{"id":20340,"date":"2026-09-23T12:39:35","date_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:39:35","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=20340"},"modified":"2026-09-23T12:39:35","modified_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:39:35","slug":"comptia-a-220-1201-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part7-q121-140","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-a-220-1201-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part7-q121-140\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part7 Q121-140"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps.<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 121<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which component stores firmware settings and system configuration information when the computer is powered off?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. CMOS memory<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. RAM<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. CPU cache<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Video memory<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    CMOS memory traditionally stores firmware configuration information such as hardware settings and system preferences. A small CMOS battery helps maintain this information when the computer is powered off. Modern systems may use flash-based firmware and different storage implementations, but the term CMOS is still commonly associated with motherboard configuration settings. RAM loses its contents when power is removed, CPU cache provides very fast temporary storage for processor operations, and video memory stores graphics data. Therefore, CMOS is the appropriate choice for the described configuration storage function.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 122<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which component provides temporary high-speed storage that the CPU can access while programs are running?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. SSD<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. RAM<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Optical disc<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. USB flash drive<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      Random Access Memory, or RAM, provides temporary working storage for the operating system, applications, and data currently being processed. The CPU can access RAM much faster than traditional persistent storage devices. RAM is volatile, meaning its contents are normally lost when the system loses power. SSDs, optical discs, and USB flash drives provide persistent storage and retain data without continuous power. Adding appropriate amounts of RAM can improve multitasking and reduce performance limitations caused by insufficient working memory.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 123<\/b><\/h3>\n

      A technician needs to connect several USB peripherals to a computer that has only one available USB port. What device should be used?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. KVM switch<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. USB hub<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Network switch<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Docking station<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        A USB hub expands a single USB port into multiple ports, allowing several compatible USB peripherals to connect to the computer. Depending on the hub and devices involved, a powered hub may be preferable when connected peripherals require significant electrical power. A KVM switch shares keyboard, video, and mouse control between computers, while a network switch connects network devices. A docking station can provide many additional connections but is a broader device designed primarily for laptop expansion. Therefore, a USB hub is the most direct solution.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 124<\/b><\/h3>\n

        Which storage technology has no moving mechanical parts and generally provides faster access than a traditional magnetic hard disk?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. SSD<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Tape drive<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Optical drive<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. Floppy disk<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          A solid-state drive, or SSD, stores data using flash memory rather than spinning magnetic platters and mechanical read\/write heads. Because SSDs have no moving mechanical components, they generally provide faster access times, improved resistance to physical shock, and quieter operation than traditional hard disk drives. Tape drives and floppy disks use magnetic storage, while optical drives use lasers to read or write optical media. SSDs are available in several interfaces and form factors, including SATA and NVMe-based designs.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 125<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which connector is commonly used to provide digital video and audio output from a computer to a compatible display?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. PS\/2<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. RJ11<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. HDMI<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. DB-9<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            HDMI, or High-Definition Multimedia Interface, is commonly used to transmit digital video and audio through a single cable. It is widely found on computers, televisions, monitors, projectors, and other multimedia equipment. PS\/2 connectors were traditionally used for keyboards and mice, RJ11 is associated with telephone connections, and DB-9 connectors have been used for serial communication and other legacy interfaces. HDMI supports various resolutions and audio formats depending on the version and connected equipment, making it a common multimedia connection.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 126<\/b><\/h3>\n

            Which component converts digital signals into the electrical signals required to drive headphones or speakers?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Sound card<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. NIC<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. RAID controller<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Capture card<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              A sound card or integrated audio controller processes digital audio information and converts it into signals that can be delivered to speakers or headphones. It may also perform functions such as analog-to-digital conversion for microphones and other audio inputs. A NIC provides network connectivity, a RAID controller manages storage arrays, and a capture card is designed to receive and record video or other input signals. Modern motherboards frequently include integrated audio hardware, but the fundamental audio-processing function remains the same.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 127<\/b><\/h3>\n

