{"id":16252,"date":"2026-09-19T06:12:38","date_gmt":"2026-09-19T06:12:38","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=16252"},"modified":"2026-09-19T06:12:38","modified_gmt":"2026-09-19T06:12:38","slug":"acams-cams-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-9-q161-180","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/acams-cams-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-9-q161-180\/","title":{"rendered":"ACAMS CAMS Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 9 Q161-180"},"content":{"rendered":"

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View Full <\/b>ACAMS CAMS Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/p>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 161. Which activity is a common indicator of potential money laundering?<\/b><\/h3>\n
    \n
  1. <\/b> Routine payroll payments<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. <\/b> Transactions consistent with the customer’s profile<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. <\/b> Unexplained movement of funds through multiple accounts<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. <\/b> Regular utility payments<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 3. Unexplained movement of funds through multiple accounts<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    Unexplained movement of funds through multiple accounts can be an important money laundering indicator because criminals may use several accounts to obscure the origin, ownership, or destination of funds. The activity becomes more concerning when transactions have no clear economic rationale or are inconsistent with the customer’s known business or financial profile. An AML professional should review the transaction pattern, counterparties, jurisdictions, account relationships, and supporting documentation before determining whether the activity is suspicious. A single unusual transaction does not automatically establish money laundering, so investigators should consider the complete customer and transaction context.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 162. What should an investigator review when assessing an unusual transaction?<\/b><\/h3>\n
      \n
    1. <\/b> Only the transaction amount<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. <\/b> Customer profile and historical activity<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. <\/b> Only the customer’s occupation<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. <\/b> Only the account opening form<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 2. Customer profile and historical activity<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      Reviewing the customer’s profile and historical activity helps an investigator determine whether a transaction is genuinely unusual. Important information may include the customer’s occupation or business, expected account activity, source of funds, previous transactions, geographic connections, counterparties, and established risk rating. Comparing current behavior with historical patterns can reveal meaningful changes that warrant further investigation. Investigators should avoid evaluating a transaction in isolation because legitimate customers can occasionally conduct large or unusual transactions. A complete contextual review supports consistent, evidence-based decisions about whether an alert should be closed, escalated, or investigated further.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 163. Which customer behavior may indicate possible structuring?<\/b><\/h3>\n
        \n
      1. <\/b> One large documented business payment<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. <\/b> Monthly salary deposits<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. <\/b> Regular mortgage payments<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. <\/b> Multiple cash transactions designed to avoid reporting thresholds<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 4. Multiple cash transactions designed to avoid reporting thresholds<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        Structuring involves intentionally dividing transactions into smaller amounts to avoid triggering regulatory reporting or monitoring requirements. Multiple cash deposits or withdrawals conducted over a short period can therefore represent a potential red flag when the pattern appears designed to remain below a reporting threshold. The investigator should consider the timing, amounts, locations, individuals involved, and customer’s expected activity. Legitimate businesses may naturally conduct numerous cash transactions, so transaction frequency alone does not establish suspicious conduct. Additional information and supporting evidence should be assessed before making an AML determination or filing a suspicious activity report.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 164. What is the primary purpose of customer risk scoring?<\/b><\/h3>\n
          \n
        1. <\/b> To determine the customer’s credit limit<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. <\/b> To identify customers who require appropriate levels of AML controls<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. <\/b> To calculate employee salaries<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. <\/b> To eliminate all customer monitoring<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 2. To identify customers who require appropriate levels of AML controls<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          Customer risk scoring helps an institution determine the level of AML controls appropriate for a particular relationship. Factors may include customer type, occupation or business activity, geographic exposure, products and services used, transaction behavior, ownership structure, and other relevant risk indicators. Higher-risk customers may require enhanced due diligence and more frequent monitoring, while lower-risk relationships may be subject to standard controls. Risk scoring should not be treated as a permanent classification because customer circumstances can change. Institutions should periodically review risk ratings and update them when meaningful changes in customer information or behavior occur.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 165. Which factor can increase a customer’s AML risk?<\/b><\/h3>\n
            \n
          1. <\/b> Complex ownership involving several jurisdictions<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. <\/b> A transparent ownership structure<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. <\/b> A well-documented source of funds<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. <\/b> Low-risk domestic activity<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1. Complex ownership involving several jurisdictions<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            Complex ownership structures involving several jurisdictions can increase AML risk because they may make it more difficult to identify the individuals who ultimately own or control an entity. Multiple companies, trusts, nominee arrangements, or entities established in different jurisdictions can reduce transparency and complicate verification. This does not mean that every international corporate structure is suspicious. Legitimate multinational businesses may have complex structures for valid commercial reasons. AML professionals should understand the ownership chain, verify beneficial owners, assess the jurisdictions involved, and obtain supporting information when necessary to determine whether enhanced due diligence is appropriate.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 166. Why is beneficial ownership identification important?<\/b><\/h3>\n
