{"id":15370,"date":"2026-09-17T12:03:47","date_gmt":"2026-09-17T12:03:47","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=15370"},"modified":"2026-09-17T12:03:47","modified_gmt":"2026-09-17T12:03:47","slug":"iapp-cipm-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part20-q381-400","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/iapp-cipm-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part20-q381-400\/","title":{"rendered":"IAPP CIPM Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part20 Q381-400"},"content":{"rendered":"

<\/h1>\n

View Full <\/b>IAPP CIPM Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps.<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 381<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which internal corporate report provides the board of directors with a high-level summary of privacy program vulnerabilities and budget needs?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. Executive privacy risk dashboard summary<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Daily employee cafeteria catering receipt log<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. Corporate fleet vehicle maintenance schedule<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Quarterly office stationery supply inventory<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer:<\/b> 3<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    Providing an executive privacy risk dashboard summary allows privacy leadership to communicate critical threat exposures, regulatory compliance gaps, and required resource allocations directly to the board of directors. This high-level report translates complex technical metrics into clear business risks, securing strategic oversight and financial backing. By summarizing maturity benchmarks and key risk indicators in a digestible format, board members can make informed governance decisions, allocate appropriate budgetary funds, and ensure the organization maintains adequate legal and operational defenses against evolving data protection threats. Regular dashboard updates keep executive leadership aligned with shifting regulatory environments.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 382<\/b><\/h3>\n

    What operational outcome occurs when an enterprise deploys automated cookie banner consent logging tools across public web properties?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. Permanent tracking of user opt-in and opt-out preferences<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. Automatic salary adjustments for software development staff<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Complete elimination of network perimeter firewalls<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Direct reduction of commercial real estate rental costs<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer:<\/b> 4<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      Deploying automated cookie banner tools ensures that every visitor’s cookie consent choice is recorded with a timestamp and cryptographic proof, establishing verifiable compliance with ePrivacy and global web tracking regulations. This technological deployment automatically captures granular user opt-in and opt-out preferences, storing them securely to prove compliance during regulatory audits. It eliminates manual record-keeping errors, streamlines consumer rights fulfillment, and ensures that downstream marketing tags and analytics scripts execute only when valid, documented user consent is actively present on the browser session. Regular script scanning prevents unauthorized tracking cookies from bypassing consent barriers.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 383<\/b><\/h3>\n

      Which department typically spearheads the investigation when an unauthorized data exfiltration event is detected on internal servers?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Information security and digital forensics incident response team<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Corporate public relations and media broadcasting agency<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Consumer retail product packaging design division<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Employee travel and expense reimbursement department<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer:<\/b> 4<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        The information security and digital forensics incident response team possesses the specialized technical tools required to isolate compromised systems, analyze malware signatures, and trace the vector of an unauthorized data exfiltration event. Operating under strict chain-of-custody protocols, these professionals examine network traffic, system logs, and memory dumps to determine the precise scope of the breach. Their rapid forensic analysis is critical for containing active threats, preserving digital evidence, and providing accurate technical data for legal and regulatory breach notifications. Close coordination with privacy officers ensures that legal notification timelines are strictly met.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 384<\/b><\/h3>\n

        What structural benefit is achieved by integrating privacy impact assessments into the early phases of software development?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. Identifying architectural privacy risks before code deployment<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Determining the annual financial bonus for executive officers<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Selecting optimal commercial office furniture suppliers<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. Managing employee parking garage access permits<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer:<\/b> 3<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          Integrating privacy impact assessments during the design phase ensures that privacy-by-design principles are embedded into the software architecture, allowing engineers to address architectural privacy risks before code deployment rather than attempting costly rewrites later. Early evaluation highlights data flow vulnerabilities, excessive collection points, and missing controls while applications are still conceptual. This proactive alignment minimizes regulatory exposure, reduces remediation expenditures, and ensures that consumer privacy protections are structurally woven into the core product lifecycle from inception. Cross-functional collaboration between developers and privacy engineers is vital for success.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 385<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which governance process ensures that third-party vendors delete customer personal data upon contract termination?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Vendor data offboarding and secure destruction verification protocol<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. Public social media campaign performance tracking review<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Internal office building elevator maintenance inspection<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Corporate holiday party catering menu evaluation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer:<\/b> 3<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            A vendor data offboarding protocol requires suppliers to provide certified proof of data destruction or return all personal records securely once a commercial contract ends, preventing lingering data liabilities. This mandatory governance process involves auditing third-party storage repositories, verifying secure media sanitization, and executing legally binding certificates of disposal. Implementing rigorous offboarding workflows protects enterprise data assets from remaining dormant or vulnerable in former vendor environments, maintaining compliance with global retention and destruction mandates. Regular vendor audits reinforce compliance and prevent unauthorized data retention past contract expiration dates.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 386<\/b><\/h3>\n

