{"id":14408,"date":"2026-09-17T04:55:20","date_gmt":"2026-09-17T04:55:20","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=14408"},"modified":"2026-09-17T04:55:20","modified_gmt":"2026-09-17T04:55:20","slug":"comptia-project-pk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-12-q221-240","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-project-pk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-12-q221-240\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 12 Q221-240"},"content":{"rendered":"

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View Full <\/b>CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/p>\n

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Question 221. Which document identifies stakeholders and records information about their roles, interests, influence, and communication needs?<\/b><\/h3>\n
    \n
  1. <\/b> Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. <\/b> Stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. <\/b> Issue log<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. <\/b> Project schedule<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 2. Stakeholder register.<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    The stakeholder register records information about people, groups, or organizations that can affect the project or be affected by its results. Depending on the project, it may include stakeholder roles, organizational relationships, interests, influence, expectations, and communication requirements. This information helps the project manager develop appropriate engagement and communication strategies. A risk register focuses on uncertain events, while an issue log tracks current problems requiring attention. The project schedule organizes project activities and timing. Stakeholder information should be reviewed and updated as relationships, responsibilities, influence, or expectations change throughout the project.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 222. A stakeholder has high power but low interest in the project. How should the project manager generally manage this stakeholder?<\/b><\/h3>\n
      \n
    1. <\/b> Monitor continuously without communication<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. <\/b> Keep satisfied<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. <\/b> Manage closely with daily meetings<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. <\/b> Remove the stakeholder from the project<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 2. Keep satisfied.<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      A stakeholder with high power and low interest can significantly affect the project even though the stakeholder does not require detailed involvement in every activity. The project manager should generally keep this stakeholder satisfied by providing appropriate information, addressing important concerns, and ensuring that major decisions or changes do not create unexpected problems. Excessive communication may waste time, while insufficient engagement could allow an influential stakeholder to become dissatisfied. Stakeholder management should therefore be based on power, interest, influence, and project needs. The stakeholder’s position should also be reassessed if their level of interest or influence changes during the project.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 223. Which technique is useful for identifying possible causes of a recurring quality problem?<\/b><\/h3>\n
        \n
      1. <\/b> Fishbone diagram<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. <\/b> Gantt chart<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. <\/b> RACI matrix<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. <\/b> Resource calendar<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 1. Fishbone diagram.<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        A fishbone diagram, also called a cause-and-effect diagram, helps a project team organize and investigate possible causes of a problem. The team begins with the observed effect and systematically considers categories of potential causes, such as people, processes, equipment, materials, methods, or environment. This technique encourages structured root-cause analysis instead of immediately treating symptoms. A Gantt chart is used for schedule visualization, a RACI matrix clarifies responsibilities, and a resource calendar shows resource availability. When a quality problem repeatedly occurs, a fishbone diagram can help the team explore contributing factors and identify areas that require further investigation or corrective action.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 224. What is the primary purpose of a RACI matrix?<\/b><\/h3>\n
          \n
        1. <\/b> To calculate project costs<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. <\/b> To identify schedule dependencies<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. <\/b> To clarify roles and responsibilities for project activities<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. <\/b> To measure supplier performance<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 3. To clarify roles and responsibilities for project activities.<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          A RACI matrix clarifies who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for specific activities or deliverables. It helps prevent confusion about who performs work, who owns the final outcome, whose expertise should be requested, and who needs to receive information. This can be particularly useful when multiple departments or organizations participate in a project. A RACI matrix does not calculate costs or directly measure supplier performance, and it is not primarily a scheduling tool. Establishing clear responsibility assignments can reduce duplicated work, missed tasks, and disagreements about ownership while improving coordination among project participants.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 225. A project manager discovers that two team members disagree about how to perform an important task. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/h3>\n
            \n
          1. <\/b> Immediately remove one team member<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. <\/b> Ignore the disagreement<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. <\/b> Understand the underlying causes of the conflict<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. <\/b> Escalate the conflict to the customer<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 3. Understand the underlying causes of the conflict.<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            The first step in managing a team conflict is generally to understand what is causing the disagreement. The conflict may result from unclear responsibilities, competing priorities, resource limitations, communication problems, technical differences, or different interpretations of requirements. Understanding the underlying causes allows the project manager to select an appropriate resolution approach rather than reacting to the visible disagreement alone. Depending on the situation, collaboration, compromise, negotiation, or another conflict-management technique may then be appropriate. Immediate removal or escalation is not normally justified without understanding the circumstances. Effective conflict management focuses on resolving the project-related problem while maintaining productive team relationships.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 226. Which conflict-resolution approach seeks a solution that addresses the underlying concerns of all involved parties?<\/b><\/h3>\n
