{"id":20336,"date":"2026-09-23T12:38:55","date_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:38:55","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=20336"},"modified":"2026-09-23T12:38:55","modified_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:38:55","slug":"comptia-a-220-1201-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part5-q81-100","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-a-220-1201-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part5-q81-100\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part5 Q81-100"},"content":{"rendered":"<h2><b>View Full <\/b><a href=\"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/220-1201-exam-dumps\"><b>CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a><b> and Practice Test Dumps.<\/b><\/h2>\n<p>&nbsp;<\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 81<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which Windows utility can be used to manage disk partitions and assign drive letters?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Disk Management<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Device Manager<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Task Scheduler<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Performance Monitor<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Disk Management is a Windows utility used to view and manage physical disks, partitions, and volumes. Technicians can use it to create, delete, format, resize certain partitions, initialize disks, and assign or change drive letters. Device Manager focuses on hardware devices and drivers, Task Scheduler manages scheduled tasks, and Performance Monitor provides information about system performance. Care must be taken when modifying partitions because incorrect changes can result in data loss. Disk Management is therefore the appropriate Windows utility for managing partitions and drive-letter assignments.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 82<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which file system is commonly used by modern Windows installations and supports features such as file permissions and encryption?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">FAT32<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">NTFS<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">exFAT<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">EXT4<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">NTFS is the primary file system used by modern Windows installations. It supports features such as file and folder permissions, access control, journaling, compression, encryption through supported Windows features, and large file and volume sizes. FAT32 has broad compatibility but has limitations on individual file size and lacks many advanced Windows security features. exFAT is commonly used for removable storage requiring broad compatibility, while EXT4 is commonly associated with Linux systems. Therefore, NTFS is the appropriate file system for a typical modern Windows installation.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 83<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>A technician needs to identify which process is consuming excessive CPU resources on a Windows computer. Which utility should be used?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Disk Management<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Task Manager<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Character Map<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Credential Manager<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Task Manager provides information about running applications, processes, CPU usage, memory consumption, disk activity, network activity, and other system resources. A technician can use it to identify processes consuming unusually high CPU resources and determine whether an application may be causing system performance problems. Disk Management manages storage volumes, Character Map provides access to special characters, and Credential Manager manages stored authentication information. Task Manager is therefore the most appropriate utility for identifying processes responsible for excessive CPU usage.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 84<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which Windows recovery environment can be used to troubleshoot startup problems when the operating system cannot boot normally?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Safe Mode<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">BIOS setup<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Print Management<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Disk Cleanup<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Safe Mode starts Windows with a limited set of drivers and services, making it useful for troubleshooting problems that prevent normal startup or cause instability. A technician can use Safe Mode to remove problematic software, investigate drivers, perform malware-related troubleshooting, or reverse certain configuration changes. BIOS or UEFI setup manages firmware-level settings but is not itself a Windows recovery environment. Print Management handles printers, and Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files. Safe Mode is therefore an appropriate troubleshooting option when normal Windows startup is failing.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 85<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which command can display active network connections and listening ports on a Windows computer?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">netstat<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">ipconfig<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">ping<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">sfc<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">The netstat command can display active network connections, listening ports, routing-related information, and other network statistics depending on the options used. Technicians can use it to investigate unexpected connections, identify services listening on ports, and troubleshoot certain network communication problems. ipconfig displays local IP configuration, ping tests connectivity, and sfc checks protected Windows system files. Because netstat focuses on network connections and port activity, it is the appropriate command when a technician needs to examine active sessions or listening services.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 86<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which technology provides a secure method for connecting to a remote command-line interface over a network?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">FTP<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Telnet<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">SSH<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">HTTP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Secure Shell (SSH) provides encrypted remote command-line access to compatible systems. It is widely used for administering servers, network devices, and other systems from a remote location. SSH protects authentication information and session data through encryption, making it significantly more secure than older protocols such as Telnet, which transmits information without comparable built-in encryption. FTP is primarily used for file transfers, while HTTP is used for web communication. SSH is therefore the appropriate protocol when secure remote command-line administration is required.