              \n
            1. <\/b> It determines the customer’s tax rate<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. <\/b> It replaces transaction monitoring<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. <\/b> It identifies the individuals who ultimately own or control a legal entity<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. <\/b> It guarantees that the customer is low risk<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 3. It identifies the individuals who ultimately own or control a legal entity<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              Beneficial ownership identification is a fundamental component of customer due diligence because legal entities can sometimes be used to conceal the identity of the individuals who ultimately own or control assets or accounts. Identifying beneficial owners provides greater transparency and allows the institution to assess those individuals for relevant AML risks, including sanctions, PEP exposure, adverse information, and other risk factors. Institutions should obtain and verify appropriate ownership information according to applicable requirements. Beneficial ownership information should also be reviewed when changes occur because ownership and control arrangements can change during a customer relationship.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 167. Which situation may require enhanced due diligence?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                \n
              1. <\/b> A higher-risk customer with unusual international transactions<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. <\/b> A customer making routine utility payments<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. <\/b> A low-risk customer with unchanged activity<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. <\/b> A customer receiving regular payroll<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1. A higher-risk customer with unusual international transactions<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                Enhanced due diligence is generally appropriate when a customer or relationship presents elevated AML risk. A higher-risk customer conducting unusual international transactions may require additional information about the purpose of the transactions, source of funds, source of wealth, counterparties, geographic exposure, and expected activity. The precise requirements vary according to applicable laws and institutional policies. EDD is intended to provide a deeper understanding of relationships where standard due diligence may not provide enough information to manage identified risks. Institutions should document the rationale for enhanced measures and maintain appropriate ongoing monitoring.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 168. What is a key purpose of source-of-funds verification?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                  \n
                1. <\/b> To determine the customer’s credit score<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. <\/b> To establish where specific funds used in a transaction originated<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. <\/b> To replace customer identification<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. <\/b> To determine the customer’s preferred product<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 2. To establish where specific funds used in a transaction originated<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Source-of-funds verification focuses on identifying where the money involved in a particular transaction or account activity came from. Depending on the circumstances, evidence may include bank statements, sale agreements, employment income records, business records, loan documentation, or other reliable information. Understanding the source of funds helps an institution determine whether the transaction is consistent with the customer’s profile and stated purpose. Source of funds is different from source of wealth, which addresses how a customer’s overall wealth was accumulated. Both concepts can be relevant when assessing higher-risk relationships and unusual financial activity.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 169. Which activity may indicate layering?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Receiving a salary from an employer<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. <\/b> Paying a monthly insurance premium<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. <\/b> Making ordinary household purchases<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. <\/b> Moving funds through several transactions to obscure their origin<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 4. Moving funds through several transactions to obscure their origin<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Layering refers to transactions intended to make it difficult to trace illicit funds back to their original source. A customer may move money between accounts, institutions, companies, jurisdictions, or financial products in ways that create a complicated transaction trail. The purpose of such activity may be to distance funds from their original source and make detection more difficult. However, legitimate businesses can also conduct complex transfers for valid reasons. AML professionals should therefore examine the customer’s business purpose, counterparties, transaction history, supporting documentation, and overall risk profile before concluding that a layering pattern may exist.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 170. What should an institution do when a sanctions screening alert appears to be a false positive?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                      \n
                    1. <\/b> Immediately close the customer’s account<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. <\/b> Ignore the alert<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. <\/b> Compare identifying information and document the disposition<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. <\/b> Automatically report the customer<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 3. Compare identifying information and document the disposition<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      A potential sanctions match should be investigated carefully before determining whether it represents the listed individual or entity. Analysts may compare information such as full name, date of birth, nationality, address, identification details, corporate information, and other available identifiers. If the information demonstrates that the customer is not the sanctioned party, the alert may be determined to be a false positive according to the institution’s procedures. The decision should be documented clearly so that there is an audit trail showing why the alert was closed. Institutions should follow applicable sanctions requirements throughout the review process.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 171. Which information is particularly useful when investigating a corporate customer’s transactions?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                        \n
