{"id":17447,"date":"2026-09-21T09:35:57","date_gmt":"2026-09-21T09:35:57","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=17447"},"modified":"2026-09-21T09:35:57","modified_gmt":"2026-09-21T09:35:57","slug":"comptia-server-sk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part7-q121-140","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-server-sk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part7-q121-140\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part7 Q121-140"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 121.<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which server component stores cryptographic keys used for hardware-based security?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. Trusted Platform Module<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Remote console adapter<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. Firmware recovery chip<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Memory parity controller<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    A Trusted Platform Module, commonly called a TPM, is a dedicated security component designed to perform cryptographic operations and protect sensitive security information. It can store cryptographic keys and support platform integrity features. Operating systems and security applications may use the TPM for functions such as device encryption, secure authentication, and measured boot processes. A remote console adapter is intended for management access, a firmware recovery chip helps restore firmware, and a memory parity controller deals with memory reliability. TPM functionality is particularly useful when administrators need hardware-assisted protection for sensitive cryptographic operations.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 122.<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which certificate request contains information used by a certificate authority to issue a digital certificate?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. Certificate fingerprint<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. Trust store index<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Certificate signing request<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Revocation response<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      A Certificate Signing Request, or CSR, is generated when an organization or system requests a digital certificate from a certificate authority. The request normally contains the subject information, the public key, and other certificate-related attributes. The corresponding private key remains under the control of the system generating the request. A certificate fingerprint is a digest used to identify a certificate, a trust store index organizes trusted certificates, and a revocation response provides certificate status information. Administrators should carefully verify the identity information included in a CSR before submitting it to a certificate authority.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 123.<\/b><\/h3>\n

      Which protocol checks whether a certificate has been revoked without downloading a complete revocation list?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Certificate Transfer Protocol<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Online Certificate Status Protocol<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Certificate Enrollment Protocol<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Secure Key Exchange Protocol<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        The Online Certificate Status Protocol, or OCSP, allows a client to query a certificate authority or responder about the current status of a certificate. Instead of requiring the client to retrieve an entire certificate revocation list, the client can request status information for a particular certificate. This can reduce the amount of certificate-status data that must be transferred. Certificate Transfer Protocol and Secure Key Exchange Protocol are not standard names for this function. Administrators should also consider availability and privacy implications when deploying certificate-status checking mechanisms.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 124.<\/b><\/h3>\n

        Which TLS element allows a client to verify the identity of a certificate issuer?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. Session ticket<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Cipher preference<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Connection timeout<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. Certificate chain<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          A certificate chain connects an end-entity certificate to one or more intermediate certificates and ultimately to a trusted root certificate authority. During TLS validation, the client examines this chain to determine whether the presented certificate can be trusted. A session ticket supports session resumption, cipher preferences influence cryptographic algorithm selection, and a connection timeout determines how long a connection attempt can remain active. If the chain is incomplete or the issuing authority is not trusted, certificate validation may fail even when the server certificate itself has not expired.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 125.<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which security principle limits a user account to only the permissions needed for assigned tasks?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Maximum privilege<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. Shared administrative access<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Minimum necessary access<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Permanent authorization<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            The minimum necessary access principle limits users and services to the permissions required for their legitimate responsibilities. This reduces the potential impact of compromised accounts, accidental changes, and unauthorized activity. Giving every account broad administrative rights increases the number of systems and resources that could be affected if credentials are misused. Shared administrative access can also reduce accountability because multiple people may use the same identity. Permanent authorization may leave unnecessary permissions active for long periods. Server administrators should periodically review privileges and remove access that is no longer required.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 126.<\/b><\/h3>\n

            Which firewall behavior tracks active connections before permitting related return traffic?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Stateless filtering<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Static packet forwarding<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Basic frame switching<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Stateful inspection<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              Stateful inspection maintains information about active network connections and uses that information when evaluating subsequent packets. For example, when a client establishes an outbound connection, the firewall can recognize legitimate response traffic associated with that session. Stateless filtering evaluates packets individually without maintaining the same connection state. Static packet forwarding simply directs traffic according to configured forwarding rules, while frame switching operates at the network switching layer. Stateful inspection can provide more context-aware filtering, but administrators must still configure appropriate rules and monitor logs for unexpected traffic patterns.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 127.<\/b><\/h3>\n

