{"id":14413,"date":"2026-09-17T04:54:31","date_gmt":"2026-09-17T04:54:31","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=14413"},"modified":"2026-09-17T04:54:31","modified_gmt":"2026-09-17T04:54:31","slug":"comptia-project-pk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-15-q281-300","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-project-pk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-15-q281-300\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 15 Q281-300"},"content":{"rendered":"

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View Full <\/b>CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/p>\n

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Question 281. Which document defines how project deliverables will be verified and accepted?<\/b><\/h3>\n
    \n
  1. <\/b> Acceptance criteria<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. <\/b> Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. <\/b> Resource calendar<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. <\/b> Team charter<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1. Acceptance criteria.<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    Acceptance criteria define the specific conditions that a deliverable must satisfy before it can be formally accepted by the appropriate stakeholder or customer. These criteria should be clear, measurable, and aligned with the documented requirements. They provide the project team with an objective basis for determining whether the expected result has been achieved. Acceptance criteria may address functionality, performance, quality, compliance, usability, or other agreed conditions. A risk register records uncertainties, a resource calendar tracks availability, and a team charter establishes team working agreements. Well-defined acceptance criteria reduce ambiguity and help prevent disagreements during deliverable acceptance and project closure.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 282. Which activity confirms that a completed deliverable meets the documented requirements and acceptance criteria?<\/b><\/h3>\n
      \n
    1. <\/b> Scope validation<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. <\/b> Resource leveling<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. <\/b> Risk transfer<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. <\/b> Procurement planning<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 1. Scope validation.<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      Scope validation involves obtaining formal acceptance of completed project deliverables by the appropriate customer or stakeholder. The deliverable is reviewed against documented requirements and acceptance criteria to determine whether it meets the agreed expectations. This activity is different from quality control, which focuses on measuring and inspecting deliverables to determine whether they conform to specified quality requirements. Scope validation emphasizes formal acceptance. Resource leveling addresses resource constraints, risk transfer changes responsibility for a risk, and procurement planning concerns acquiring products or services. Proper scope validation provides documented confirmation that deliverables have been accepted and helps support controlled project closure.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 283. Which artifact provides detailed information about the components of each work package in a WBS?<\/b><\/h3>\n
        \n
      1. <\/b> WBS dictionary<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. <\/b> Stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. <\/b> Issue log<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. <\/b> Communications plan<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 1. WBS dictionary.<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        A WBS dictionary provides detailed information about the work packages and other components represented in the work breakdown structure. Information may include descriptions of the work, responsible parties, assumptions, constraints, acceptance criteria, milestones, estimated costs, resources, and other relevant details. The WBS itself provides the hierarchical structure of project work, while the WBS dictionary adds supporting information that may not fit directly into the graphical or hierarchical structure. A stakeholder register identifies stakeholders, an issue log tracks current problems, and a communications plan defines information needs. Together, the WBS and its dictionary help establish a clearer understanding of the work required.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 284. A project manager needs to determine the order in which project activities should be performed. Which process is most appropriate?<\/b><\/h3>\n
          \n
        1. <\/b> Activity sequencing<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. <\/b> Scope validation<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. <\/b> Procurement closure<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. <\/b> Risk escalation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 1. Activity sequencing.<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          Activity sequencing determines the logical order in which project activities should occur based on dependencies and other scheduling considerations. The project team identifies relationships between activities and establishes appropriate dependency types, such as finish-to-start, start-to-start, finish-to-finish, or start-to-finish. Proper sequencing helps produce a realistic project schedule and allows the team to identify paths through the work. Scope validation concerns acceptance of deliverables, procurement closure completes supplier-related activities, and risk escalation involves transferring a risk or issue to an appropriate authority. Accurate sequencing is essential because incorrect dependencies can create unrealistic schedules or affect the calculated critical path.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 285. What is a lead in project scheduling?<\/b><\/h3>\n
            \n
          1. <\/b> An intentional overlap that allows a successor activity to begin before the predecessor is completely finished<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. <\/b> A delay inserted between two activities<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. <\/b> The total duration of the project<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. <\/b> The amount of management reserve<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1. An intentional overlap that allows a successor activity to begin before the predecessor is completely finished.<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            A lead allows a successor activity to begin before the predecessor activity has completely finished. It creates intentional overlap between activities and can sometimes shorten the overall schedule. For example, documentation preparation may begin while final testing is still underway if enough information is already available. A lead should be used carefully because excessive overlap can increase coordination requirements, rework, or risk. A lag is different because it introduces a waiting period between activities. Project managers should document and communicate significant leads so that team members understand why activities are intentionally overlapping and what conditions must be maintained for the approach to work.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 286. What is a lag in project scheduling?<\/b><\/h3>\n