              A desktop computer powers off unexpectedly whenever the processor and graphics card are heavily loaded. Which component should be investigated first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. Keyboard<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. Power supply<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. Webcam<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. Sound card<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                An inadequate or failing power supply can cause a computer to shut down when high-performance components demand more electrical power. Heavy CPU and GPU workloads can significantly increase power consumption, exposing a weak, defective, or undersized PSU. The technician should verify the PSU’s capacity, condition, connectors, and suitability for the installed hardware. A keyboard, webcam, or sound card would not normally cause system-wide shutdowns specifically under high processing and graphics loads. Power-related symptoms should therefore make the PSU an important early troubleshooting consideration.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 128<\/b><\/h3>\n

                Which RAID level duplicates identical data across two drives to provide redundancy if one drive fails?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. RAID 0<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. RAID 1<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. RAID 5<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. RAID 10<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  RAID 1 uses mirroring, meaning data is written to two drives so that each contains a duplicate copy. If one drive fails, the system can continue operating from the remaining mirrored drive, assuming the implementation supports continued operation. RAID 0 uses striping without redundancy, RAID 5 uses striping with distributed parity across multiple drives, and RAID 10 combines mirroring and striping. RAID 1 therefore provides straightforward drive redundancy through duplication of data.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 129<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  Which CPU feature allows multiple processing threads to be handled by a single physical processor core?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Hyper-threading or SMT<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. ECC<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. RAID<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. DMA<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Hyper-threading and similar simultaneous multithreading technologies allow a physical CPU core to present multiple logical processors to the operating system. This can improve processor utilization when workloads contain multiple threads that can execute concurrently, although the performance improvement depends on the application and workload. ECC is a memory error-detection and correction technology, RAID provides storage redundancy or performance configurations, and DMA allows devices to transfer data to memory with reduced CPU involvement. Therefore, hyper-threading or SMT describes the CPU capability in the question.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 130<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which wireless technology is primarily designed for extremely short-range communication, such as contactless payments?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Bluetooth<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Wi-Fi<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. NFC<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. LTE<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Near Field Communication, or NFC, is designed for very short-range wireless communication between compatible devices. It is commonly used for contactless payments, access cards, device pairing, and other applications where devices are brought very close together. Bluetooth supports short-range peripheral communication over a greater distance, Wi-Fi provides wireless network connectivity, and LTE provides cellular communication over much wider areas. NFC’s short operating range can also provide a useful security characteristic because communication generally requires close physical proximity between the participating devices.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 131<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      Which device forwards network traffic between different IP networks?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Hub<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Switch<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Router<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Repeater<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        A router forwards packets between different IP networks and determines suitable paths based on routing information. For example, a home router can forward traffic between a local private network and an internet service provider’s network. A switch primarily connects devices within a local network and forwards Ethernet frames based on MAC addresses. A hub repeats traffic to connected ports, while a repeater extends a signal. Therefore, the router is the device responsible for forwarding traffic between separate IP networks.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 132<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which protocol automatically provides IP configuration information to clients on a network?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. DHCP<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. DNS<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. FTP<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. SNMP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, or DHCP, automatically provides clients with network configuration information such as an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS server addresses. This reduces the need to manually configure every device and helps prevent duplicate address assignments. DNS resolves names to addresses and performs other name-related functions, FTP transfers files, and SNMP is commonly used for network management and monitoring. DHCP is therefore the protocol responsible for automatically assigning network configuration information to client devices.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 133<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          A user can access websites by IP address but cannot access them by domain name. Which service should the technician investigate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. DHCP<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. DNS<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. NTP<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. SMTP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            The Domain Name System, or DNS, translates human-readable domain names into IP addresses and performs other name-resolution functions. If a user can reach a website by its numerical IP address but cannot reach it using the domain name, DNS configuration or resolution is a strong suspect. DHCP assigns network configuration, NTP synchronizes system time, and SMTP handles outgoing email transmission. The technician should examine DNS server settings, test name resolution, and verify whether the configured DNS service is reachable and functioning properly.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 134<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which command can display the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and other network configuration information on Windows?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. tracert<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. ping<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. ipconfig<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. nslookup<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              The ipconfig command displays local TCP\/IP configuration information on Windows systems. Depending on the options used, it can show IPv4 and IPv6 addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, DNS-related information, and DHCP details. The command is frequently used when diagnosing connectivity or configuration problems. Ping tests reachability, tracert displays the path traffic takes toward a destination, and nslookup performs DNS queries. Therefore, ipconfig is the appropriate command when a technician needs to inspect a computer’s local IP configuration.