              Which network configuration separates multiple logical networks across the same physical switch?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. VLAN segmentation<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. Cable aggregation<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. Physical loop isolation<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. Broadcast amplification<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                VLAN segmentation allows multiple logical networks to operate through the same physical switching infrastructure. Devices assigned to different VLANs are separated into distinct broadcast domains even though they may connect to the same physical switches. VLANs are commonly used to separate server traffic, management traffic, storage communication, or other network categories. Cable aggregation combines links for redundancy or additional capacity, while broadcast amplification and physical loop isolation do not provide the standard logical network separation achieved through VLANs. Proper VLAN design also requires correct switch-port configuration and, where needed, routing between VLANs.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 128.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                Which Ethernet feature permits frames larger than the standard Ethernet payload size?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Packet fragments<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Extended headers<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. Jumbo frames<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Oversized broadcasts<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames that use a payload larger than the traditional Ethernet maximum transmission unit. They can reduce protocol overhead for workloads that transfer large amounts of data, such as certain storage or backup environments. However, every device along the communication path must support the selected frame size consistently. Packet fragments are smaller pieces created when packets are divided, extended headers add protocol information, and oversized broadcasts are not a standard method for increasing Ethernet frame capacity. Administrators should test jumbo-frame configurations carefully because mismatched MTU settings can cause connectivity problems.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 129.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  Which DNS record maps an alias name to another canonical hostname?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. CNAME record<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. SRV record<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. TXT record<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. NS record<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    A CNAME, or Canonical Name, record creates an alias from one DNS hostname to another canonical hostname. This allows multiple names to reference the same underlying hostname without maintaining separate address records for each alias. SRV records identify services and their associated hosts and ports, TXT records store text-based information, and NS records identify authoritative name servers for a DNS zone. Administrators should understand how CNAME records interact with other DNS records and avoid creating configurations that introduce unnecessary lookup chains or conflicts.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 130.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which DNS record identifies the server responsible for a specific network service?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. PTR record<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. SRV record<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. CAA record<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. SOA record<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      An SRV record identifies the hostname and port associated with a particular network service. Applications can use SRV information to locate services without relying only on a fixed hostname and port combination. PTR records are primarily used for reverse name resolution, CAA records specify which certificate authorities may issue certificates for a domain, and SOA records contain authoritative zone information. SRV records are commonly useful in environments where applications or directory-related services need a standardized mechanism for discovering service endpoints.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 131.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      Which server cluster mechanism determines whether enough nodes remain available to continue operating?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Replication delay<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Session persistence<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Quorum<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Cache synchronization<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Quorum is a cluster mechanism used to determine whether enough participating nodes or voting resources remain available for the cluster to continue operating safely. It helps prevent split-brain situations in which different groups of nodes independently believe they should control the same resources. Replication delay describes how quickly information reaches another system, session persistence keeps a client associated with a particular service node, and cache synchronization keeps cached information consistent. Proper quorum configuration depends on the cluster architecture and should account for node failures and possible network partitions.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 132.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which high-availability design keeps one server ready to take over when another fails?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Parallel workload configuration<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Independent service configuration<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Distributed cache configuration<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Active-passive configuration<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          An active-passive configuration uses one active server to provide a service while another server remains ready to assume responsibility if the active system fails. The standby system may receive limited health information or replicated data while waiting for a failover event. This approach can improve service availability because a replacement system is already prepared. Parallel workload configurations may involve multiple active servers, while independent service and distributed cache configurations describe other architectural arrangements. Administrators must verify failover procedures, application dependencies, storage access, and network addressing to ensure the standby system can actually provide the required service.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 133.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          Which monitoring value represents the amount of time a virtual CPU waits for physical CPU resources?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. CPU steal time<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Disk response time<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Memory residency<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Network queue depth<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            CPU steal time represents processor time that a virtual machine is ready to run but cannot immediately obtain because the underlying physical processor is being used elsewhere. High values can indicate contention for CPU resources on the virtualization host. Disk response time measures storage responsiveness, memory residency concerns how data remains in memory, and network queue depth reflects pending network activity. Monitoring CPU steal time can help administrators identify overloaded virtualization hosts or poorly balanced workloads. Resource allocation should be reviewed when virtual machines consistently experience significant processor contention.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 134.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which storage metric measures the number of input\/output operations completed each second?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Storage capacity<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Transfer distance<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Sector density<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. IOPS<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              IOPS stands for input\/output operations per second and measures how many storage operations a system can process within a given second. It is an important performance metric for workloads that perform many small reads and writes, such as databases or virtualization environments. Storage capacity describes how much data can be stored, transfer distance is not a standard storage performance measurement, and sector density describes how information is arranged on storage media. IOPS should be evaluated alongside throughput, response time, queue depth, and workload characteristics because a high IOPS value alone does not describe every aspect of storage performance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 135.