              \n
            1. <\/b> A waiting period inserted between related activities<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. <\/b> A reduction in project scope<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. <\/b> An additional project stakeholder<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. <\/b> A permanent resource assignment<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 1. A waiting period inserted between related activities.<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              A lag represents a planned waiting period between related activities. It can be used when a successor activity cannot or should not begin immediately after the predecessor reaches the required point. For example, a curing period may be required after construction work before inspection can begin. Lag therefore affects the timing of dependent activities without necessarily representing a separate work activity. A lead has the opposite scheduling effect because it allows intentional overlap. Project managers should use lag deliberately and document the reason so that schedule logic remains understandable. Incorrectly applied lags can create unnecessary delays or distort the expected project completion date.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 287. Which type of cost reserve is generally used to address known-unknown risks that may occur within the approved project scope?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                \n
              1. <\/b> Contingency reserve<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. <\/b> Management reserve<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. <\/b> Profit reserve<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. <\/b> Procurement reserve<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1. Contingency reserve.<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                Contingency reserve is generally established for identified risks or other known-unknown situations that may occur during execution of the project. It is intended to provide funding for uncertain work within the approved scope when the associated risk materializes. The specific rules for using contingency reserve depend on the organization’s project-management procedures. Management reserve is typically handled separately and may be used for unforeseen work that falls outside the planned cost baseline under appropriate governance. Understanding the distinction helps project managers maintain financial control. Reserves should not be treated as unrestricted spending because their use should follow established authorization and reporting requirements.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 288. What is management reserve primarily intended to address?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                  \n
                1. <\/b> Unforeseen work within the project’s overall management authority<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. <\/b> Routine employee salaries<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. <\/b> Every identified project activity<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. <\/b> Automatically approved scope changes<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 1. Unforeseen work within the project’s overall management authority.<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Management reserve is generally an amount set aside for unforeseen work that may arise within the overall scope and management authority of the project. Its use is normally controlled through organizational governance and is not treated the same way as contingency reserve. Contingency reserve is commonly associated with identified risks, while management reserve addresses uncertainties that were not specifically anticipated during planning. The exact treatment of management reserve can vary according to organizational accounting and project-management practices. Project managers should follow established approval procedures before using it and should maintain transparent records of how the reserve affects project financial reporting.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 289. Which document establishes the approved time-phased budget against which project cost performance is measured?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Cost baseline<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. <\/b> Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. <\/b> Team charter<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. <\/b> Stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1. Cost baseline.<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    The cost baseline represents the approved, time-phased budget used to measure and monitor project cost performance. It provides a reference against which actual spending and other financial performance information can be compared. The cost baseline may be developed from detailed cost estimates and includes the approved budget distributed across the project schedule. Changes to the baseline generally require formal change control because unauthorized adjustments could make performance comparisons unreliable. A risk register documents uncertainty, a team charter establishes team agreements, and a stakeholder register identifies stakeholders. Maintaining a controlled cost baseline allows project managers to identify variances and evaluate whether corrective actions are needed.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 290. Which quality-management activity evaluates whether project processes are being followed effectively?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                      \n
                    1. <\/b> Quality audit<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. <\/b> Scope validation<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. <\/b> Resource leveling<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. <\/b> Cost estimation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 1. Quality audit.<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      A quality audit evaluates project processes and practices to determine whether they comply with established procedures, standards, policies, and quality-management expectations. The purpose is generally to identify opportunities for improvement, confirm effective practices, and determine whether processes are being implemented as intended. Quality control, in contrast, focuses more directly on inspecting or testing deliverables and identifying defects. Scope validation concerns formal acceptance of deliverables, resource leveling addresses resource constraints, and cost estimation develops expected project costs. Quality audits can help organizations identify process weaknesses before they produce repeated defects or other project problems and can contribute to continuous improvement.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 291. A completed product fails a required inspection. What should the project team do first?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                        \n