            What primary purpose does an enterprise data flow mapping workshop serve for privacy compliance officers?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Visualizing how personal information moves across systems and vendors<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Calculating the monthly electricity bill for regional branch offices<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Establishing quotas for outbound sales cold-calling teams<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Reviewing architectural blueprints for new office buildings<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer:<\/b> 3<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              Data flow mapping workshops help compliance teams trace every entry point, transit path, and storage repository of personal data, which is essential for accurate record-keeping and compliance audits. By bringing cross-functional stakeholders together, these sessions uncover hidden data sharing practices, shadow IT systems, and undocumented vendor transfers. A clear visual representation of data movements enables privacy officers to apply targeted technical controls, perform accurate impact assessments, and maintain up-to-date processing records required by regulatory authorities. Regular updates to these data maps reflect organizational growth and technological infrastructure modifications over time.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 387<\/b><\/h3>\n

              Which specific tool allows individuals to withdraw previously granted consent across mobile applications instantly?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. In-app privacy preference center and toggle menu<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. Physical drop box located in the company lobby<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. Automated voice mail recording system for customer service<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. Printed annual financial shareholder report<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer:<\/b> 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                An in-app privacy preference center gives users direct control to modify or revoke their data sharing and marketing permissions at any time, satisfying user rights under modern privacy frameworks. By providing clear toggle menus within mobile applications, empower consumers to manage their consent choices seamlessly without contacting customer support. This immediate technical synchronization updates backend databases instantly, ensuring that opt-out requests are honored across all integrated marketing, analytics, and service platforms without operational lag. Designing intuitive interfaces encourages higher user engagement and builds brand trust.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 388<\/b><\/h3>\n

