{"id":20270,"date":"2026-09-23T12:12:31","date_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:12:31","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=20270"},"modified":"2026-09-23T12:12:31","modified_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:12:31","slug":"pmi-capm-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-12-q221-240","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/pmi-capm-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-12-q221-240\/","title":{"rendered":"PMI CAPM Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 12 Q221-240"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>PMI CAPM Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 221. A project manager is initiating a project and needs formal authorization to begin the project and use organizational resources. Which document provides this authorization?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. <\/b> Project management plan<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. <\/b> Project charter<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. <\/b> Stakeholder register<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. <\/b> Business case<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 2. Project charter<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b>
    \n<\/b>The project charter formally authorizes the existence of a project and gives the project manager authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. It typically includes high-level information such as project purpose, objectives, requirements, assumptions, constraints, high-level risks, milestones, budget information, and the assigned project manager’s authority. The business case provides justification for undertaking the project but does not itself formally authorize the project. The project management plan explains how the project will be executed, monitored, controlled, and closed after authorization.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 222. A project sponsor asks the project manager to explain why the organization should invest in the proposed project. Which document provides the justification for making this investment?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. <\/b> Business case<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. <\/b> Team charter<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. <\/b> Issue log<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. <\/b> Requirements traceability matrix<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 1. Business case<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b>
      \n<\/b>The business case provides the justification for undertaking a project by describing the business need, expected benefits, costs, risks, strategic alignment, and other factors supporting the investment decision. It helps organizational leaders determine whether the proposed project is worthwhile and aligned with organizational objectives. The project charter subsequently authorizes the project and provides high-level direction. A team charter establishes team working agreements, an issue log records current problems, and a requirements traceability matrix connects requirements to related deliverables and project work. Therefore, the business case is the primary document used to justify the proposed investment.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 223. A project manager is clarifying the difference between the product being created and the work required to create it. Which statement correctly distinguishes product scope from project scope?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. <\/b> Product scope describes the project schedule, while project scope describes product quality<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. <\/b> Product scope describes the features and functions of the product, while project scope describes the work required to deliver it<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. <\/b> Product scope applies only to predictive projects, while project scope applies only to adaptive projects<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. <\/b> Product scope and project scope always mean exactly the same thing<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 2. Product scope describes the features and functions of the product, while project scope describes the work required to deliver it<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b>
        \n<\/b>Product scope refers to the features, functions, characteristics, and capabilities that define a product, service, or result. Project scope refers to the work that must be performed to deliver that product, service, or result with the specified features and functions. Understanding this distinction helps prevent confusion between what is being delivered and the work necessary to produce it. Product scope can be described through requirements and product specifications, while project scope is represented through the project work and related scope documentation. The two concepts are closely related but are not identical.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 224. A project team needs to discover detailed requirements directly from several users who have different experiences with the proposed product. Which technique is most appropriate for obtaining individual perspectives?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. <\/b> Interviews<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. <\/b> Procurement audit<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. <\/b> Trend analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. <\/b> Reserve analysis<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 1. Interviews<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b>
          \n<\/b>Interviews are a requirements elicitation technique used to obtain information directly from stakeholders or subject matter experts. They are particularly useful when the project team needs detailed individual perspectives, clarification of specific needs, or information that may not emerge effectively in a larger group setting. Interviews can be structured, semi-structured, or informal depending on the project context. Focus groups are more appropriate when gathering perspectives from a selected group at the same time. Workshops can also be useful for collaborative requirements development. The choice of elicitation technique should reflect the information needed and the characteristics of the stakeholders involved.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 225. A product owner has a long list of requested features and asks the team to identify which requirements provide the most value and should be addressed first. What should the team do?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. <\/b> Prioritize the requirements<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. <\/b> Archive the requirements<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. <\/b> Remove all low-cost requirements<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. <\/b> Delay all requirements until project closure<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1. Prioritize the requirements<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b>
