{"id":17462,"date":"2026-09-21T09:38:50","date_gmt":"2026-09-21T09:38:50","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=17462"},"modified":"2026-09-21T09:38:50","modified_gmt":"2026-09-21T09:38:50","slug":"comptia-server-sk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part14-q261-280","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-server-sk0-005-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part14-q261-280\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part14 Q261-280"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 261.<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which server component provides temporary electrical energy during a brief power interruption?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. Battery-backed power unit<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Network interface adapter<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. Storage controller<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Memory expansion module<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    A battery-backed power unit can provide temporary electrical energy when the primary utility supply is interrupted. This allows a server to continue operating long enough for power to be restored or for an orderly shutdown to occur. In larger environments, an uninterruptible power system may support multiple servers and networking devices. Administrators should monitor battery health because degraded batteries may not provide the expected runtime during an outage. Runtime requirements depend on the connected load and battery capacity. Power protection should also account for voltage fluctuations, transfer behavior, and the availability of backup generators when designing resilient server infrastructure.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 262.<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which server metric measures the number of operations completed during a given period?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. Response time<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. Queue length<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Throughput<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Error percentage<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      Throughput measures how much work a system completes during a specified period. Depending on the workload, it can represent requests per second, transactions per minute, megabytes transferred per second, or another appropriate unit. Throughput differs from latency because latency measures the time required to complete an individual operation, while throughput describes the overall rate of completed work. Administrators should evaluate both measurements when analyzing server performance. A system can maintain high throughput while individual requests experience significant delays, particularly when workloads are heavily concurrent. Performance baselines help administrators determine whether observed throughput represents normal or degraded operation.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 263.<\/b><\/h3>\n

      Which server feature allows a failed power supply to be replaced while the system remains powered?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Fixed power connection<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Hot-plug power supply<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Shared extension adapter<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Internal voltage converter<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        A hot-plug power supply can be removed and replaced while the server continues operating when the platform has redundant power capacity. Enterprise servers commonly use multiple power supplies connected to separate power sources or distribution paths. If one unit fails, the remaining supply can maintain operation while the failed module is replaced. Administrators should verify that the replacement unit matches the server’s supported specifications and that sufficient redundancy remains during maintenance. Power supplies should be handled carefully because incorrect installation can cause loss of redundancy or unexpected shutdowns. Monitoring systems can also provide alerts when a power module fails.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 264.<\/b><\/h3>\n

        Which configuration allows two network links to operate as one logical connection?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. Port blocking<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Address translation<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Link aggregation<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. DNS delegation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          Link aggregation combines multiple physical network connections into a logical interface. Depending on the technology and configuration, aggregation can increase available bandwidth and provide redundancy if one physical link fails. Both the server-side configuration and the connected switching infrastructure must support compatible aggregation behavior. Administrators should verify hashing methods, interface speeds, switch configuration, and supported protocols before deploying the configuration. Link aggregation does not necessarily make a single network session twice as fast because traffic distribution depends on the aggregation method. Its benefits are generally realized across multiple flows or through improved availability.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 265.<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which storage method keeps identical copies of data on separate storage devices?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Mirrored storage<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. Sequential storage<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Compressed storage<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Archived storage<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            Mirrored storage maintains duplicate copies of data across separate storage devices. When one participating device fails, the remaining copy can continue providing access to the stored information, depending on the implementation. Mirroring improves availability but generally requires additional storage capacity because duplicate data is maintained. Administrators should distinguish redundancy from backup: a mirror can replicate accidental deletion or corruption immediately, whereas an independent backup may preserve an earlier recoverable version. Monitoring the health of mirrored devices is important because operating with reduced redundancy increases exposure to another failure. Replacement and rebuild procedures should be tested and documented.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 266.<\/b><\/h3>\n

            What does a storage controller cache primarily improve?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Network name resolution<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Storage I\/O handling<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. User authentication<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Processor instruction decoding<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              Storage controller cache temporarily holds data or metadata involved in storage operations so the controller can manage I\/O more efficiently. Depending on the controller design, caching can reduce perceived write latency, organize pending operations, or improve access efficiency. Write caching requires careful consideration because data acknowledged before reaching persistent storage could be lost if power fails. Enterprise controllers may therefore use protected cache mechanisms to preserve pending information during interruptions. Administrators should monitor controller health, cache status, battery or capacitor condition, and firmware compatibility. Cache settings should be selected according to workload requirements and the organization’s availability expectations.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 267.<\/b><\/h3>\n