                Why do privacy programs implement role-based access control models for internal human resources databases?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. To restrict employee file viewing to authorized HR personnel only<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. To allow every staff member to read all executive salaries<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. To broadcast personnel performance reviews on public forums<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. To streamline the procurement of office cleaning supplies<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer:<\/b> 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Role-based access control enforces the principle of least privilege, ensuring that sensitive employee records inside HR databases are only accessible to staff with a verified job need. This administrative and technical safeguard prevents unauthorized internal browsing, minimizes lateral data exposure, and protects confidential personnel information against insider threats. By programmatically tying file permissions to specific job titles, organizations maintain strict accountability, confidentiality, and compliance with internal data governance policies. Regularly reviewing these access rights prevents permission creep and ensures that only active personnel retain sensitive file privileges.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 389<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  What core function does a data protection officer perform regarding regulatory supervisory authorities?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Acting as the primary liaison for audits, inquiries, and breach notifications<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. Managing the procurement contracts for corporate software licenses<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Designing visual graphics for marketing advertising campaigns<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. Supervising physical security guards at warehouse entrances<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer:<\/b> 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    The data protection officer serves as the official point of contact and primary liaison between the organization and external regulatory authorities during investigations, audits, or statutory notifications. Their independent positioning allows them to advise senior leadership objectively, facilitate transparent communications with supervisory bodies, and coordinate official responses to compliance inquiries. Having a designated DPO ensures that regulatory interactions are handled consistently, professionally, and in full alignment with statutory legal mandates. Organizations must protect the DPO from professional retaliation to preserve their critical advisory independence.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 390<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which metric evaluates the speed at which IT administrators patch newly discovered software vulnerabilities?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Vulnerability remediation patch cycle time<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Total count of office badges printed per week<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Average employee commute distance to headquarters<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Monthly volume of outgoing marketing emails sent<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer:<\/b> 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Tracking vulnerability remediation patch cycle time measures how quickly technical teams neutralize software flaws, reducing the window of opportunity for attackers to exploit unpatched systems. This quantitative metric assesses the operational efficiency of the enterprise vulnerability management program, highlighting potential administrative bottlenecks or testing delays. Maintaining a rapid patch cycle is essential for hardening enterprise networks against cyber attacks, preventing unauthorized data breaches, and meeting external security audit expectations. Automated patch management tools can significantly accelerate remediation cycles across large enterprise networks.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 391<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      What objective guides the creation of a binding corporate rules framework within multinational companies?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Permitting lawful intra-group transfers of personal data globally<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Setting standardized commission rates for sales representatives<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Determining architectural standards for corporate parking lots<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Regulating internal cafeteria food pricing structures<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer:<\/b> 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Binding corporate rules allow multinational corporations to transfer personal data securely and lawfully between entities located in different countries while complying with stringent data protection standards. This approved governance framework establishes uniform internal privacy policies that are legally binding across all global subsidiaries and branch offices. By implementing BCRs, enterprises streamline international data flows, ensure consistent protection levels across jurisdictions, and satisfy complex cross-border transfer requirements under modern privacy regulations. Supervisory authorities review these frameworks meticulously to guarantee robust enforcement mechanisms for data subjects worldwide.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 392<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which assessment examines whether a new AI-driven surveillance tool violates employee privacy expectations?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Algorithmic privacy and ethical impact assessment<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Commercial building fire safety evacuation drill<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Corporate income tax financial audit review<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Office furniture ergonomic comfort evaluation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer:<\/b> 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          An algorithmic privacy and ethical impact assessment evaluates automated decision-making and surveillance tools to ensure they respect individual rights, transparency, and fairness. This specialized review scrutinizes AI models for potential bias, excessive workplace monitoring, and lack of transparency in automated evaluations. Conducting these assessments prevents unlawful employee surveillance, ensures ethical technological deployment, and aligns organizational AI initiatives with statutory privacy mandates and internal corporate governance principles. Continuous monitoring of AI algorithms post-deployment ensures they continue to operate within acceptable ethical bounds.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 393<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          What is the main advantage of deploying centralized enterprise logging for security event monitoring?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. Aggregating security alerts from all network nodes into one console<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Reducing the cost of company-wide mobile phone bills<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Automating the distribution of weekly office supply orders<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Enhancing the visual appeal of corporate marketing brochures<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer:<\/b> 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Centralized logging aggregates security events and logs from servers, firewalls, and applications into a single platform, enabling rapid threat detection and comprehensive forensic analysis. Instead of reviewing scattered silos of information, security teams can correlate alerts across multiple enterprise nodes to spot complex attack patterns in real time. This unified visibility streamlines incident response workflows, shortens containment timelines, and provides dependable audit trails for regulatory compliance reviews. Proper log retention policies must be enforced to ensure historical data remains accessible for long-term investigations.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 394<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which policy governs the safe disposal of physical paper documents containing customer account details?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Secure shredding and media sanitization policy<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Social media brand promotion and posting guide<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Corporate travel booking and expense policy<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Employee remote work coffee break schedule<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer:<\/b> 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              A secure shredding policy mandates cross-cut shredding or certified destruction for all physical paper records containing sensitive personal information to prevent dumpster diving and data theft. This administrative control establishes clear disposal procedures, locked collection bin placements, and scheduled pickups by certified destruction vendors. Enforcing this policy ensures that physical documents do not linger indefinitely in open office spaces, minimizing accidental disclosures and protecting customer privacy throughout the document lifecycle. Employee training on physical document handling is critical for maintaining compliance across all branch offices.