{"id":17437,"date":"2026-09-21T09:32:45","date_gmt":"2026-09-21T09:32:45","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=17437"},"modified":"2026-09-21T09:32:45","modified_gmt":"2026-09-21T09:32:45","slug":"comptia-server-sk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part2-q21-40","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-server-sk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part2-q21-40\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part2 Q21-40"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 21<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which RAID level stripes data and parity across multiple drives while tolerating a single disk failure?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. RAID 5<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. RAID 0<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. RAID 1E<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. RAID 50<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity. The parity information is spread across the member drives rather than being stored on one dedicated disk. This arrangement allows the array to continue operating when one drive fails because the missing data can be reconstructed from the remaining data and parity information. RAID 0 provides striping without redundancy, while RAID 1E uses a mirrored approach with additional characteristics. RAID 50 combines multiple RAID 5 groups through another striping layer. RAID 5 can provide a balance between usable capacity and redundancy, although rebuild performance and failure exposure should be carefully considered.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 22<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which RAID configuration combines disk mirroring with disk striping to provide redundancy and strong read performance?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. RAID 2<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. RAID 10<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. RAID 4<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. RAID 6E<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      RAID 10 combines RAID 1 mirroring with RAID 0 striping. Data is mirrored for redundancy and then distributed across mirrored sets, providing both fault tolerance and good performance. RAID 10 generally requires at least four drives and can continue operating after certain drive failures, depending on which members fail. RAID 2 uses bit-level striping with dedicated error-correction mechanisms and is rarely encountered in modern server deployments. RAID 4 uses a dedicated parity disk, while RAID 6E is associated with vendor-specific or extended implementations rather than the standard mirrored-and-striped design described here. RAID 10 is commonly considered for workloads requiring both performance and redundancy.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 23<\/b><\/h3>\n

      A server uses two network adapters for redundancy, but both adapters must appear as one logical interface to the operating system. What technology provides this arrangement?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Port mirroring<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Link aggregation<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. NIC teaming<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Traffic shaping<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        NIC teaming combines multiple physical network interfaces into a logical network connection presented to the operating system. Depending on the teaming mode, it can provide redundancy, load distribution, or both. If one physical adapter fails, traffic may continue through another member of the team when the configuration supports failover. Port mirroring instead copies network traffic to another interface, usually for monitoring or analysis. Link aggregation combines network links for increased bandwidth or redundancy, but the specific requirement here focuses on multiple server NICs operating as one logical interface. Traffic shaping controls bandwidth usage rather than combining physical adapters.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 24<\/b><\/h3>\n

        Which network service automatically assigns IP configuration information to clients joining a TCP\/IP network?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. ARP<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. DHCP<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. ICMP<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. RDP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) automatically provides clients with network configuration information such as IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses. This reduces the administrative effort associated with manually configuring every system. ARP maps IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses on local networks, while ICMP is used for network control and diagnostic messaging. RDP provides remote graphical access to supported systems. DHCP servers can use scopes, reservations, exclusions, and lease durations to control address allocation. In a server environment, proper DHCP planning helps prevent duplicate addresses and ensures that systems receive appropriate network configuration.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 25<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which DNS record identifies the IPv4 address associated with a host name?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. MX record<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. PTR record<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. AAAA record<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. A record<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            An A record maps a host name to an IPv4 address. For example, a server name can resolve to an IPv4 address through its corresponding A record. An AAAA record performs a similar function for IPv6 addresses. An MX record identifies mail-exchange servers responsible for receiving email for a domain. A PTR record is commonly used for reverse DNS, mapping an address back to a host name. Understanding DNS record types is important when troubleshooting name resolution, application connectivity, web services, and email infrastructure. Incorrect or stale records can cause clients to connect to the wrong server or fail to locate a service.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 26<\/b><\/h3>\n

            Which IPv6 address type is designed for communication with the nearest member of a group of eligible interfaces?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Anycast address<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Broadcast address<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Loopback address<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Unicast address<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              An IPv6 anycast address identifies multiple interfaces, with traffic directed to the nearest interface according to the routing topology. This can be useful for distributed services where clients should reach an available instance without necessarily knowing its exact physical location. IPv6 does not use traditional broadcast addressing in the same way as IPv4; multicast is used for many one-to-many communication functions. A loopback address refers to the local system itself, while a unicast address identifies a single interface. Anycast can therefore support distributed service architectures and improve availability or response characteristics through appropriate network design.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 27<\/b><\/h3>\n