                      1. <\/b> The company’s favorite brand<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. <\/b> The business purpose and expected transaction activity<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. <\/b> The employee’s personal hobbies<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. <\/b> The customer’s preferred communication style<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 2. The business purpose and expected transaction activity<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Understanding a corporate customer’s business purpose and expected transaction activity provides important context for AML monitoring and investigations. Investigators can compare actual transactions with the company’s stated business model, revenue sources, operating locations, counterparties, payment patterns, and expected transaction volumes. Significant inconsistencies may warrant additional questions or documentation. For example, an entity claiming to operate a small local business but suddenly receiving large international transfers from unrelated industries may require further examination. Context is essential because unusual activity can have legitimate explanations, and investigators should seek evidence rather than relying solely on assumptions.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 172. What is the purpose of an AML transaction monitoring system?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                          \n
                        1. <\/b> To identify potentially unusual or suspicious transaction activity<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. <\/b> To guarantee that no crime occurs<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. <\/b> To replace all human investigation<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. <\/b> To determine employee performance<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 1. To identify potentially unusual or suspicious transaction activity<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          An AML transaction monitoring system helps institutions identify transaction patterns that may require review for potential money laundering, terrorist financing, sanctions evasion, or other financial crime concerns. Systems can use rules, scenarios, thresholds, statistical techniques, or other analytical methods to identify activity that differs from expected behavior. Monitoring systems do not determine guilt or automatically establish that a transaction is suspicious. Alerts normally require review by trained personnel who assess the customer’s profile, transaction context, supporting evidence, and applicable requirements. Effective monitoring therefore combines appropriate technology with sound procedures, quality data, and human judgment.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 173. Why should transaction monitoring thresholds be periodically reviewed?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                            \n
                          1. <\/b> To eliminate all alerts<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. <\/b> To ensure the monitoring program remains aligned with risk<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. <\/b> To avoid collecting customer information<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. <\/b> To guarantee every transaction is investigated<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 2. To ensure the monitoring program remains aligned with risk<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Transaction monitoring thresholds should be periodically reviewed because customer behavior, products, services, risks, transaction volumes, and typologies can change over time. A threshold that was appropriate when a monitoring scenario was created may later generate excessive false positives or fail to identify meaningful activity. Institutions can use alert data, investigation outcomes, quality assurance findings, risk assessments, and emerging financial crime patterns to evaluate whether scenarios remain effective. Changes should be properly governed, tested, documented, and approved. The objective is not simply to reduce alert volume but to maintain monitoring that appropriately addresses the institution’s identified financial crime risks.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 174. What does transaction monitoring calibration generally involve?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Adjusting scenarios and thresholds to improve risk detection<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. <\/b> Removing all monitoring scenarios<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. <\/b> Allowing customers to set their own thresholds<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. <\/b> Eliminating compliance review<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 1. Adjusting scenarios and thresholds to improve risk detection<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Transaction monitoring calibration involves reviewing and adjusting monitoring scenarios, thresholds, parameters, and related controls so that they appropriately identify relevant risk while managing unnecessary alerts. Calibration may consider historical transactions, customer segmentation, alert outcomes, known typologies, investigator feedback, and changes in the institution’s risk profile. Effective calibration should be supported by documented analysis and appropriate testing. Simply lowering thresholds can create excessive false positives, while setting thresholds too high may reduce the system’s ability to detect meaningful activity. The objective is a balanced monitoring environment that remains responsive to the institution’s actual risk exposure.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 175. What is a major concern when customer information becomes outdated?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                \n
                              1. <\/b> The institution may misunderstand the customer’s current risk profile<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. <\/b> The customer will automatically become high risk<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. <\/b> All transactions will become illegal<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. <\/b> The account will automatically close<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1. The institution may misunderstand the customer’s current risk profile<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Outdated customer information can weaken AML controls because an institution may no longer have an accurate understanding of the customer’s identity, business activities, ownership, expected transactions, geographic exposure, or source of funds. Changes such as new ownership, a different occupation, expansion into higher-risk markets, or significant changes in transaction behavior can affect the relationship’s risk assessment. Periodic and event-driven customer reviews help maintain accurate information. When material changes are identified, the institution may need to update the customer’s risk rating, obtain additional documentation, conduct enhanced due diligence, or adjust transaction monitoring appropriately.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 176. What is an important element of an AML investigation record?