{"id":20264,"date":"2026-09-23T12:07:31","date_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:07:31","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=20264"},"modified":"2026-09-23T12:07:31","modified_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:07:31","slug":"pmi-capm-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-9-q161-180","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/pmi-capm-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-9-q161-180\/","title":{"rendered":"PMI CAPM Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 9 Q161-180"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>PMI CAPM Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 161. A project manager is determining how much detail is needed in the project management plan based on project complexity, organizational standards, and stakeholder needs. What practice is the project manager applying?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. <\/b> Variance analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. <\/b> Tailoring<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. <\/b> Benchmarking<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. <\/b> Decomposition<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 2. Tailoring<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b>
    \n<\/b>Tailoring means adapting project management practices, processes, and documentation to fit the specific needs and characteristics of a project. A project manager considers factors such as project size, complexity, development approach, organizational environment, stakeholder expectations, and regulatory requirements when deciding how much rigor or detail is appropriate. Tailoring does not mean ignoring established standards; instead, it ensures that the selected practices provide useful control without creating unnecessary work. For example, a small project may require fewer formal documents than a large, highly regulated initiative. Effective tailoring helps align project management practices with the project’s actual context.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 162. A project manager needs to identify the individuals responsible for performing work, approving decisions, and providing input for different project activities. Which tool would be most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. <\/b> Stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. <\/b> Risk register<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. <\/b> Requirements traceability matrix<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. <\/b> Responsibility assignment matrix<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 4. Responsibility assignment matrix<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b>
      \n<\/b>A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) connects project work or activities with the individuals or groups responsible for performing or overseeing that work. A RACI chart is a common type of RAM that identifies who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed. This tool helps eliminate ambiguity about roles and responsibilities and can reduce duplicated effort or missed work. The stakeholder register identifies stakeholders and relevant information about them, while the requirements traceability matrix links requirements to project deliverables and related elements. A risk register records identified risks, their characteristics, owners, and responses.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 163. A project team identifies an activity that must be completed before another activity can begin. The project manager wants to shorten the overall schedule by allowing the second activity to start before the first activity is completely finished. Which scheduling technique is being considered?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. <\/b> Rolling wave planning<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. <\/b> Fast tracking<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. <\/b> Crashing<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. <\/b> Resource leveling<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 2. Fast tracking<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b>
        \n<\/b>Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique in which activities that were originally planned sequentially are performed partially or fully in parallel when possible. For example, a team might begin a later design activity before all preceding analysis work is completely finished. Fast tracking can reduce schedule duration, but it generally increases risk because overlapping activities can create rework or coordination problems. Crashing, by contrast, typically involves adding resources or increasing expenditures to shorten activity durations. Resource leveling addresses resource constraints, while rolling wave planning involves planning near-term work in greater detail while leaving future work at a higher level.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 164. A project has a budget at completion of $500,000. The earned value is $220,000 and the actual cost is $250,000. What is the project’s cost variance?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. <\/b> $20,000 unfavorable<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. <\/b> $30,000 favorable<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. <\/b> $30,000 unfavorable<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. <\/b> $20,000 favorable<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 3. $30,000 unfavorable<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b>
          \n<\/b>Cost variance (CV) is calculated as Earned Value (EV) minus Actual Cost (AC). In this case, CV = $220,000 \u2212 $250,000 = \u2212$30,000. A negative cost variance indicates that the project has spent more money than the value of the work accomplished, so the variance is unfavorable. A positive CV would indicate that the project is performing under budget relative to the value earned. The budget at completion is useful for other forecasting and performance calculations, but it is not needed to calculate cost variance directly in this scenario.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 165. A project manager discovers that a planned activity requires a specialized resource that is unavailable during the originally scheduled period. The project manager adjusts the schedule so the work is performed when the resource becomes available, without changing the project’s overall scope. What technique is being used?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. <\/b> Scope decomposition<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. <\/b> Resource leveling<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. <\/b> Fast tracking<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. <\/b> Crashing<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 2. Resource leveling<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b>