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 87<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>A technician discovers that a user&#8217;s laptop is overheating because air cannot circulate properly around the device. Which action is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Increase screen resolution<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Block additional ventilation openings<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Ensure vents are unobstructed and clean<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Disable the operating system<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Adequate airflow is essential for maintaining safe operating temperatures in laptops and other computers. When ventilation openings are blocked by dust, fabric, furniture, or other objects, the cooling system may be unable to remove heat effectively. The technician should ensure that vents are unobstructed and clean and that the laptop is being used on a suitable surface. Increasing screen resolution can increase workload rather than solve the problem, while blocking vents would make cooling worse. Proper airflow helps reduce overheating, thermal throttling, unexpected shutdowns, and component stress.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 88<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which component is responsible for dissipating heat from a CPU into the surrounding air?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Heat sink<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">NIC<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">CMOS battery<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Expansion slot<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">A CPU heat sink absorbs heat from the processor and transfers it into a larger surface area where airflow can carry the heat away. Many desktop systems combine a heat sink with a fan to improve heat dissipation. Thermal paste or another thermal interface material is commonly placed between the CPU and heat sink to improve heat transfer by filling microscopic gaps between surfaces. A NIC handles network communication, a CMOS battery supports certain motherboard functions, and an expansion slot provides a physical interface for compatible cards. The heat sink is therefore responsible for CPU heat dissipation.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 89<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which power-management feature allows a computer to enter a low-power state while retaining the contents of RAM?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Hibernate<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Sleep<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Shutdown<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Cold boot<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Sleep mode places a computer into a low-power state while maintaining the current session in RAM. This allows the system to resume quickly when the user returns. Because RAM remains powered, the computer still consumes some electricity while sleeping. Hibernate, in contrast, saves the memory contents to storage and powers the system down more completely, reducing power consumption further. Shutdown closes the operating system and powers off the computer, while a cold boot starts the system from a powered-off condition. Therefore, Sleep matches the described behavior.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 90<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which Windows tool can check protected operating system files and attempt to repair corrupted versions?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">SFC<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">FORMAT<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">DISKPART<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">XCOPY<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">System File Checker, commonly invoked with the sfc command, scans protected Windows system files and can attempt to replace corrupted files with valid versions. It is useful when system instability, unexpected errors, or damaged Windows components are suspected. The format command prepares a storage volume with a file system, diskpart provides advanced disk and partition management, and xcopy copies files and directory structures. SFC should generally be used according to an appropriate troubleshooting procedure and may be combined with other Windows repair tools when necessary.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 91<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which network topology connects each device to a central switch or other central networking device?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Bus<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Ring<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Star<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Mesh<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">A star topology connects individual network devices to a central device, commonly an Ethernet switch. Each endpoint has its own connection to the central point, making troubleshooting and device management relatively straightforward. If one endpoint cable fails, other devices can generally continue communicating through their own connections. A bus topology uses a shared backbone, a ring topology connects devices in a circular arrangement, and a mesh topology provides multiple interconnected paths between devices. Modern Ethernet LANs commonly use a physical star topology centered around switches.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 92<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which network technology allows a device to automatically configure an IPv6 address based on network information without requiring a traditional DHCPv6 server for basic address assignment?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">APIPA<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">SLAAC<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">NAT<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">VPN<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) allows IPv6-capable devices to automatically configure addresses using information provided by IPv6 routers. The router advertises network prefixes, and the client can use those advertisements to construct an IPv6 address. This provides automatic addressing without requiring a traditional DHCPv6 service for the basic address configuration process. APIPA is associated with automatic IPv4 addressing when DHCP is unavailable, NAT translates network addresses, and VPN technology creates protected network connections. SLAAC is therefore the IPv6 mechanism described.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 93<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which type of malware encrypts a victim&#8217;s files and demands payment for restoring access?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Spyware<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Adware<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Ransomware<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Rootkit<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Ransomware is malware designed to deny access to data or systems, commonly by encrypting files and demanding payment from the victim. Organizations reduce ransomware risk through measures such as regular tested backups, security updates, least-privilege access, user awareness, endpoint protection, and network segmentation. Spyware is designed to monitor or collect information, adware primarily displays unwanted advertising, and rootkits attempt to maintain privileged or concealed access. Because ransomware directly targets data availability and often uses encryption as part of its attack, it matches the scenario described.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 94<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which security principle requires users to receive only the permissions necessary to perform their assigned duties?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Least privilege<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Open access<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Data duplication<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Full administrative access<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">The principle of least privilege requires users, applications, and systems to receive only the permissions needed to perform their legitimate tasks. Limiting permissions reduces the potential damage caused by compromised accounts, malicious software, accidental actions, or insider threats. Granting every user administrative access violates this principle and increases the attack surface. Open access provides no meaningful restriction, while data duplication is unrelated to authorization. Implementing least privilege is an important security practice for both individual systems and larger organizational environments.