The project manager can review feedback, response rates, communication outcomes, stakeholder understanding, and other appropriate indicators. Simply increasing the number of reports does not guarantee better communication. Sending identical information to everyone may also fail to address different stakeholder needs. Feedback provides useful evidence about whether the communication approach is working and helps the project manager tailor future communication for greater clarity and effectiveness.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 399<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      A project manager discovers that a planned deliverable no longer supports the organization’s current strategy. What should the project manager do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Continue development without discussion.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Delete the deliverable immediately.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Assess the strategic impact and discuss the issue with appropriate stakeholders.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Transfer the deliverable to another project without analysis.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        If a deliverable no longer supports organizational strategy, the project manager should assess the situation and discuss the implications with the appropriate stakeholders and governance authority. The analysis should consider business value, benefits, contractual commitments, scope, cost, risks, and strategic alignment. Immediately deleting the deliverable could violate approved commitments, while continuing without discussion could waste resources. Transferring the work also requires proper evaluation and authorization. Projects should remain aligned with organizational objectives, and significant strategic changes should be handled through appropriate governance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 400<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        A project manager is preparing to transition the final product to operations. What should the project manager ensure before completing the transition?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. All future enhancements are included in the project scope.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. The operational team has the required training and documentation.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. The project team continues indefinitely.<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. The original project charter is rewritten.<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Before transitioning a completed product to operations, the project manager should ensure that the receiving organization has the necessary training, documentation, support information, and knowledge to operate and maintain the product effectively. Transition activities may also include confirming acceptance, support procedures, ownership, and operational readiness. Including future enhancements in the current project could create uncontrolled scope, while keeping the project team indefinitely prevents proper closure. Rewriting the original charter is unnecessary. A well-planned transition supports sustainable operations and successful realization of project benefits.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full PMI PMP Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 381 A project manager discovers that a project activity is delayed because a required decision has not been made. What should the project manager do first? Remove the activity from the schedule. Identify the decision owner and facilitate timely resolution. Add more resources […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12797"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=12797"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12797\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":12801,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/12797\/revisions\/12801"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=12797"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=12797"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=12797"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}