            \n<\/b>Resource leveling is a schedule technique used when resource availability or limitations affect the timing of project activities. The project manager may adjust activity start and finish dates to resolve overallocation or accommodate limited resources. Because the specialized resource is unavailable during the original period, the project manager moves the work to a period when the resource can perform it. Resource leveling can extend the project schedule if resource constraints cannot be resolved otherwise. Crashing adds resources or increases costs to shorten the schedule, while fast tracking overlaps activities that were originally planned sequentially.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 166. A project manager wants to determine whether the project is likely to finish within the approved budget based on current cost performance. Which measure should be reviewed?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. <\/b> Planned Value<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. <\/b> Schedule Performance Index<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. <\/b> Cost Performance Index<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. <\/b> Schedule Variance<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 3. Cost Performance Index<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b>
              \n<\/b>The Cost Performance Index (CPI) measures cost efficiency by comparing earned value with actual cost. It is calculated as CPI = EV \/ AC. A CPI greater than 1.0 indicates that the project is obtaining more earned value per unit of cost than planned, while a CPI below 1.0 indicates unfavorable cost efficiency. CPI can be used with other earned value information to support cost forecasting and assess whether current performance may affect the final budget. Schedule Variance and Schedule Performance Index focus on schedule performance, while Planned Value represents the authorized budgeted work scheduled to be completed by a specific point.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 167. During project planning, the team identifies that some future work cannot yet be planned in sufficient detail because the information needed is not available. What should the team do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. <\/b> Replace the scope baseline<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. <\/b> Plan all future work at the same level of detail immediately<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. <\/b> Remove the future work from the project<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. <\/b> Use rolling wave planning<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 4. Use rolling wave planning<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b>
                \n<\/b>Rolling wave planning is a form of progressive elaboration in which near-term work is planned in greater detail while future work is maintained at a higher level until more information becomes available. This approach is useful when uncertainty exists or when project details will become clearer as the project progresses. It does not mean that future work is ignored or removed. Instead, the team progressively develops the necessary details as the appropriate planning horizon approaches. Rolling wave planning can therefore support flexibility while maintaining an overall understanding of the project’s expected scope and activities.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 168. A project manager notices that team members are working on many tasks simultaneously, causing delays and frequent task switching. The project uses an adaptive approach. What action would best address the problem?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. <\/b> Delay stakeholder feedback<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. <\/b> Limit work in progress<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. <\/b> Increase the number of work items started<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. <\/b> Eliminate prioritization<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 2. Limit work in progress<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b>
                  \n<\/b>Limiting work in progress (WIP) helps an adaptive team reduce multitasking and improve flow. When too many items are started simultaneously, work can become fragmented, increasing context switching and reducing the team’s ability to finish valuable items. A WIP limit encourages the team to complete existing work before starting additional items. This supports smoother workflow and can make bottlenecks more visible. Increasing the number of simultaneous tasks would generally worsen the problem. Eliminating prioritization and delaying stakeholder feedback would also reduce the team’s ability to focus on delivering valuable outcomes efficiently.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 169. A project manager needs to determine whether additional testing activities are worth their cost because defects have been increasing. Which concept helps evaluate prevention, appraisal, and failure-related quality costs?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Scope baseline<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. <\/b> Cost of quality<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. <\/b> Resource smoothing<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. <\/b> Schedule compression<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 2. Cost of quality<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b>
                    \n<\/b>Cost of quality (COQ) considers the costs associated with preventing defects, evaluating whether products meet quality requirements, and dealing with failures. Prevention costs include activities designed to avoid defects, while appraisal costs include inspection and testing. Failure costs arise when products or services do not meet requirements and corrective action or rework is necessary. Evaluating these categories can help a project team understand the financial impact of quality decisions and determine where investments in prevention or appraisal may reduce more expensive failures later. COQ therefore supports informed quality planning and decision-making throughout the project.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 170. A project manager receives a proposed change that would add functionality but is not included in the approved scope baseline. The customer argues that the additional functionality is small and should simply be added. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. <\/b> Evaluate the requested change through the established change control process<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. <\/b> Remove another approved deliverable without approval<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. <\/b> Add the functionality immediately<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. <\/b> Ask the team to complete the work without recording it<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 1. Evaluate the requested change through the established change control process<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b>
                      \n<\/b>A requested addition that is outside the approved scope baseline should be evaluated through the project’s established change control process. Even a seemingly small change can affect schedule, cost, resources, quality, risks, or other requirements. The project manager should not automatically add the work or instruct the team to perform it informally. The appropriate process allows the impact of the proposed change to be assessed and ensures that the authorized decision-makers determine whether it should be approved, rejected, or modified. This helps prevent uncontrolled scope changes and maintains alignment with project governance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 171. A project team is selecting between two suppliers. One offers a lower initial price but higher expected maintenance costs, while the other has a higher purchase price and lower expected maintenance costs. What should the team consider when comparing the alternatives?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. <\/b> Only the supplier’s marketing reputation<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. <\/b> Only the initial purchase price<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. <\/b> Total cost over the relevant life or period<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. <\/b> Only the number of employees at each supplier<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 3. Total cost over the relevant life or period<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b>