            \n<\/b>Requirements prioritization involves determining the relative importance of requirements so that the team can focus effort on the items that provide the greatest value or satisfy the most important needs. In adaptive environments, prioritization is especially important because work is often delivered incrementally and the team may not be able to implement every requirement immediately. Factors such as business value, risk, dependencies, urgency, regulatory needs, and stakeholder expectations can influence priority. Prioritization does not necessarily mean permanently removing lower-priority requirements; those requirements may remain in the backlog for future consideration.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 226. An adaptive team is deciding which product features are essential, desirable, or optional before planning upcoming work. Which prioritization approach could help categorize the requirements?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. <\/b> Critical path analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. <\/b> MoSCoW prioritization<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. <\/b> Earned value analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. <\/b> Monte Carlo analysis<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 2. MoSCoW prioritization<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b>
              \n<\/b>MoSCoW is a prioritization technique that categorizes requirements into Must have, Should have, Could have, and Won’t have at this time. It helps stakeholders and teams communicate relative priority and establish realistic expectations about what should be addressed first. Must-have requirements are considered essential for the solution to meet its objectives, while lower categories represent progressively less immediate needs. Critical path analysis focuses on schedule activities, earned value analysis evaluates project performance, and Monte Carlo analysis can model uncertainty. MoSCoW is therefore appropriate when a team needs to classify requirements according to importance and urgency.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 227. A project team wants to release a simple version of a product containing only enough functionality to test whether the proposed solution provides value to users. What concept does this describe?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. <\/b> Minimum viable product<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. <\/b> Scope baseline<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. <\/b> Work package<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. <\/b> Configuration item<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1. Minimum viable product<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b>
                \n<\/b>A minimum viable product (MVP) is a version of a product that contains enough functionality to provide value and enable learning or validation with users. The purpose is not to deliver every planned feature but to obtain meaningful feedback and evidence before investing in additional functionality. MVPs can help teams validate assumptions, learn about user needs, and reduce uncertainty. An MVP should still meet the agreed quality and usability expectations appropriate to its intended purpose. A work package is a component of the WBS, while a scope baseline defines approved project scope and a configuration item is a controlled product or project element.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 228. During an adaptive project, stakeholders review a completed increment at the end of an iteration and provide feedback about the product. Which activity is taking place?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. <\/b> Iteration retrospective<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. <\/b> Iteration review<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. <\/b> Risk reassessment<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. <\/b> Procurement audit<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 2. Iteration review<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b>
                  \n<\/b>An iteration review focuses on examining the product increment created during an iteration and obtaining feedback from stakeholders. The team demonstrates completed functionality and uses stakeholder feedback to help guide future priorities and adjustments. This differs from a retrospective, which focuses primarily on the team’s process, collaboration, and opportunities for improvement. The review is therefore product-focused, while the retrospective is process-focused. Regular stakeholder feedback during adaptive delivery helps ensure that future work remains aligned with evolving needs and provides opportunities to identify changes in priorities or requirements.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 229. An adaptive team wants to examine how its collaboration and working practices can improve after completing an iteration. Which activity should the team conduct?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Product acceptance<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. <\/b> Procurement negotiation<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. <\/b> Retrospective<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. <\/b> Requirements validation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 3. Retrospective<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b>
                    \n<\/b>A retrospective provides an opportunity for the team to reflect on its recent work and identify ways to improve collaboration, communication, processes, and working practices. Team members may discuss what went well, what did not go well, and what changes could improve future iterations. The purpose is continuous improvement rather than formal acceptance of the product. A product review focuses on the increment and stakeholder feedback, while a retrospective focuses on the team’s process and performance. Regular retrospectives can help adaptive teams identify practical improvements and incorporate those improvements into subsequent iterations.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 230. A project manager uses active listening, coaching, and facilitation to help team members solve problems independently rather than simply giving them instructions. Which leadership approach is being demonstrated?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. <\/b> Servant leadership<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. <\/b> Directive management<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. <\/b> Command-and-control leadership<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. <\/b> Transactional procurement management<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 1. Servant leadership<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b>
                      \n<\/b>Servant leadership emphasizes supporting and enabling team members rather than relying primarily on authority or directive control. A servant leader helps remove obstacles, facilitates collaboration, coaches team members, encourages autonomy, and creates an environment where the team can perform effectively. This approach is particularly relevant in adaptive environments where self-organizing teams are expected to make many day-to-day decisions. Directive management may involve giving explicit instructions, while command-and-control approaches rely heavily on centralized authority. Servant leadership focuses on enabling the team to achieve objectives by providing support, guidance, and facilitation.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 231. A project manager notices that a stakeholder frequently misunderstands technical information presented in written reports. What should the project manager do first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. <\/b> Continue using the same communication method to maintain consistency<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. <\/b> Analyze the stakeholder’s communication needs and adapt the communication approach<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. <\/b> Remove the stakeholder from the distribution list<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. <\/b> Stop providing project information until requested<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 2. Analyze the stakeholder’s communication needs and adapt the communication approach<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b>