                      1. <\/b> Document the defect and determine the appropriate corrective action<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. <\/b> Immediately close the project<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. <\/b> Remove the acceptance criteria<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. <\/b> Ignore the failed inspection<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1. Document the defect and determine the appropriate corrective action.<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        When a deliverable fails an inspection, the project team should document the nonconformance or defect and evaluate the appropriate corrective action according to the project’s quality procedures. The team may need to identify the cause, determine whether rework or defect repair is necessary, and verify the corrected deliverable afterward. Ignoring the failure can allow defective work to progress into later stages and potentially increase cost or schedule impact. Removing acceptance criteria does not correct the underlying problem. Quality-control results should be recorded so that project stakeholders have visibility into deliverable status and the team can identify recurring quality issues or process improvements.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 292. Which tool is commonly used to identify potential causes of a quality problem by organizing causes into categories?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                          \n
                        1. <\/b> Fishbone diagram<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. <\/b> Gantt chart<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. <\/b> Stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. <\/b> Responsibility assignment matrix<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 1. Fishbone diagram.<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          A fishbone diagram, also called a cause-and-effect diagram or Ishikawa diagram, helps teams organize and explore potential causes of a problem. Causes can be grouped into categories appropriate to the situation, allowing the team to systematically investigate contributing factors instead of focusing on only the most obvious explanation. The diagram is particularly useful during root-cause analysis and quality investigations. A Gantt chart focuses on schedule activities, a stakeholder register identifies stakeholders, and a responsibility assignment matrix connects work with responsible parties. The fishbone diagram does not prove that a particular cause is responsible; the identified possibilities should be investigated using appropriate evidence.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 293. Which requirement is an example of a nonfunctional requirement?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                            \n
                          1. <\/b> The application must respond to user requests within two seconds<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. <\/b> The application must allow users to create invoices<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. <\/b> The system must generate monthly reports<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. <\/b> The user must be able to submit an order<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1. The application must respond to user requests within two seconds.<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            A nonfunctional requirement describes a quality, characteristic, constraint, or performance expectation rather than a specific business function. A requirement stating that an application must respond within two seconds defines a performance expectation, making it a nonfunctional requirement. The other examples describe capabilities the system must provide, such as creating invoices, generating reports, or submitting orders, which are functional requirements. Distinguishing functional and nonfunctional requirements is important because both types can affect design, testing, acceptance criteria, cost, schedule, security, and quality. Nonfunctional requirements should be documented clearly so they can be objectively evaluated during verification and acceptance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 294. Which requirement type describes what a system or product must do?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Functional requirement<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. <\/b> Organizational constraint<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. <\/b> Risk trigger<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. <\/b> Resource assumption<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 1. Functional requirement.<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              A functional requirement describes a specific capability or behavior that a product, service, or system must provide. Examples include allowing users to submit orders, generating reports, authenticating users, calculating totals, or sending notifications. Functional requirements help define what the solution must do and provide a basis for design, development, testing, and acceptance. Nonfunctional requirements instead describe characteristics such as performance, security, reliability, usability, or availability. Risk triggers identify warning conditions associated with risks, while assumptions describe conditions believed to be true for planning purposes. Clearly documented functional requirements help prevent misunderstandings and provide traceability from stakeholder needs to delivered functionality.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 295. Which document connects requirements to deliverables, test cases, and acceptance activities?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                \n
                              1. <\/b> Requirements traceability matrix<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. <\/b> Issue log<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. <\/b> Team charter<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. <\/b> Resource calendar<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1. Requirements traceability matrix.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                A requirements traceability matrix, or RTM, provides a structured way to connect requirements with related project elements such as deliverables, design components, test cases, verification results, and acceptance activities. It helps the project team confirm that requirements are addressed and tested throughout the project lifecycle. Traceability can also help identify requirements that have no corresponding implementation or test activity. An issue log tracks problems, a team charter defines team working agreements, and a resource calendar tracks availability. The RTM is particularly useful when projects contain many requirements because it provides evidence that important stakeholder expectations have been carried through the project.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 296. Which project-management practice helps ensure that sensitive project information is accessed only by authorized individuals?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> Access control<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. <\/b> Resource smoothing<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. <\/b> Scope decomposition<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. <\/b> Schedule compression<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 1. Access control.