              Which protocol is commonly used to transfer files securely through an encrypted SSH session?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. SCP<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. HTTP<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. TFTP<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. Telnet<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                Secure Copy Protocol, or SCP, transfers files between systems using an SSH-based secure communication channel. Because the underlying SSH connection provides encryption and authentication, SCP is commonly used for securely moving administrative files between servers. Administrators may use it to transfer configuration files, scripts, logs, or other operational data. Access still depends on valid credentials or keys and appropriate filesystem permissions. SCP should not be confused with ordinary file-transfer methods that transmit information without equivalent protection. When transferring sensitive material, administrators should verify the destination host, authentication method, permissions, and organizational security requirements.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 268.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                Which DNS value determines how long a resolver may cache a record?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Zone serial<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Record priority<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. Query identifier<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Time to live<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Time to live, or TTL, specifies how long a DNS resolver may cache a DNS record before querying for updated information. A shorter TTL can allow changes to propagate through caching resolvers more quickly, while a longer TTL can reduce DNS query traffic and improve caching efficiency. Administrators should select TTL values based on how frequently records are expected to change and how quickly updates need to become visible. Changing a DNS record does not instantly remove previously cached information because resolvers may continue using the old value until its TTL expires. Planning DNS changes therefore requires consideration of caching behavior.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 269.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  Which Linux command displays the current user’s effective identity and group information?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. id<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. sort<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. head<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. cut<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    The Linux <\/span>id<\/span> command displays identity information associated with the current user or another specified account. Output can include the numeric user identifier, primary group identifier, and supplementary group memberships. This information is useful when troubleshooting permission problems because filesystem access can depend on both the effective user and group memberships. Administrators can use the command to verify whether an account belongs to a required administrative or application group. The displayed identifiers also help distinguish accounts that may have similar names. Identity verification should be performed before changing permissions because the underlying account or group context may already explain the observed behavior.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 270.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which Windows feature can automatically execute a program at a specified time or event?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Event Viewer<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Disk Management<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Task Scheduler<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Device Manager<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Task Scheduler allows Windows administrators to configure programs, scripts, or commands to run according to defined triggers. Triggers can include specific times, system startup, user logon, or particular system events. Scheduled tasks are commonly used for maintenance, backups, cleanup operations, monitoring activities, and administrative automation. Administrators should review the account under which a task executes because a scheduled process may require specific privileges. Failed tasks can often be investigated through task history and related event information. Unnecessary scheduled tasks should also be removed or disabled because unexpected automated activity can complicate troubleshooting or create security concerns.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 271.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      Which IPv4 mechanism allows multiple private hosts to share one public address?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. PAT<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. DNS<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. ARP<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. ICMP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Port Address Translation, or PAT, allows multiple private hosts to share a public IPv4 address by distinguishing connections through transport-layer port information. A translation device maintains mappings between internal addresses and ports and the corresponding public-side connections. PAT is widely used when organizations have many private systems but a limited number of public IPv4 addresses. It should not be confused with DNS, which resolves names to addresses, or ARP, which resolves local IPv4 addresses to link-layer addresses. Administrators troubleshooting PAT-related connectivity should examine translation tables, port usage, firewall policies, and the routing path.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 272.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which security practice separates administrative duties among different personnel?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Password reuse<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Shared root access<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Separation of duties<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Universal permissions<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Separation of duties divides sensitive responsibilities among multiple people or roles so that one individual does not have unchecked control over an important process. For example, one administrator might request a privileged change while another authorized person reviews or approves it. This approach can reduce the risk associated with unauthorized actions, mistakes, or misuse of administrative privileges. Separation of duties should be implemented according to organizational requirements and operational practicality. It is different from simply limiting permissions because the control focuses on dividing responsibilities rather than only restricting technical access. Proper documentation helps demonstrate which roles are responsible for each activity.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 273.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          What does a SAN zoning configuration primarily control?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. Communication between selected storage fabric endpoints<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Compression of database files<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Scheduling of processor workloads<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Rotation of operating-system logs<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            SAN zoning controls which Fibre Channel endpoints can communicate with one another within a storage fabric. Administrators use zoning to establish logical communication boundaries between servers, storage systems, and fabric resources. Proper zoning can reduce unnecessary visibility and help enforce an organized storage-access design. Zoning is distinct from LUN-level access controls because it operates at the fabric communication layer. When configuring a SAN, administrators should carefully document initiators, targets, aliases, and zone memberships. Incorrect zoning can prevent servers from discovering required storage or, conversely, expose storage resources to systems that should not communicate with them.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 274.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which IPv6 method allows hosts to configure addresses using router advertisements?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. DHCPv4<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. SLAAC<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. PAT<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. ARP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Stateless Address Autoconfiguration, or SLAAC, allows IPv6 hosts to configure addresses using information provided through router advertisements. A host can use the advertised network prefix and its interface-related information to form an IPv6 address without requiring a traditional DHCPv4-style address allocation process. Router advertisements can also provide other network configuration information depending on the environment. Administrators should verify that IPv6 routing, router advertisement behavior, and security controls are configured correctly. SLAAC is an IPv6 mechanism and should not be confused with ARP, which belongs to IPv4 networking. IPv6 networks may also use DHCPv6 when additional configuration is required.