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 395<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              What primary goal is achieved by conducting tabletop privacy incident response simulations?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. Testing cross-functional team readiness during a mock breach scenario<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Calculating the yearly depreciation value of office laptops<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. Negotiating software discount terms with cloud providers<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Organizing team-building exercises for marketing interns<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer:<\/b> 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Tabletop exercises simulate realistic data breach scenarios to test communication channels, decision-making speed, and role clarity among cross-functional incident response team members. These interactive workshops expose operational gaps, procedural ambiguities, and coordination challenges in a controlled environment before an actual crisis occurs. Regular simulations ensure that legal, IT, public relations, and executive teams understand their specific duties, enabling rapid, cohesive responses when real security incidents strike. Furthermore, documenting these training exercises provides tangible proof of due diligence and proactive risk mitigation to external auditors and regulatory authorities during compliance evaluations.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 396<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                Which compliance measure ensures that customer data collected for shipping is not repurposed for unrelated telemarketing?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. Purpose limitation enforcement controls<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Unlimited data aggregation protocols<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Public directory broadcasting rules<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Universal file sharing configurations<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer:<\/b> 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  The purpose limitation principle mandates that personal data collected for a specific, defined objective cannot be reused for incompatible secondary purposes without fresh consent or legal justification. Purpose limitation controls restrict downstream system access, ensuring that shipping data flows only to logistics fulfillment modules and remains blocked from marketing databases. Adhering to this principle respects consumer expectations, maintains regulatory alignment, and prevents unauthorized commercial profiling or telemarketing exploitation. Database segmentation and strict access governance are essential technical enablers of this principle.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 397<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  What role does encryption at rest play in protecting databases containing sensitive customer records?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Rendering stored data unreadable if physical storage media is stolen<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Increasing the processing speed of database search queries<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Eliminating the need for database administrator passwords<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Reducing the physical storage space required on server hard drives<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer:<\/b> 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Encryption at rest ensures that database files stored on hard drives or cloud disks remain cryptographically protected and unreadable even if the physical storage media is stolen or accessed illicitly. By employing robust algorithms like AES, organizations neutralize the threat of data extraction from decommissioned hardware, lost backup tapes, or compromised storage arrays. This technical safeguard acts as a vital last line of defense, preventing physical theft from escalating into reportable data breaches. Proper cryptographic key management must be maintained separately from the encrypted data volumes to ensure maximum security integrity.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 398<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    Which administrative control verifies that employees understand corporate confidentiality policies upon joining the company?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Mandatory onboarding confidentiality agreement sign-off<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Unrestricted access to executive management calendars<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Open attendance at board of directors meetings<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Optional participation in recreational sports clubs<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer:<\/b> 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Requiring new hires to sign a confidentiality agreement during onboarding establishes clear legal accountability and ensures workforce awareness regarding sensitive data handling rules. This administrative control confirms that employees formally acknowledge their legal and ethical obligations to protect company and customer information from the first day of employment. Documenting these signed acknowledgments satisfies internal audit requirements and reinforces a pervasive culture of security and compliance across the enterprise workforce. Periodic refresher courses help reinforce these foundational agreements as employees progress through their tenure.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 399<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      What specific metric tracks how many privacy awareness training sessions were successfully completed by department staff?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Employee training completion percentage rate<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Total quantity of server reboots performed weekly<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Average speed of office network Wi-Fi routers<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Total weight of shredded paper waste per month<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer:<\/b> 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Tracking the employee training completion percentage allows compliance officers to monitor workforce educational progress and enforce mandatory participation deadlines across business units. This quantitative metric highlights specific departments lagging behind in required annual compliance modules, enabling targeted follow-up reminders. Maintaining high completion rates demonstrates an active commitment to workforce awareness, satisfying supervisory expectations that all personnel are adequately educated on data protection standards. Gamification and interactive modules often improve completion rates and long-term knowledge retention among employees.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 400<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        Why must organizations maintain an up-to-date processing activities record under modern privacy laws?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. To provide regulators with transparent documentation of data operations<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. To calculate employee quarterly performance bonuses<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. To manage commercial real estate lease agreements<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. To select catering vendors for corporate events<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer:<\/b> 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Maintaining an up-to-date record of processing activities fulfills statutory transparency mandates, giving supervisory authorities and internal auditors a complete ledger of how personal data is handled. This comprehensive inventory details processing purposes, data categories, recipient types, international transfers, and retention schedules across all operational units. Having a rigorous, current processing record enables organizations to answer regulatory inquiries swiftly, demonstrate structural accountability, and prove full compliance with global data protection frameworks. Continuous maintenance of these records ensures long-term operational resilience and prevents costly penalties associated with poor data governance.<\/span><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full IAPP CIPM Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps.   Question 381 Which internal corporate report provides the board of directors with a high-level summary of privacy program vulnerabilities and budget needs? Executive privacy risk dashboard summary Daily employee cafeteria catering receipt log Corporate fleet vehicle maintenance schedule Quarterly office stationery supply inventory Correct […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/15370"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=15370"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/15370\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":15371,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/15370\/revisions\/15371"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=15370"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=15370"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=15370"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}