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Access control restricts project information and systems so that only authorized individuals can access the resources appropriate to their roles. Project environments may contain confidential customer information, financial data, intellectual property, credentials, contractual documents, or other sensitive material. Access should therefore follow organizational security policies and the principle of providing appropriate permissions based on business need. Resource smoothing concerns resource allocation, scope decomposition breaks work into manageable components, and schedule compression attempts to shorten project duration. Effective access control can reduce the likelihood of unauthorized disclosure or modification and should be considered when defining project requirements, workflows, documentation, and operational procedures.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 297. A project processes customer personal information. Which requirement should the project team consider during planning?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> Applicable privacy and data-protection requirements<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. <\/b> Only the project’s color scheme<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. <\/b> Optional team meeting preferences<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. <\/b> The personal preferences of individual vendors<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1. Applicable privacy and data-protection requirements.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    When a project processes personal information, the team should identify and address applicable privacy, data-protection, security, contractual, and organizational requirements. Depending on the project and jurisdiction, requirements may govern how information is collected, stored, transmitted, accessed, retained, or deleted. These requirements should be incorporated into project planning and, where appropriate, reflected in requirements, acceptance criteria, contracts, procedures, and testing. Ignoring privacy requirements can create compliance and security problems that may affect scope, cost, schedule, and stakeholder trust. Project teams should rely on applicable organizational policies and qualified legal or compliance guidance when specific regulatory obligations need interpretation.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 298. Which communication practice is most useful when a stakeholder provides a complex concern that requires careful understanding?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> Active listening<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. <\/b> Ignoring the concern<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. <\/b> Sending unrelated status reports<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. <\/b> Ending the discussion immediately<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 1. Active listening.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Active listening involves paying close attention to what another person is communicating, asking clarifying questions, confirming understanding, and responding appropriately. It is particularly useful when stakeholders present complex concerns, conflicting expectations, or sensitive issues. The project manager can paraphrase the stakeholder’s concern and confirm whether the interpretation is accurate before deciding on a response. This approach reduces misunderstandings and helps identify the underlying information needed to address the situation. Simply sending unrelated information or ending the discussion does not resolve ambiguity. Active listening is especially valuable in stakeholder engagement because effective communication depends not only on transmitting information but also on accurately understanding stakeholder perspectives.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 299. What should a well-prepared project meeting agenda normally identify?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> Topics, objectives, participants, and expected outcomes<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. <\/b> Only the project budget<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. <\/b> Only unresolved risks<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. <\/b> Every task in the project schedule<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 1. Topics, objectives, participants, and expected outcomes.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        A project meeting agenda provides structure by identifying the purpose of the meeting, topics to be discussed, relevant participants, and expected outcomes or decisions. Depending on the meeting, it may also include time allocations, preparation requirements, reference materials, and action items from previous meetings. A focused agenda helps participants prepare and keeps discussions aligned with the meeting objective. It does not need to contain every task in the project schedule or every project risk. After the meeting, minutes or action records can document decisions, assigned responsibilities, and follow-up activities. Effective meeting management improves communication and reduces unnecessary time spent on unrelated topics.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 300. What is the primary purpose of a project transition or handover plan?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> To prepare the operational organization to take ownership of the completed deliverable<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. <\/b> To create the initial business case<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. <\/b> To identify the original project sponsor<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. <\/b> To calculate historical project costs<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 1. To prepare the operational organization to take ownership of the completed deliverable.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          A project transition or handover plan prepares the receiving organization, operations team, customer, or support group to take responsibility for the completed product, service, or capability. It may address training, documentation, support procedures, access, maintenance responsibilities, operational readiness, outstanding items, knowledge transfer, and acceptance. A successful handover helps ensure that the deliverable can be used and supported after the project team finishes its work. The business case is created to justify the project, while historical cost information supports financial records and lessons learned. Transition planning should occur early enough to identify operational requirements before final delivery and project closure.<\/span><\/p>\n

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                                          View Full CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 281. Which document defines how project deliverables will be verified and accepted? Acceptance criteria Risk register Resource calendar Team charter Correct Answer: 1. Acceptance criteria. Explanation: Acceptance criteria define the specific conditions that a deliverable must satisfy before it can be formally […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/14413"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=14413"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/14413\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":14422,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/14413\/revisions\/14422"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=14413"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=14413"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=14413"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}