              \n
            1. <\/b> Avoidance<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. <\/b> Collaboration<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. <\/b> Withdrawal<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. <\/b> Competition<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 2. Collaboration.<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              Collaboration involves working with the people involved in a conflict to understand their concerns and develop a solution that addresses the underlying issues. It can require more time and communication than simply making a decision or avoiding the disagreement, but it can produce a durable resolution when the issue is important and the parties are willing to cooperate. Avoidance postpones or withdraws from the conflict, while competition emphasizes one party’s position over another. The appropriate conflict strategy depends on factors such as urgency, importance, relationship impact, and organizational circumstances. Collaboration is especially useful when long-term cooperation is important.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 227. Which communication method is generally most appropriate for discussing a complex issue with significant disagreement among stakeholders?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                \n
              1. <\/b> Mass email with no discussion<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. <\/b> Face-to-face or interactive meeting<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. <\/b> Automated status dashboard only<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. <\/b> Generic project announcement<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 2. Face-to-face or interactive meeting.<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                Complex issues involving significant disagreement often benefit from an interactive communication method because participants can ask questions, clarify misunderstandings, explain concerns, and respond to information immediately. A face-to-face meeting or suitable virtual meeting can provide richer communication than a one-way message. Email and dashboards remain useful for documentation and routine information, but they may not provide enough interaction when the issue is complicated or emotionally sensitive. The project manager should choose communication methods according to stakeholder needs, complexity, urgency, confidentiality, and organizational practices. After an important discussion, decisions and action items should also be documented appropriately.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 228. What is the main purpose of a project communication management approach?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                  \n
                1. <\/b> To ensure project information reaches the appropriate stakeholders at appropriate times<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. <\/b> To eliminate all stakeholder meetings<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. <\/b> To replace the project schedule<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. <\/b> To guarantee that no project risks occur<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 1. To ensure project information reaches the appropriate stakeholders at appropriate times.<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  A communication management approach establishes how project information will be created, distributed, stored, and managed for different stakeholders. It considers factors such as what information is needed, who needs it, when it should be delivered, which communication method should be used, and how sensitive information should be handled. Effective communication supports coordination and informed decision-making throughout the project. It does not eliminate meetings, replace scheduling activities, or guarantee that risks will not occur. The project manager should periodically evaluate whether communication remains effective because stakeholder needs, project conditions, reporting requirements, and organizational priorities may change during execution.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 229. Which activity is normally performed during project initiation?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Developing detailed daily task assignments<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. <\/b> Defining the high-level project purpose and objectives<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. <\/b> Archiving final project records<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. <\/b> Releasing all project resources<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 2. Defining the high-level project purpose and objectives.<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Project initiation establishes the project at a high level and provides the foundation for later planning. Activities can include defining the business need, high-level objectives, major stakeholders, initial assumptions and constraints, expected outcomes, and project authority. Detailed task assignments, final archival, and resource release are generally associated with later project phases. Initiation is important because it establishes a shared understanding of why the project exists and what it is expected to accomplish before extensive planning and execution begin. Strong initiation information can also help decision-makers confirm that the project aligns with organizational goals and has sufficient justification to proceed.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 230. Which artifact is used to formally authorize a project and give the project manager authority to use organizational resources?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                      \n
                    1. <\/b> Project charter<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. <\/b> Issue log<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. <\/b> Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. <\/b> Lessons learned register<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 1. Project charter.<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      The project charter formally authorizes the project and establishes the project manager’s authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. It generally includes high-level information such as the project’s purpose, objectives, major deliverables, stakeholders, assumptions, constraints, risks, and summary milestones or budget information. The charter is created during initiation and provides a foundation for detailed planning. An issue log tracks current problems, a risk register manages uncertain events, and a lessons learned register captures knowledge gained during project work. The charter therefore serves as a key authorization document rather than a detailed execution plan.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 231. A project manager is developing a detailed plan after the project has been authorized. Which document integrates scope, schedule, cost, risk, communications, and other management approaches?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                        \n