                        \n<\/b>Effective communication requires the project manager to consider the information needs, preferences, context, and capabilities of the intended audience. If a stakeholder repeatedly misunderstands technical written reports, the project manager should assess the communication requirements and consider alternatives such as visual summaries, demonstrations, simplified language, meetings, or tailored reports. Maintaining an ineffective communication method simply for consistency does not improve understanding. Removing the stakeholder or withholding information could create additional engagement problems. Communication should be adapted so that the right information reaches the right stakeholder in a form that supports understanding and appropriate decision-making.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 232. A project manager displays key project information on a visible board so that team members and stakeholders can quickly see progress, work status, and emerging issues. What is this an example of?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. <\/b> Information radiator<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. <\/b> Procurement register<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. <\/b> Cost baseline<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. <\/b> Configuration audit<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 1. Information radiator<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b>
                          \n<\/b>An information radiator is a highly visible display that communicates important project information in a way that can be quickly understood by the intended audience. Examples can include task boards, burn charts, progress indicators, and other visual displays. Information radiators are particularly common in adaptive environments because they promote transparency and reduce the need for people to request status information individually. The displayed information should be current and relevant to the team’s needs. A cost baseline represents approved cost information, while procurement registers and configuration audits serve different project management purposes.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 233. A project manager is evaluating a newly identified threat by considering both its likelihood of occurring and its potential impact on project objectives. Which risk analysis approach is being used?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. <\/b> Qualitative risk analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. <\/b> Procurement analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. <\/b> Configuration management<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. <\/b> Product decomposition<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1. Qualitative risk analysis<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b>
                            \n<\/b>Qualitative risk analysis assesses risks using characteristics such as probability and impact to determine their relative significance and priority. A probability-impact matrix is commonly used to categorize threats and opportunities according to their likelihood and potential effect on project objectives. This analysis helps the project team determine which risks may require more detailed assessment or response planning. Quantitative risk analysis, in contrast, uses numerical analysis to evaluate the potential effects of identified risks on project objectives. Qualitative analysis is often used first to prioritize risks and determine where additional analysis or response effort should be focused.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 234. A project team identifies an opportunity that could increase project benefits, but the team does not have the capability to realize the full opportunity internally. The project manager assigns a capable external partner to pursue it. Which opportunity response is being used?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Avoid<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. <\/b> Mitigate<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. <\/b> Share<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. <\/b> Accept<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 3. Share<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b>
                              \n<\/b>Share is an opportunity response used when responsibility for realizing a positive risk or opportunity is allocated to a third party that is better positioned to capture the benefit. This can involve partnerships, joint ventures, special-purpose companies, or other collaborative arrangements. The goal is to increase the likelihood or potential benefit of the opportunity by involving a party with appropriate expertise or resources. Avoid is generally a threat response, while mitigate reduces the probability or impact of a threat. Accepting an opportunity means taking advantage of it if it occurs without proactively assigning ownership to another party.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 235. A project manager needs to purchase a specialized component, and the seller will be paid a predetermined amount for completing the agreed work regardless of the seller’s actual costs. Which contract type is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. <\/b> Cost-reimbursable contract<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. <\/b> Time and materials contract<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. <\/b> Fixed-price contract<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. <\/b> Cost-plus-incentive-fee contract<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 3. Fixed-price contract<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b>
                                \n<\/b>A fixed-price contract establishes a predetermined price for the agreed scope of work. Under this arrangement, the seller generally bears greater risk if the actual cost of performing the work exceeds the agreed price, assuming the scope and contractual conditions remain unchanged. Fixed-price contracts are appropriate when requirements and scope can be defined with reasonable clarity. Cost-reimbursable contracts reimburse allowable seller costs and generally place more cost risk on the buyer. Time and materials contracts combine elements of fixed rates and variable quantities. The project manager should select the contract type based on scope clarity, risk allocation, market conditions, and procurement objectives.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 236. A buyer is uncertain about the exact amount of labor and materials required for a short-term procurement but wants to establish agreed hourly or daily rates. Which contract type may be appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> Fixed-price contract<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. <\/b> Time and materials contract<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. <\/b> Cost-plus-fixed-fee contract<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. <\/b> Lump-sum incentive contract<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 2. Time and materials contract<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b>
