{"id":20352,"date":"2026-09-23T12:43:19","date_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:43:19","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=20352"},"modified":"2026-09-23T12:43:19","modified_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:43:19","slug":"comptia-a-220-1201-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part13-q241-260","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-a-220-1201-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part13-q241-260\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part13 Q241-260"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps.<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 241<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which component converts household AC power into the DC voltages required by internal computer components?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. UPS<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Voltage regulator<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. PSU<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Inverter<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    The power supply unit, or PSU, converts incoming alternating current from a wall outlet into the direct-current voltages required by computer components. It provides different voltage rails to devices such as the motherboard, storage drives, fans, and graphics hardware. A UPS provides backup power and power conditioning, while a voltage regulator manages voltage stability for specific circuitry. An inverter generally converts DC power into AC power. Therefore, the PSU is the component responsible for converting household AC power into usable DC power inside a computer.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 242<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which storage technology typically provides the lowest latency among the following options when directly connected through PCIe?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. NVMe SSD<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. SATA HDD<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Optical disc<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Magnetic tape<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      NVMe SSDs communicate through the PCIe bus and are specifically designed to take advantage of the low latency and high bandwidth available from PCIe connections. NVMe protocols support parallel command processing and are optimized for solid-state storage. SATA HDDs rely on slower mechanical components and the SATA interface, while optical discs and magnetic tape are designed for different storage purposes and generally have much higher access latency. Therefore, among the listed technologies, an NVMe SSD typically provides the lowest latency and very high storage performance.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 243<\/b><\/h3>\n

      A desktop computer has two identical memory modules installed in the correct paired slots. Which feature may allow the system to increase memory bandwidth?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. ECC<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Dual-channel memory<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Virtual memory<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Cache memory<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        Dual-channel memory allows compatible memory modules to communicate with the memory controller across two channels, increasing the amount of data that can be transferred compared with a single-channel configuration. Motherboards commonly identify recommended paired slots in the documentation to ensure the modules operate in the intended configuration. ECC provides error detection and correction, virtual memory uses storage to supplement RAM, and cache memory is a small high-speed memory area used by processors. Therefore, dual-channel operation can improve available memory bandwidth.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 244<\/b><\/h3>\n

        Which connector is reversible and commonly used for modern smartphones, laptops, and other peripherals?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. USB-A<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Micro-USB<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. USB-C<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. PS\/2<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          USB-C is a reversible connector designed for modern computers, smartphones, tablets, docking stations, storage devices, and many other peripherals. Its symmetrical design allows the plug to be inserted in either orientation, making it easier to use than older USB connectors. Depending on the implementation, USB-C can support data transfer, charging, display output, and other functions through different protocols and standards. USB-A is not reversible, Micro-USB has a distinct orientation, and PS\/2 is a legacy peripheral interface. Therefore, USB-C matches the description.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 245<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which printer type is generally best suited for producing high-quality color photographs on specialized paper?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Dot matrix<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. Laser<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Thermal receipt printer<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Inkjet<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            Inkjet printers are commonly used for high-quality color photographs because they can precisely spray tiny droplets of ink onto suitable media. With appropriate photo paper and ink cartridges, inkjet printers can produce detailed images with smooth color transitions. Laser printers are often preferred for fast document production, especially in office environments, while dot matrix printers are commonly used for multipart forms and certain legacy applications. Thermal receipt printers are optimized for receipt printing rather than photographic output. Therefore, an inkjet printer is appropriate for high-quality photo printing.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 246<\/b><\/h3>\n

            Which protocol is commonly used by email clients to retrieve messages while keeping them synchronized with the mail server?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. IMAP<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. SMTP<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. FTP<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. SNMP<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              IMAP, or Internet Message Access Protocol, allows an email client to access and synchronize messages stored on a mail server. Messages and mailbox organization can remain on the server, allowing the same mailbox to be accessed consistently from multiple devices. SMTP is primarily used for sending email, while FTP is used for file transfers and SNMP is used for network management and monitoring. Therefore, IMAP is the protocol best suited for retrieving and synchronizing email messages across multiple clients.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 247<\/b><\/h3>\n