              A server needs a secure method for administrators to access its command-line interface remotely. Which protocol is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. Telnet<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. SSH<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. TFTP<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. HTTP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                Secure Shell (SSH) provides encrypted remote command-line access and is widely used for server administration. It protects authentication information and interactive session data against interception when properly configured. Telnet also provides remote command-line access but transmits information without the same level of encryption and is therefore unsuitable for secure administrative access in most environments. TFTP is a lightweight file-transfer protocol commonly used for network device boot or configuration operations. HTTP is an application protocol primarily used for web communication. Administrators should secure SSH through appropriate authentication methods, access controls, logging, and configuration policies.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 28<\/b><\/h3>\n

                Which protocol is commonly used to transfer files between systems while supporting encryption through TLS?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. FTP<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. TFTP<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. SFTP<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. FTPS<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  FTPS is FTP secured through TLS encryption. It protects authentication credentials and file-transfer traffic while retaining the FTP protocol framework. SFTP is also secure, but it operates through the SSH protocol rather than extending FTP with TLS. Traditional FTP sends credentials and data without the same encryption protection, while TFTP is a lightweight protocol with very limited functionality and no built-in authentication or encryption. When selecting a file-transfer mechanism, administrators should distinguish between FTPS and SFTP because they use different underlying technologies and may have different firewall, port, authentication, and management requirements.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 29<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  Which server virtualization component provides the abstraction layer that allows multiple virtual machines to share physical hardware?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Hypervisor<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. Container engine<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Backup agent<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. Directory controller<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    A hypervisor manages access to physical server resources and allows multiple virtual machines to run on the same physical host. It allocates resources such as CPU, memory, storage, and network connectivity to virtual machines while maintaining separation between their environments. Hypervisors may be classified as Type 1 or Type 2 depending on where the virtualization layer operates. A container engine manages containers rather than full virtual machines. Backup agents protect data or system states, while directory controllers manage identity-related services. Understanding hypervisor functions is fundamental when planning server consolidation, resource allocation, virtual machine deployment, and high-availability strategies.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 30<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which virtualization approach runs the hypervisor directly on the physical server hardware?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Hosted virtualization<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Application sandboxing<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Bare-metal virtualization<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Process isolation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Bare-metal virtualization uses a Type 1 hypervisor that operates directly on the physical server hardware. Virtual machines run above this virtualization layer, allowing the hypervisor to manage processor, memory, storage, and network resources. This architecture is widely used in enterprise data centers because it avoids requiring a conventional host operating system beneath the hypervisor. Hosted virtualization, commonly associated with Type 2 hypervisors, places the virtualization software on top of an operating system. Application sandboxing and process isolation address software separation rather than providing a complete server virtualization architecture. Bare-metal designs are often selected for production workloads requiring efficient resource management.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 31<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      A virtual machine requires additional memory, but the host has limited physical RAM available. Which virtualization feature can temporarily extend available memory by using storage?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Memory ballooning<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. CPU pinning<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Virtual switching<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Disk deduplication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Memory ballooning allows a virtualization platform to reclaim memory from one virtual machine and make it available to another when needed. A balloon driver inside the guest operating system can cooperate with the hypervisor to adjust memory allocation dynamically. Depending on the virtualization platform and configuration, other techniques such as memory compression or swapping may also be available when physical memory is constrained. CPU pinning associates virtual processors with particular physical CPUs, while virtual switching manages network connectivity. Disk deduplication reduces redundant storage data. Memory management features should be monitored carefully because excessive memory pressure can reduce virtual machine performance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 32<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which virtual networking component allows virtual machines to communicate with external physical networks?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Virtual switch<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Snapshot manager<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Virtual CPU<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Memory balloon<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          A virtual switch provides network connectivity between virtual machines and, when configured with an appropriate physical uplink, external networks. It operates within the virtualization environment and can provide logical ports, VLAN-related connectivity, traffic controls, and communication paths between virtual and physical interfaces. A snapshot manager handles point-in-time virtual machine states rather than network traffic. A virtual CPU represents processor resources assigned to a virtual machine, while a memory balloon participates in memory management. Proper virtual-switch configuration is essential because incorrect port groups, VLAN settings, uplinks, or security policies can prevent virtual machines from communicating correctly.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 33<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          Which cloud service model provides virtual machines, storage, and networking resources while leaving the operating system under customer control?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. SaaS<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. IaaS<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. PaaS<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. DaaS<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides foundational computing resources such as virtual machines, storage, and networking. The customer generally manages the guest operating system, installed applications, configuration, and data, while the cloud provider manages the underlying physical infrastructure and virtualization platform. Platform as a Service (PaaS) provides a higher-level application platform, reducing the customer’s responsibility for operating-system management. Software as a Service (SaaS) delivers complete applications, while Desktop as a Service (DaaS) focuses on hosted desktop environments. Understanding these service models helps administrators determine which operational responsibilities remain with the organization and which are handled by the provider.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 34<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which cloud deployment model is dedicated primarily to one organization and can provide greater control over infrastructure?