                                  \n<\/b>A time and materials (T&M) contract combines characteristics of fixed-price and cost-reimbursable arrangements. The buyer and seller agree on fixed rates for labor categories or units of material, while the final amount depends on the actual quantity of time and materials used. T&M contracts can be useful when the exact scope or duration is not fully defined but the buyer can establish reasonable unit rates. Because the total cost can vary with the amount of work performed, the buyer should use appropriate controls, such as ceilings or approval limits, when suitable.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 237. A project manager wants to prevent unauthorized changes to an approved product specification and ensure that the correct version is being used by the team. Which practice is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> Configuration management<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. <\/b> Stakeholder analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. <\/b> Qualitative risk analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. <\/b> Resource smoothing<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1. Configuration management<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b>
                                    \n<\/b>Configuration management establishes processes for identifying, documenting, controlling, and tracking changes to project and product characteristics. It helps ensure that approved versions of specifications, documents, designs, and other controlled items are consistently used. Configuration management can include version identification, change tracking, status accounting, and verification that changes have been properly authorized. This is particularly important when multiple team members work with evolving technical information. Stakeholder analysis, risk analysis, and resource smoothing address different project management concerns and do not directly provide control over product or document versions.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 238. A project is divided into formal stages, and management wants to evaluate whether the project should continue at the end of each stage before authorizing the next stage. What is this review commonly called?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> Phase gate review<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. <\/b> Daily stand-up<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. <\/b> Requirements workshop<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. <\/b> Procurement audit<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 1. Phase gate review<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b>
                                      \n<\/b>A phase gate review is a decision point at the end of a project phase where stakeholders or governance authorities evaluate project performance, deliverables, risks, business justification, and readiness to proceed. Depending on the organization’s governance approach, the decision may involve continuing, modifying, pausing, or terminating the project or phase. Phase gates provide structured oversight and help ensure that significant investments remain justified as the project progresses. A daily stand-up supports team coordination, a requirements workshop supports elicitation and clarification, and a procurement audit examines procurement processes or results.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 239. A project team needs to decide how much work should be completed during each iteration while ensuring that selected work is realistic for the team’s capacity. What should the team consider most directly?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> Stakeholder influence only<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. <\/b> Team capacity and prioritized work<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. <\/b> Historical project cost only<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. <\/b> Procurement contract value only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 2. Team capacity and prioritized work<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b>
                                        \n<\/b>When planning an iteration, an adaptive team should consider the priority of available work along with the team’s realistic capacity. The team needs to select an achievable amount of work rather than committing to more work than can reasonably be completed. Capacity can be affected by team availability, skills, planned absences, technical constraints, and other factors. Prioritized work helps ensure that the team focuses on the most valuable or important items first. Considering both priority and capacity supports sustainable delivery and helps reduce excessive unfinished work or frequent iteration commitments that cannot be met.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 240. A project manager is closing a project and confirms that all contractual obligations, deliverables, and closure requirements have been completed. What should the project manager do next?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> Continue executing project activities until the original team members leave<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. <\/b> Restart planning to identify additional project work<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. <\/b> Obtain formal confirmation of closure and complete organizational closure activities<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. <\/b> Add new features to increase stakeholder satisfaction<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 3. Obtain formal confirmation of closure and complete organizational closure activities<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b>
                                          \n<\/b>Once project deliverables, contractual obligations, and closure requirements have been satisfied, the project manager should complete formal closure activities according to organizational procedures. This may include obtaining formal acceptance or confirmation of closure, transitioning remaining responsibilities, closing procurements, releasing resources, finalizing documentation, archiving records, and ensuring required organizational processes are completed. Adding new features or continuing project work after closure criteria are met would create unnecessary additional work. Proper closure ensures that the project is formally concluded and that responsibilities and information are appropriately transitioned to the organization or operational stakeholders.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full PMI CAPM Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 221. A project manager is initiating a project and needs formal authorization to begin the project and use organizational resources. Which document provides this authorization? Project management plan Project charter Stakeholder register Business case Correct Answer: 2. Project charter Explanation: The project charter […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20270"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=20270"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20270\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":20271,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20270\/revisions\/20271"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=20270"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=20270"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=20270"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}