                      1. <\/b> Project management plan<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. <\/b> Business case<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. <\/b> Procurement statement<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. <\/b> Stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1. Project management plan.<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        The project management plan integrates the various components needed to manage and control the project. Depending on the project, it can incorporate subsidiary management plans and baselines covering areas such as scope, schedule, cost, quality, resources, communications, risk, and procurement. The business case provides the rationale for undertaking the project, while a stakeholder register records stakeholder information. Procurement documentation focuses on acquiring products or services. The project management plan provides a coordinated framework for executing, monitoring, controlling, and closing the project. It should be maintained through appropriate change control when approved changes affect planned project management approaches.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 232. Which item is an example of a project constraint?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                          \n
                        1. <\/b> The team believes the supplier will deliver on time<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. <\/b> The project must be completed within a fixed budget<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. <\/b> The customer may request additional features<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. <\/b> A developer expects the system to perform well<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 2. The project must be completed within a fixed budget.<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          A project constraint is a limitation that restricts how the project can be planned or executed. A fixed budget limits the amount of money available and can influence resource decisions, procurement, scope, schedule, and risk responses. The statement that a supplier will deliver on time is an assumption if it is something the team expects to be true for planning purposes. A possible customer request is not automatically a constraint, and an expectation about system performance does not necessarily represent a formal limitation. Project managers should identify constraints early because they influence trade-offs and may require stakeholder decisions when competing objectives cannot all be satisfied.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 233. Which statement best describes a project assumption?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                            \n
                          1. <\/b> A condition believed to be true for planning purposes<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. <\/b> A confirmed project defect<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. <\/b> A mandatory contractual penalty<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. <\/b> A completed project deliverable<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1. A condition believed to be true for planning purposes.<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            A project assumption is a condition or circumstance that the team considers to be true for planning purposes without necessarily having complete proof that it will remain true. For example, a project team may assume that a required subject-matter expert will be available during a particular phase. Assumptions influence estimates, schedules, resources, and risk identification. Because assumptions can prove incorrect, they should be documented and monitored. A confirmed defect is an issue or quality problem, a contractual penalty is a contractual condition, and a completed deliverable is an output. Reviewing assumptions periodically helps the team identify changes before they create significant project impacts.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 234. What should a project manager do when an important project assumption is discovered to be invalid?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Ignore the assumption until project closure<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. <\/b> Reassess the impact and update the appropriate project plans or risks<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. <\/b> Automatically cancel the project<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. <\/b> Delete the assumption without further analysis<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 2. Reassess the impact and update the appropriate project plans or risks.<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              When an important assumption becomes invalid, the project manager should evaluate how the change affects project scope, schedule, cost, resources, quality, risks, and other planning elements. The team may need to update the risk register, revise estimates, create an issue, modify plans, or submit a formal change request depending on the impact and governance process. Automatically canceling the project is not justified without analysis, while ignoring or simply deleting the assumption could hide a significant change in project conditions. Proactive reassessment helps stakeholders understand the consequences and determine what corrective or preventive actions are appropriate.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 235. Which document provides a visual representation of project activities against calendar dates?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                \n
                              1. <\/b> Gantt chart<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. <\/b> Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. <\/b> Stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. <\/b> Requirements traceability matrix<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1. Gantt chart.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                A Gantt chart visually represents project activities along a timeline, allowing the team to see planned start and finish dates, activity durations, sequencing, milestones, and sometimes progress information. It can make schedule relationships easier for stakeholders to understand and can support monitoring of planned versus actual progress. A risk register documents risks, a stakeholder register records stakeholder information, and a requirements traceability matrix connects requirements to related deliverables or verification activities. Gantt charts are particularly useful for communicating schedule information, but they should be supported by underlying schedule data and should be updated as approved changes affect project timing.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 236. Which schedule compression technique overlaps activities that were originally planned to occur sequentially?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> Crashing<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. <\/b> Fast tracking<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. <\/b> Resource leveling<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. <\/b> Decomposition<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 2. Fast tracking.