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 95<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which authentication factor is something the user physically possesses?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Password<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Security token<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Fingerprint<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">PIN<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">A security token is an example of a possession factor because it represents something the user physically has. Examples include hardware authentication tokens, smart cards, and certain security keys. A password and PIN are knowledge factors because the user must know the secret information. A fingerprint is a biometric factor because it is based on a physical characteristic of the user. Multifactor authentication becomes stronger when different factor categories are combined. Therefore, a security token represents the possession factor described in the question.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 96<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which type of attack attempts to overwhelm a service with a large volume of traffic so legitimate users cannot access it?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Phishing<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">DDoS<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Shoulder surfing<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Tailgating<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">A Distributed Denial-of-Service (DDoS) attack attempts to overwhelm a service, network, or application with excessive traffic or requests, making the resource unavailable or significantly degraded for legitimate users. Distributed attacks commonly use many compromised systems to generate traffic from multiple sources. Phishing attempts to deceive users into revealing information, shoulder surfing involves observing someone entering sensitive information, and tailgating involves gaining unauthorized physical access by following an authorized person. DDoS attacks therefore specifically target service availability through excessive traffic or resource consumption.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 97<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which security technology can help prevent unauthorized software from executing by allowing only approved applications?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Application allowlisting<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Screen saver<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Disk defragmentation<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">File compression<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Application allowlisting restricts software execution to applications that have been explicitly approved or meet defined trust requirements. This can reduce the risk of unauthorized or malicious programs executing on managed systems. It is particularly useful in controlled business environments where administrators can define which applications employees need. A screen saver primarily protects an unattended session when configured with a lock, while disk defragmentation and file compression address storage management rather than software execution control. Application allowlisting therefore provides the security capability described.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 98<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>A technician receives an email claiming to be from a bank and requesting the user&#8217;s password through a provided link. What type of attack is most likely involved?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Phishing<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Brute-force attack<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">DDoS<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Evil twin<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Phishing is a social-engineering technique in which attackers use deceptive messages to persuade victims to reveal sensitive information, download malicious content, or visit fraudulent websites. A message pretending to come from a bank and requesting a password through a link is a classic phishing scenario. A brute-force attack attempts repeated credential combinations, DDoS targets service availability, and an evil twin is a fraudulent wireless access point designed to deceive users. Users should verify requests independently rather than trusting links or instructions contained in suspicious messages.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 99<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>Which physical security control is designed to prevent unauthorized individuals from entering a restricted area by requiring an access credential?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Badge reader<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Network switch<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">UPS<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">KVM switch<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">A badge reader is a physical access-control mechanism that can require an authorized credential before allowing entry to a secured area. Depending on the system, credentials may use proximity cards, smart cards, or other identification technologies. Physical access controls are important because unauthorized physical access can allow attackers to steal equipment, access systems directly, or tamper with infrastructure. A network switch manages network connectivity, a UPS provides backup power, and a KVM switch provides shared computer control. Therefore, the badge reader is the appropriate physical security control.<\/span><\/p>\n<h3><b>Question 100<\/b><\/h3>\n<p><b>A company wants to reduce the impact of a stolen laptop containing sensitive information. Which combination provides the strongest protection for the stored data?<\/b><\/p>\n<ol>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Screen brightness and sleep mode<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">File compression and disk cleanup<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Full-disk encryption and strong authentication<\/span><\/li>\n<li style=\"font-weight: 400;\" aria-level=\"1\"><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Printer sharing and USB hubs<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n<p><b>Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n<p><b>Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n<p><span style=\"font-weight: 400;\">Full-disk or full-volume encryption protects stored information by making the contents unreadable without the appropriate authentication or recovery mechanism. Strong authentication adds another layer by making unauthorized access to the operating system more difficult. Together, these controls help reduce the impact of a stolen laptop containing sensitive information. Screen brightness, sleep mode, file compression, disk cleanup, printer sharing, and USB hubs do not provide comparable protection for stored data. Encryption should also be combined with secure passwords, appropriate access controls, backups, and organizational security policies.<\/span><\/p>\n<p>&nbsp;<\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"<p>View Full CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps. &nbsp; Question 81 Which Windows utility can be used to manage disk partitions and assign drive letters? Disk Management Device Manager Task Scheduler Performance Monitor Correct Answer: 1 Explanation Disk Management is a Windows utility used to view and manage physical disks, partitions, and volumes. 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