                        \n<\/b>When comparing procurement alternatives, the project team should consider the total relevant cost rather than focusing only on the initial purchase price. This may include acquisition, operation, maintenance, support, training, transition, and other applicable costs over the expected period of use. Evaluating the broader cost picture provides a more complete basis for comparing alternatives. Procurement decisions can also consider quality, risk, schedule, technical capability, contractual terms, and other factors. A supplier with a lower initial price may not necessarily have the lower overall cost once ongoing expenses are considered.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 172. A project manager is closing a project and discovers that operational staff have not yet received the information needed to support the delivered product. What should the project manager prioritize?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. <\/b> Delete project documentation<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. <\/b> Complete the required transition and handoff activities<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. <\/b> Start a new unrelated project<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. <\/b> Increase the project scope without authorization<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 2. Complete the required transition and handoff activities<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b>
                          \n<\/b>A proper project closeout may require transitioning the completed product, service, or result to the appropriate operational or support organization. Handoff activities can include transferring documentation, training users or support personnel, communicating support procedures, and confirming that operational responsibilities have been established. Closing a project does not simply mean stopping project work; the project outcome must be appropriately transferred and accepted according to the project’s closure requirements. Ensuring a complete transition helps the organization sustain the delivered result after the project team is released.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 173. A project manager wants to compare the planned cost of work with the budgeted cost of work actually completed. Which earned value measure should be used?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. <\/b> Product backlog<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. <\/b> Risk trigger<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. <\/b> Cost baseline<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. <\/b> Schedule Variance<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 4. Schedule Variance<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b>
                            \n<\/b>Schedule Variance (SV) compares the earned value of completed work with the planned value of scheduled work. It is calculated as SV = EV \u2212 PV. A positive SV indicates that the project has earned more value than was planned by that point, while a negative SV indicates that less work has been accomplished than planned. Cost Variance compares earned value with actual cost instead. Estimate at Completion forecasts the expected total project cost, while Variance at Completion compares the approved budget with the forecasted final cost. These measures provide different types of project performance information.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 174. A project team identifies a positive uncertainty that could allow the project to complete earlier than planned if additional resources are made available. Which risk response strategy is being considered?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Exploit<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. <\/b> Mitigate<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. <\/b> Transfer<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. <\/b> Avoid<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 1. Exploit<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b>
                              \n<\/b>Exploit is a response strategy for a positive risk, or opportunity, that aims to ensure the opportunity occurs. The team may take direct action to increase the likelihood that the beneficial event happens. For example, assigning additional resources to an opportunity that could significantly shorten the schedule may be an exploitation strategy. Avoid and mitigate are generally associated with threats, while transfer shifts ownership or financial impact of a threat to another party. Other opportunity responses include enhance, share, and accept. The selected strategy should reflect the opportunity’s potential value and the organization’s willingness to act on it.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 175. A project manager wants to compare the planned cost of work with the budgeted cost of work actually completed. Which earned value measure should be used?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. <\/b> Estimate at Completion<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. <\/b> Schedule Variance<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. <\/b> Variance at Completion<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. <\/b> Cost Variance<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 2. Schedule Variance<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b>
                                \n<\/b>Schedule Variance (SV) compares the earned value of completed work with the planned value of scheduled work. It is calculated as SV = EV \u2212 PV. A positive SV indicates that the project has earned more value than was planned by that point, while a negative SV indicates that less work has been accomplished than planned. Cost Variance compares earned value with actual cost instead. Estimate at Completion forecasts the expected total project cost, while Variance at Completion compares the approved budget with the forecasted final cost. These measures provide different types of project performance information.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 176. A project manager estimates that the project will require $75,000 more to complete the remaining authorized work. Which earned value measure does this amount represent?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> Earned Value<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. <\/b> Estimate to Complete<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. <\/b> Budget at Completion<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. <\/b> Planned Value<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 2. Estimate to Complete<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b>