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 135<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              Which wireless security standard provides stronger protection than the original WEP standard and is commonly found on modern wireless networks?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. WPA2<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. FTP<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. HTTP<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Telnet<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                WPA2 is a wireless security standard that provides stronger protection than the older WEP standard. WPA2 commonly uses AES-based encryption and has been widely deployed on wireless networks. Newer environments may also use WPA3 where supported, but WPA2 remains an important technology to recognize when troubleshooting or configuring wireless networks. FTP and HTTP are application-layer protocols, while Telnet provides remote terminal communication without the same security protections expected from modern encrypted management protocols. Therefore, WPA2 matches the wireless security standard described.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 136<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                Which backup method saves files that have changed since the most recent full backup?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. Full<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Differential<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Incremental<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Clone<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  A differential backup copies data that has changed since the most recent full backup. As additional differential backups are created before another full backup, each one generally includes the accumulated changes since that last full backup. An incremental backup, by comparison, normally captures changes since the previous backup of any type. Full backups copy all selected data, while cloning creates a duplicate storage image rather than following the standard full, differential, or incremental backup model. Differential backups can simplify restoration because the latest full backup and latest differential are typically required.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 137<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  Which tool is designed to display hardware devices and their driver status in Windows?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Event Viewer<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Task Manager<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Device Manager<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Disk Management<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Device Manager provides a centralized view of hardware devices installed in a Windows system and displays information about their drivers and device status. Technicians can use it to identify missing, disabled, incompatible, or malfunctioning devices and to update, roll back, disable, or uninstall supported drivers. Event Viewer focuses on system and application logs, Task Manager monitors processes and resource usage, and Disk Management handles storage volumes and partitions. Therefore, Device Manager is the appropriate Windows utility for investigating hardware and driver status.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 138<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    Which Windows utility is most appropriate for reviewing logged system, application, and security events?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Event Viewer<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Disk Cleanup<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Character Map<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Paint<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Event Viewer provides access to Windows logs containing information about system, application, security, and other events. Technicians can use these logs to investigate application failures, service problems, authentication events, driver issues, and other operating system conditions. Event records can provide timestamps and details that help correlate failures with recent changes or activities. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, Character Map provides special characters, and Paint is a graphics application. Therefore, Event Viewer is the appropriate utility for reviewing logged Windows events.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 139<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      Which remote-access technology provides a graphical Windows desktop session over a network?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. SSH<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. RDP<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. FTP<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. SMTP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Remote Desktop Protocol, or RDP, provides a graphical remote session to compatible Windows systems. It allows an authorized user to interact with the remote computer’s desktop, applications, and files through a network connection. SSH is commonly used for secure command-line administration, FTP is designed for file transfer, and SMTP is used for email transmission. RDP should be secured through appropriate authentication, access controls, encryption, network restrictions, and other organizational security measures. Therefore, RDP is the technology described.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 140<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        A technician replaces a failed storage drive and restores the user’s files from a backup. What should be done next before considering the repair complete?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Remove all security controls<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Verify system functionality and restored data<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Delete the backup<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Disable automatic updates<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          After replacing hardware and restoring data, the technician should verify that the system operates correctly and that the restored files are accessible and intact. This verification step confirms that the repair actually resolved the original problem and that important user information is available. The technician may also verify applications, connectivity, hardware status, and relevant security controls before documenting the completed work. Deleting the backup or disabling security mechanisms would be inappropriate. Proper verification ensures the system is ready to return to normal use.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps.   Question 121 Which component stores firmware settings and system configuration information when the computer is powered off? CMOS memory RAM CPU cache Video memory Correct Answer: 1 Explanation CMOS memory traditionally stores firmware configuration information such as hardware settings and system preferences. A small […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20340"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=20340"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20340\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":20341,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20340\/revisions\/20341"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=20340"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=20340"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=20340"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}