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 275.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              Which monitoring method actively requests information from a network device at regular intervals?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. SNMP polling<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Event logging<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. Packet capture<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Syslog forwarding<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                SNMP polling involves a monitoring system periodically requesting information from a network device or server through the Simple Network Management Protocol. The monitored system can provide values such as interface statistics, hardware status, resource information, or other supported metrics. Polling allows monitoring platforms to build historical performance data and detect changes over time. Polling frequency should be selected carefully because excessively frequent queries can create unnecessary management traffic. Administrators may combine polling with event-driven mechanisms such as traps or alerts to detect important conditions more quickly. Secure SNMP versions and appropriate access controls should be used where supported.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 276.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                What is the primary purpose of a heartbeat in a clustered server environment?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. Checking whether a cluster member remains responsive<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Encrypting inter-server traffic<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Expanding available disk capacity<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Assigning application permissions<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  A heartbeat is a recurring communication mechanism used by cluster members to determine whether other participating nodes remain responsive. If a node stops responding within the configured detection period, the cluster may treat it as unavailable and initiate an appropriate recovery or failover action. Heartbeat design must account for network reliability because a communication failure can sometimes resemble a server failure. Administrators should therefore consider redundant communication paths and appropriate timeout settings. Incorrect heartbeat configuration can produce false failure detections or delay recovery. Cluster documentation should clearly identify the communication channels and procedures used during node failures.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 277.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  Which database availability design keeps two servers processing requests simultaneously?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Active-active configuration<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Cold recovery model<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Manual standby arrangement<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Offline replica model<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    An active-active configuration allows multiple systems to operate as active service providers at the same time. Requests can be distributed among the participating systems, potentially improving resource utilization and service availability. The exact implementation depends on the application and database technology because data consistency and transaction coordination can become important considerations. Administrators should understand how sessions, replication, writes, and failure handling behave before deploying an active-active architecture. The design differs from active-passive arrangements, where one system normally handles the workload while another remains ready to take over. Testing failover and recovery behavior is essential in either model.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 278.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    Which container feature limits the resources available to an individual workload?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Image tagging<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Resource quotas<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Registry mirroring<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Container naming<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Resource quotas can limit how much of a host’s available resources a containerized workload is permitted to consume. Depending on the container platform, administrators may control CPU, memory, storage, or other resource categories. These limits help prevent one workload from consuming excessive resources and negatively affecting neighboring workloads. Resource controls are particularly useful on shared application servers where multiple containers operate concurrently. Administrators should select limits based on observed application requirements and monitor workloads after deployment. Setting limits too low can cause application failures or throttling, while unrestricted workloads can create contention that affects the overall host.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 279.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      Which storage protection method keeps a backup copy disconnected from normal network access?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Air-gapped backup<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Continuous mirroring<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Online snapshot<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Active replication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        An air-gapped backup is maintained in a manner that prevents ordinary network access to the protected copy. Physical disconnection or carefully controlled isolation can reduce the ability of malware or compromised administrative credentials to reach the backup system. This approach can be valuable when protecting recovery data against destructive incidents. Administrators should still ensure that air-gapped media or systems are properly cataloged, protected from physical damage, and periodically tested for successful restoration. An air gap is a security property rather than a specific storage technology. Organizations may combine it with retention policies, multiple backup copies, and encryption.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 280.<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        Which document records the approved modifications made to a production server?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Change record<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Equipment invoice<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Warranty receipt<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Visitor register<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          A change record documents an approved modification to a production system and provides a historical record of what was changed, why it was changed, who performed the work, and when the activity occurred. Depending on the organization’s process, the record may also include testing, approval, implementation, and rollback information. Change documentation helps administrators troubleshoot later problems because they can correlate system behavior with recent modifications. It also supports accountability and configuration management. Emergency changes may follow a different approval path, but they should still be documented afterward. Accurate change records are an important part of maintaining controlled server operations.<\/span><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 261. Which server component provides temporary electrical energy during a brief power interruption? Battery-backed power unit Network interface adapter Storage controller Memory expansion module Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: A battery-backed power unit can provide temporary electrical energy when the primary utility supply […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/17462"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=17462"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/17462\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":17463,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/17462\/revisions\/17463"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=17462"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=17462"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=17462"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}