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> Personal opinions unrelated to the case<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. <\/b> Unverified rumors presented as facts<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. <\/b> Documented facts, analysis, and investigation decisions<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. <\/b> Only the final conclusion<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 3. Documented facts, analysis, and investigation decisions<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  An effective AML investigation record should clearly document relevant facts, information reviewed, analytical reasoning, investigative steps, and the final decision. Good documentation allows another qualified reviewer to understand what happened and why the investigator reached a particular conclusion. Supporting records may include transaction details, customer information, correspondence, screening results, research findings, and explanations for escalation or closure. Investigators should distinguish verified information from allegations or unconfirmed information and avoid unsupported conclusions. A well-maintained case record also supports quality assurance, independent testing, regulatory reviews, and future investigations involving the same customer or activity.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 177. What is the main purpose of adverse media screening?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> To identify potentially relevant negative information about customers or related parties<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. <\/b> To determine a customer’s income tax<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. <\/b> To replace sanctions screening<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. <\/b> To eliminate customer due diligence<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1. To identify potentially relevant negative information about customers or related parties<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Adverse media screening can help institutions identify publicly available information that may indicate financial crime, corruption, fraud, sanctions concerns, or other risks associated with a customer or related party. A media hit should not automatically be treated as proof of misconduct. Analysts should determine whether the information relates to the correct person or entity, assess the credibility and relevance of the source, consider the age of the information, and evaluate whether the issue affects the customer’s current risk profile. Relevant findings may lead to additional due diligence, enhanced monitoring, escalation, or other action according to applicable procedures.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 178. Which situation may create terrorist financing risk?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> Routine salary payments<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. <\/b> Donations or transfers connected to organizations with unexplained extremist links<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. <\/b> Regular mortgage payments<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. <\/b> Normal household spending<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 2. Donations or transfers connected to organizations with unexplained extremist links<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Terrorist financing risk can arise when funds are collected, transferred, or provided to support terrorist organizations, individuals, or activities. Transactions involving organizations or individuals associated with terrorism concerns may therefore require careful investigation, particularly when the purpose, beneficiaries, source of funds, or destination cannot be satisfactorily explained. Terrorist financing can involve relatively small amounts and may use legitimate-looking channels, which means institutions should consider context rather than relying only on transaction size. Analysts should follow applicable sanctions, AML, and suspicious activity requirements and document the evidence supporting their conclusions.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 179. Why can nonprofit organizations require AML risk assessment?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> All nonprofits are automatically suspicious<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. <\/b> Nonprofits cannot use financial institutions<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. <\/b> Certain activities, funding sources, or geographic connections may create elevated risk<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. <\/b> Nonprofits are exempt from customer due diligence<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3. Certain activities, funding sources, or geographic connections may create elevated risk<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Nonprofit organizations can have legitimate charitable purposes, but certain characteristics may create AML or terrorist financing risks that require appropriate assessment. Relevant factors can include the organization’s funding sources, beneficiaries, geographic activities, cross-border transfers, governance structure, and relationships with higher-risk jurisdictions or counterparties. The risk assessment should be proportionate and should not assume that every nonprofit organization presents elevated risk. Institutions should understand the organization’s purpose and activities and apply appropriate customer due diligence. Where specific risk factors are identified, additional information or enhanced controls may be appropriate under the institution’s risk-based framework.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 180. What is a key benefit of maintaining a clear AML audit trail?<\/b><\/h3>\n
                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> It eliminates the need for investigations<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. <\/b> It allows institutions to demonstrate how compliance decisions were made<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. <\/b> It guarantees that every alert is correct<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. <\/b> It prevents all future financial crime<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 2. It allows institutions to demonstrate how compliance decisions were made<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          A clear AML audit trail provides evidence of the information reviewed, actions taken, decisions made, and controls applied during the compliance process. It can include customer due diligence records, screening results, alert reviews, investigation notes, approvals, escalation decisions, and documentation supporting case closure. A strong audit trail helps supervisors, auditors, independent reviewers, and regulators understand how the institution managed identified risks. It also promotes consistency and accountability within the AML function. An audit trail does not guarantee that every decision is correct, but it demonstrates that decisions were supported by documented processes and relevant evidence.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full ACAMS CAMS Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 161. Which activity is a common indicator of potential money laundering? Routine payroll payments Transactions consistent with the customer’s profile Unexplained movement of funds through multiple accounts Regular utility payments Correct Answer: 3. Unexplained movement of funds through multiple accounts Explanation: Unexplained movement […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/16252"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=16252"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/16252\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":16282,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/16252\/revisions\/16282"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=16252"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=16252"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=16252"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}