              Which protocol is primarily responsible for sending email from an email client to a mail server or between mail servers?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. IMAP<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. SMTP<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. POP3<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. SMB<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                SMTP, or Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, is used primarily to send email messages. An email client can submit outgoing messages to a mail server using SMTP, and mail servers can use SMTP to transfer messages toward their destination mail servers. IMAP and POP3 are primarily associated with retrieving email, although they operate differently in how messages are handled. SMB is commonly used for file and printer sharing on networks. Therefore, SMTP is the appropriate protocol for sending email.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 248<\/b><\/h3>\n

                A technician needs to identify which process is consuming excessive CPU resources in Windows. Which utility should be used first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Event Viewer<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Device Manager<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. Disk Management<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Task Manager<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Task Manager provides real-time information about running applications and processes, including their CPU, memory, disk, and network utilization. A technician can sort processes by CPU usage to quickly identify which application or service is consuming excessive processing resources. Event Viewer is more appropriate for reviewing recorded system and application events, Device Manager focuses on hardware and drivers, and Disk Management manages storage partitions and volumes. Therefore, Task Manager is the most direct utility for identifying a process with unusually high CPU consumption.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 249<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  Which Windows feature starts the operating system with a limited set of drivers and services to assist with troubleshooting?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Safe Mode<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. Sleep<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Hibernation<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. Fast Startup<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Safe Mode starts Windows using a limited set of drivers and services, making it useful when troubleshooting problems caused by incompatible drivers, startup applications, or other software issues. If a problem disappears in Safe Mode, the technician can investigate recently installed software, drivers, or startup components as potential causes. Sleep and hibernation are power-management states rather than troubleshooting environments. Fast Startup is designed to reduce boot time. Therefore, Safe Mode is the Windows feature specifically intended to provide a minimal operating environment for troubleshooting.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 250<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which Windows tool can be used to manage partitions, create volumes, and assign drive letters?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Device Manager<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Disk Management<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Task Scheduler<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Event Viewer<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Disk Management is a Windows administrative utility used to manage physical disks and logical storage volumes. Technicians can use it to initialize disks, create and delete partitions, format volumes, assign or change drive letters, and inspect storage capacity. Device Manager is used to manage hardware devices and drivers, Task Scheduler controls scheduled tasks, and Event Viewer provides access to event logs. Therefore, Disk Management is the appropriate Windows tool for partition and volume management.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 251<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      Which backup method stores changes made since the last full backup rather than since the previous backup?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Incremental<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Differential<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Full<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Mirror<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        A differential backup copies files that have changed since the most recent full backup. Each subsequent differential backup includes all changes made since that original full backup, so the amount of data can grow as the backup cycle progresses. During restoration, the technician generally needs the original full backup and the latest differential backup. Incremental backups instead capture changes since the previous backup. A full backup copies all selected data, while a mirror backup maintains a direct copy of selected files. Therefore, differential is the correct backup method.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 252<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which type of connector is commonly used for analog video output from older computers to displays?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. DisplayPort<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. HDMI<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. VGA<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. USB-C<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          VGA, or Video Graphics Array, is a legacy analog video interface commonly found on older computers and displays. It typically uses a 15-pin connector and carries analog video signals. VGA does not normally transmit digital audio and has largely been replaced by interfaces such as HDMI and DisplayPort. USB-C can carry display signals when the appropriate alternate mode and hardware support are available. Therefore, VGA is the connector associated with traditional analog video output from older computer systems.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 253<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          Which type of connector is commonly used with SATA data cables inside a desktop computer?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. 7-pin SATA connector<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. 8P8C connector<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. 15-pin VGA connector<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. 24-pin ATX connector<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            A standard SATA data connection commonly uses a 7-pin SATA connector. SATA data cables connect compatible storage devices such as SATA hard drives and SATA SSDs to the motherboard or storage controller. SATA power connectors are separate and use a wider 15-pin design. An 8P8C connector is commonly used for Ethernet, a 15-pin connector is associated with VGA, and the 24-pin ATX connector provides motherboard power from the PSU. Therefore, the 7-pin SATA connector is used for SATA data communication.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 254<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which wireless standard operates in the 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and potentially 6 GHz ranges depending on the implementation and generation?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Bluetooth<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Wi-Fi<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. NFC<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Infrared<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Wi-Fi is a family of wireless networking technologies that operates across different frequency bands depending on the supported standard and device. Modern Wi-Fi generations can use the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz bands, while newer implementations can also use the 6 GHz band. Bluetooth is designed primarily for short-range personal-area connectivity, NFC operates at very short distances, and infrared uses light rather than radio-frequency communication. Therefore, Wi-Fi is the wireless networking technology described by the question.