                                  \n<\/b>Estimate to Complete (ETC) represents the expected additional cost required to complete all remaining project work. If the project manager determines that $75,000 is needed to finish the remaining authorized work, that amount represents the ETC. It can be calculated using different forecasting approaches depending on assumptions about future performance. Budget at Completion is the total approved budget for the project. Planned Value is the authorized budget for scheduled work at a specific point in time, while Earned Value represents the budgeted value of work actually completed. ETC therefore focuses specifically on the remaining work.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 177. A project team discovers that a deliverable meets all documented acceptance criteria but the customer refuses to accept it because an additional requirement was discussed informally but never approved. What should the project manager review first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> The supplier’s unrelated contracts<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. <\/b> The project’s approved requirements and acceptance criteria<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. <\/b> The team’s vacation schedule<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. <\/b> The project’s risk probability scale only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 2. The project’s approved requirements and acceptance criteria<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b>
                                    \n<\/b>The project manager should first review the approved requirements and acceptance criteria because these establish the documented basis for determining whether the deliverable satisfies the agreed scope. Informal discussions do not automatically become approved project requirements. If the customer wants additional functionality, the request may need to be evaluated through the appropriate change control process. Reviewing approved documentation helps the project manager distinguish between authorized requirements and unapproved expectations. This approach also provides an objective basis for resolving acceptance disagreements while maintaining traceability and appropriate project governance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 178. A project manager is reviewing whether the approved budget includes sufficient funds for known risks that may occur during project execution. Which type of reserve is generally associated with identified risks?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> Contingency reserve<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. <\/b> Operational reserve<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. <\/b> Management reserve<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. <\/b> Profit reserve<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 1. Contingency reserve<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b>
                                      \n<\/b>Contingency reserve is generally associated with known-unknowns, meaning identified risks for which responses may require additional cost or time. The reserve is included in the cost baseline according to the project’s approved approach and can be used when identified risks occur. Management reserve is generally intended for unforeseen work within the project’s overall scope and is not part of the performance measurement baseline in the same way as contingency reserve. Understanding the distinction between these reserves helps the project manager manage uncertainty while maintaining appropriate financial governance and control.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 179. A project manager discovers that two stakeholders have different interpretations of a key requirement. What should the project manager do to reduce ambiguity before the team proceeds?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> Ask the development team to decide independently<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. <\/b> Ignore the disagreement until project closure<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. <\/b> Facilitate clarification and obtain agreement on the requirement<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. <\/b> Select the interpretation preferred by the project manager<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3. Facilitate clarification and obtain agreement on the requirement<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b>
                                        \n<\/b>When stakeholders have different interpretations of a requirement, the project manager should facilitate clarification and work with the appropriate stakeholders to establish a shared understanding. Clear requirements reduce rework, misunderstandings, and disputes later in the project. The agreed requirement should be documented through the appropriate project process so that the team has a reliable reference for implementation and validation. The project manager should not simply impose a personal interpretation or leave the decision to the delivery team when stakeholders or authorized decision-makers are responsible for defining the requirement.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 180. A project team has completed all planned deliverables, obtained required acceptance, and transferred the final product to the appropriate organization. What should the project manager do next?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> Remove all project records immediately<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. <\/b> Continue assigning new project work indefinitely<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. <\/b> Perform formal project closure activities<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. <\/b> Begin another project using the same authorization<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 3. Perform formal project closure activities<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b>
                                          \n<\/b>Once the project’s deliverables have been completed, accepted, and appropriately transitioned, the project manager should perform formal closure activities. These may include confirming that closure criteria have been satisfied, finalizing documentation, archiving project records, capturing lessons learned, obtaining required closure approvals, releasing project resources, and communicating project completion. Formal closure ensures that the project is properly concluded and that useful organizational knowledge is preserved. Simply stopping work or deleting records does not provide adequate closure. Proper closeout also supports organizational learning and ensures that administrative and contractual obligations have been addressed.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full PMI CAPM Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 161. A project manager is determining how much detail is needed in the project management plan based on project complexity, organizational standards, and stakeholder needs. What practice is the project manager applying? Variance analysis Tailoring Benchmarking Decomposition Correct Answer: 2. Tailoring Explanation: Tailoring […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20264"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=20264"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20264\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":20265,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20264\/revisions\/20265"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=20264"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=20264"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=20264"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}