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Public cloud<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Hybrid cloud<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Private cloud<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Community cloud<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              A private cloud is designed for use by a single organization and can provide greater control over infrastructure, configuration, security policies, and resource placement. It may be hosted within an organization’s own facilities or provided through a dedicated external arrangement. A public cloud provides shared provider infrastructure to multiple customers, while a hybrid cloud combines private and public environments. A community cloud is designed for organizations with shared requirements or common interests. The choice among these models depends on factors such as regulatory requirements, cost, scalability, operational capability, workload characteristics, and desired control over infrastructure.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 35<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              Which storage protocol allows servers to access block-level storage resources across an IP network?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. SMB<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. NFS<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. iSCSI<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. CIFS<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) transports SCSI commands over IP networks and allows servers to access remote block-level storage. From the server’s perspective, the remote storage can appear as a block device that can be formatted and managed according to the operating system’s storage requirements. SMB and CIFS are primarily file-sharing protocols, while NFS provides network file-system access. iSCSI is useful when organizations need centralized storage that can be accessed over standard Ethernet infrastructure. Administrators should consider network performance, authentication, multipathing, VLAN design, and storage redundancy when deploying iSCSI-based environments.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 36<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                Which file-sharing protocol is commonly associated with Linux and Unix systems for accessing remote directories?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. NFS<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. SMB<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. AFP<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. WebDAV<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Network File System (NFS) is commonly used in Linux and Unix environments to provide access to directories located on remote systems. An NFS server exports directories, while clients mount those resources so applications can access files across the network. SMB is widely associated with Windows file and printer sharing, although modern systems can support multiple protocols. AFP is an older Apple-oriented file-sharing protocol, while WebDAV extends HTTP for remote Web-based file authoring and management. Administrators using NFS should consider export permissions, identity mapping, network restrictions, version compatibility, and encryption or secure transport requirements.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 37<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  Which Windows-based file-sharing protocol supports access to shared folders and network printers?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. NFS<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. SMB<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. iSCSI<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. SCP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Server Message Block (SMB) is widely used by Windows systems for file and printer sharing across networks. It supports shared folders, network resources, authentication, permissions, and other services associated with Windows-based environments. NFS is commonly associated with Unix and Linux file sharing, while iSCSI provides block-level storage access rather than file-level sharing. SCP securely copies files using SSH-based mechanisms but does not function as a general network file-sharing protocol. When deploying SMB shares, administrators should configure appropriate permissions, authentication controls, network exposure, and auditing to reduce unauthorized access to shared resources.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 38<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    A server’s operating system becomes corrupted, but the administrator has a recent bare-metal backup. What recovery capability does this backup provide?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. File browsing only<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Hardware inventory<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Full system restoration<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. DNS cache rebuilding<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      A bare-metal backup is designed to support restoration of an entire system, including the operating system and other required system components, rather than only individual files. This can be valuable when a server’s operating system becomes unusable because the administrator may restore the system to a functional state without manually rebuilding every component. The exact restoration process depends on the backup product, hardware compatibility, boot environment, and available recovery media. File browsing is associated with accessing individual backed-up files, while hardware inventory and DNS cache rebuilding are unrelated to the primary purpose of a bare-metal recovery process.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 39<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      Which backup location provides protection if a disaster destroys both the production server and nearby backup equipment?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Local disk<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Internal tape bay<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Same-rack appliance<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Off-site repository<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        An off-site repository stores backup data at a location separated from the primary server environment. This provides protection against disasters that could affect both production systems and locally stored backups, such as fire, flooding, major electrical incidents, or physical destruction of the facility. Local disks, internal tape devices, and same-rack appliances can provide fast recovery but may be exposed to the same physical event as the production server. A robust backup strategy commonly considers multiple copies, different storage media or locations, security controls, retention requirements, and recovery objectives. Off-site storage is therefore an important component of disaster-resilient backup planning.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 40<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        Which recovery objective defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. RTO<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. SLA<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. RPO<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. MTBF<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Recovery Point Objective (RPO) defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss expressed as a period of time. For example, an organization with an RPO of 15 minutes expects that, after a disruptive event, the recoverable data should generally be no more than approximately 15 minutes behind the point of failure. Recovery Time Objective (RTO) instead defines how quickly a service or system should be restored. An SLA describes agreed service commitments, while MTBF represents mean time between failures. RPO is therefore closely connected to backup frequency, replication intervals, and the amount of recent data the organization can afford to lose.<\/span><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 21 Which RAID level stripes data and parity across multiple drives while tolerating a single disk failure? RAID 5 RAID 0 RAID 1E RAID 50 Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity. The parity information is spread […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/17437"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=17437"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/17437\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":17438,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/17437\/revisions\/17438"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=17437"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=17437"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=17437"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}