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              Which caching method confirms that data is written to persistent storage before reporting completion?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. Delayed write caching<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Write-through caching<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. Read-ahead caching<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Predictive cache loading<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Write-through caching sends modified data to persistent storage before the write operation is reported as completed. This approach can provide stronger data consistency because the system does not rely solely on volatile cache contents for confirmed writes. Delayed write caching may acknowledge writes before they reach persistent storage, while read-ahead caching attempts to predict future reads rather than handling write confirmation. Predictive cache loading is not the standard term for this behavior. Administrators should select cache policies according to application performance requirements, hardware protection mechanisms, and acceptable data-loss risk.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 136.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                Which SAN security feature restricts a server’s access to specific storage logical units?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. LUN masking<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Fabric broadcasting<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Path advertisement<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Port discovery<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  LUN masking restricts which logical units, or LUNs, are visible to a particular server or initiator. This prevents a host from seeing storage resources that it is not authorized or configured to use. In SAN environments, LUN masking is often combined with other access-control mechanisms to provide controlled storage presentation. Fabric broadcasting and port discovery do not provide equivalent logical-unit authorization, while path advertisement concerns how storage connectivity information is presented. Incorrect masking can cause applications to lose access to required storage or expose storage to unintended hosts.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 137.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  Which backup strategy keeps copies that cannot be modified during their protected retention period?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Temporary backup<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Rolling backup<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Immutable backup<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Working backup<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    An immutable backup is protected against modification or deletion during its defined retention period. This characteristic can help defend backup data against accidental changes, unauthorized deletion, and certain ransomware scenarios. Temporary backups are generally created for short-term purposes, while rolling and working backups describe operational approaches rather than guaranteed immutability. Administrators should configure retention periods carefully and verify that backup copies can actually be restored. Immutability is most effective when combined with appropriate access controls, monitoring, backup verification, and multiple recovery locations.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 138.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    Which maintenance document provides step-by-step instructions for handling a recurring server task?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Runbook<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Asset ledger<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Procurement record<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. License register<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      A runbook contains documented procedures for performing specific operational tasks. Server administrators can use runbooks for activities such as restarting services, responding to common alerts, replacing hardware, or carrying out standardized maintenance procedures. Asset ledgers track equipment and ownership information, procurement records document purchasing activities, and license registers track software licensing details. A well-maintained runbook helps technicians perform recurring tasks consistently and reduces dependence on individual memory. It should be reviewed whenever system architecture, commands, security requirements, or operational procedures change.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 139.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      Which maintenance practice schedules disruptive server work during an approved period?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Incident freeze<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Maintenance window<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Resource pause<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Deployment blackout<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        A maintenance window is an approved period during which administrators can perform planned work that may affect system availability. Organizations commonly schedule firmware upgrades, hardware replacements, operating-system maintenance, or other disruptive activities within these windows. The goal is to reduce unexpected business impact by coordinating the timing of planned changes. An incident freeze may restrict changes during sensitive periods, while resource pause and deployment blackout are not equivalent general terms. Administrators should communicate the maintenance window, confirm backups and rollback procedures, and verify system health after the work is completed.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 140.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        Which planning activity estimates future server resources based on expected workload growth?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Incident classification<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Asset reconciliation<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Configuration auditing<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Capacity planning<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Capacity planning evaluates current resource consumption and estimates future requirements based on expected workload growth. Administrators may examine processor usage, memory consumption, storage growth, network utilization, and application demand to determine when additional resources will be needed. Incident classification categorizes service problems, asset reconciliation compares equipment records with actual inventory, and configuration auditing checks system settings against expected standards. Effective capacity planning helps organizations avoid both resource shortages and unnecessary overprovisioning. It should be based on measured trends and realistic growth expectations rather than relying solely on short-term usage spikes.<\/span><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 121. Which server component stores cryptographic keys used for hardware-based security? Trusted Platform Module Remote console adapter Firmware recovery chip Memory parity controller Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: A Trusted Platform Module, commonly called a TPM, is a dedicated security component designed to […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/17447"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=17447"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/17447\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":17448,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/17447\/revisions\/17448"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=17447"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=17447"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=17447"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}