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique in which activities that were originally planned in sequence are performed partially or completely in parallel when the project circumstances allow it. This can reduce the overall duration but may increase risk because overlapping work can create rework, coordination problems, or dependencies that were previously separated. Crashing generally involves adding resources or other cost to shorten activity duration. Resource leveling adjusts schedules to resolve resource constraints, while decomposition breaks work into smaller components. Fast tracking should therefore be used carefully after evaluating dependencies, technical feasibility, and the additional risks created by overlapping activities.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 237. Which schedule compression technique usually involves adding resources to shorten the duration of selected activities?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> Crashing<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. <\/b> Fast tracking<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. <\/b> Rolling wave planning<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. <\/b> Resource smoothing<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1. Crashing.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Crashing is a schedule compression technique that attempts to shorten project duration by adding resources or increasing effort to selected activities. Examples can include assigning additional qualified personnel, authorizing overtime, using additional equipment, or paying for expedited services when practical. Crashing generally increases cost and should therefore be evaluated using a cost-benefit approach. The project manager should focus on activities where additional resources can actually reduce duration, particularly activities affecting the critical path. Fast tracking instead overlaps activities and can increase schedule risk. Crashing should be implemented only after considering resource availability, quality implications, cost limits, and project priorities.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 238. What is the purpose of a contingency reserve?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> To fund responses to identified risks or known uncertainty within the project’s scope<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. <\/b> To replace the approved project budget<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. <\/b> To pay employee salaries indefinitely<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. <\/b> To eliminate the need for risk management<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 1. To fund responses to identified risks or known uncertainty within the project’s scope.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      A contingency reserve is an amount of time or money set aside to address identified risks or other known uncertainty that may affect the project. It provides the project team with planned flexibility when anticipated risks occur. The reserve is not intended to replace the project budget or eliminate the need for active risk management. It should be governed according to organizational procedures so that its use is visible and controlled. For example, if a documented risk occurs and the planned response requires additional expenditure, an approved contingency reserve may provide funding for that response. Proper reserve management improves the project’s ability to handle uncertainty without uncontrolled spending.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 239. Which quality activity focuses on evaluating whether project processes are being followed effectively and whether improvements are needed?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> Quality assurance<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. <\/b> Quality control<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. <\/b> Scope validation<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. <\/b> Procurement closure<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 1. Quality assurance.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Quality assurance focuses on evaluating and improving the processes used to produce project deliverables. It may involve process reviews, audits, assessments, standards compliance, and identifying opportunities to improve how work is performed. Quality control, in contrast, focuses more directly on examining deliverables and results to determine whether they meet specified requirements and quality standards. Scope validation concerns formal acceptance of completed deliverables, while procurement closure addresses completion of supplier-related activities. Quality assurance is therefore primarily process-oriented. By improving processes during the project, the team can reduce recurring defects and increase the likelihood that future deliverables will meet established expectations.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 240. Which activity should occur during project closure to preserve organizational knowledge for future projects?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> Delete temporary project records<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. <\/b> Capture and document lessons learned<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. <\/b> Add unapproved scope<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. <\/b> Remove all stakeholder records<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 2. Capture and document lessons learned.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Capturing lessons learned during project closure preserves useful knowledge about what worked well, what problems occurred, how risks were handled, how stakeholders were engaged, and what could be improved in future projects. The information can be stored according to organizational procedures and made available to future project teams. Project closure should also include final acceptance, administrative closure, procurement completion, resource release, and appropriate archival of project records. Deleting project records or stakeholder information would undermine organizational knowledge and may conflict with retention requirements. Lessons learned are valuable because they convert project experience into reusable knowledge that can improve future planning and execution.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 221. Which document identifies stakeholders and records information about their roles, interests, influence, and communication needs? Risk register Stakeholder register Issue log Project schedule Correct Answer: 2. Stakeholder register. Explanation: The stakeholder register records information about people, groups, or organizations that can […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/14408"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=14408"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/14408\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":14425,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/14408\/revisions\/14425"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=14408"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=14408"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=14408"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}