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 255<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              Which device is designed to provide temporary battery power to a computer during a power outage?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. Surge protector<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Power strip<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. UPS<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Voltage regulator<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                An uninterruptible power supply, or UPS, provides temporary battery power when normal electrical power is interrupted. This allows a computer and connected equipment to remain operational long enough for the user to save work and shut down safely, depending on the UPS capacity and connected load. Many UPS units also provide power conditioning and surge protection. A standard power strip does not provide battery backup, while a surge protector primarily protects against voltage spikes. Therefore, a UPS is the device designed for temporary backup power.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 256<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                Which type of attack attempts to overwhelm a service or network with traffic from many compromised systems?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. DDoS<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Brute-force<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Phishing<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Shoulder surfing<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  A distributed denial-of-service, or DDoS, attack attempts to make a service unavailable by overwhelming it with traffic or requests from multiple systems. Attackers may use a network of compromised devices, often called a botnet, to generate large volumes of traffic toward the target. A brute-force attack attempts to guess credentials, phishing uses deceptive communications to obtain information, and shoulder surfing involves observing sensitive information directly. Therefore, DDoS is the attack type characterized by coordinated traffic from many systems overwhelming a target.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 257<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  Which security technology can require a user to provide both a password and a fingerprint before granting access?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Single sign-on<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Multifactor authentication<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Guest authentication<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Open authentication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Multifactor authentication requires authentication evidence from multiple factor categories. A password represents something the user knows, while a fingerprint represents something the user is. Combining these factors provides stronger authentication than relying on a password alone. Single sign-on allows users to access multiple services after authenticating through a centralized system but does not inherently require multiple factors. Guest and open authentication provide less restrictive access models. Therefore, requiring both a password and fingerprint is an example of multifactor authentication.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 258<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    Which technology allows a user to connect multiple USB devices through a single USB port on a computer?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Docking station<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. USB hub<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. KVM switch<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Network switch<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      A USB hub expands one available USB connection into multiple USB ports, allowing several compatible peripherals to connect to a computer. Depending on the hub and connected devices, power and bandwidth may be shared among the attached peripherals. A docking station can provide a much broader range of connections, including displays, networking, and USB, while a KVM switch is designed to share a keyboard, video display, and mouse among computers. A network switch handles Ethernet connections. Therefore, a USB hub provides the described expansion.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 259<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      Which troubleshooting approach should a technician use when a newly installed component causes a previously working system to fail?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Replace every component immediately<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Ignore the new component<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Remove or disconnect the new component and test the system<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Delete all user data<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        When a problem appears immediately after a hardware change, the recently installed component should be considered a likely cause. A technician can remove or disconnect the new component and test whether the original problem disappears. This process helps isolate the cause while avoiding unnecessary replacement of unrelated hardware. After isolation, the technician can verify compatibility, seating, power requirements, firmware settings, and drivers as appropriate. Therefore, temporarily removing the new component is a useful troubleshooting step for identifying whether it caused the failure.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 260<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        Which practice helps protect a computer technician from electrostatic discharge when installing internal components?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Wearing an antistatic wrist strap correctly<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Working on carpet while wearing socks<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Touching component contacts directly<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Placing components on a plastic bag<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          An antistatic wrist strap, when correctly connected to an appropriate grounding point, helps reduce the buildup of static electricity and lowers the risk of electrostatic discharge damaging sensitive electronic components. Technicians should also work on suitable surfaces and handle components by their edges where practical. Carpet and uncontrolled static sources can increase ESD risk, while touching electrical contacts can contaminate or damage them. Plastic bags that are not specifically designed for ESD protection can also create risks. Therefore, properly using an antistatic wrist strap is a recommended precaution.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps.   Question 241 Which component converts household AC power into the DC voltages required by internal computer components? UPS Voltage regulator PSU Inverter Correct Answer: 3 Explanation The power supply unit, or PSU, converts incoming alternating current from a wall outlet into the direct-current voltages […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20352"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=20352"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20352\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":20353,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20352\/revisions\/20353"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=20352"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=20352"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=20352"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}