{"id":20358,"date":"2026-09-23T12:44:07","date_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:44:07","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=20358"},"modified":"2026-09-23T12:44:07","modified_gmt":"2026-09-23T12:44:07","slug":"comptia-a-220-1201-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part16-q301-320","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-a-220-1201-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part16-q301-320\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part16 Q301-320"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps.<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 301<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which connector is commonly used to provide power to a modern desktop motherboard from the PSU?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. 24-pin ATX<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. 4-pin Molex<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. 7-pin SATA<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. 8P8C<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    The 24-pin ATX connector is the primary motherboard power connection used by most modern desktop power supplies. It delivers multiple DC voltage rails and power signals required by the motherboard and its connected components. Additional CPU power connectors, such as 4-pin or 8-pin EPS connections, may also be required separately. SATA power connectors provide power to compatible storage devices, while 8P8C connectors are commonly used for Ethernet networking. Therefore, the 24-pin ATX connector is the primary motherboard power connection.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 302<\/b><\/h3>\n

    Which technology allows a computer to use a portion of its storage drive as additional memory when physical RAM is insufficient?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. RAID<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. Virtual memory<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Disk mirroring<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Compression<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      Virtual memory allows an operating system to use part of a storage device as an extension of physical RAM. When available RAM becomes limited, the operating system can move less-active memory contents to a paging file or similar storage area, freeing physical memory for other tasks. Storage is considerably slower than RAM, so excessive reliance on virtual memory can reduce system performance. RAID provides storage redundancy or performance benefits, mirroring duplicates data, and compression reduces data size. Therefore, virtual memory provides the described capability.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 303<\/b><\/h3>\n

      Which device allows one keyboard, monitor, and mouse to control multiple computers?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. USB hub<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. Docking station<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. KVM switch<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Network switch<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        A KVM switch, meaning Keyboard, Video, and Mouse switch, allows a single set of input and display devices to control multiple computers. The technician or user can switch between connected systems without requiring separate keyboards, monitors, and mice for each computer. A USB hub expands USB connectivity, a docking station provides multiple connections for a computer, and a network switch connects network devices. Therefore, a KVM switch is specifically designed to share keyboard, video, and mouse access among multiple computers.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 304<\/b><\/h3>\n

        Which storage device uses spinning magnetic platters and mechanical read\/write heads?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. SSD<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. NVMe drive<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. USB flash drive<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. HDD<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          A hard disk drive, or HDD, stores data magnetically on spinning platters and uses mechanical read\/write heads to access that data. Because HDDs contain moving parts, they are generally more susceptible to physical shock and vibration than solid-state storage devices. SSDs, NVMe drives, and USB flash drives use flash memory and have no spinning magnetic platters. HDDs remain useful where high capacity at relatively low cost is important. Therefore, an HDD is the storage technology described in the question.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 305<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which component helps prevent a CPU from overheating by transferring heat away from its surface?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Heat sink<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. CMOS battery<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. NIC<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. Sound card<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            A heat sink absorbs heat from the processor and distributes it across a larger surface area so that airflow can remove the heat more effectively. Many CPU cooling systems combine a heat sink with a fan, while others may use liquid cooling components. Thermal compound is typically applied between the processor and heat sink to improve heat transfer by filling microscopic gaps. The CMOS battery maintains certain motherboard functions when power is removed, while a NIC and sound card provide networking and audio capabilities. Therefore, the heat sink performs the described cooling function.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 306<\/b><\/h3>\n

            Which type of memory can detect and correct certain single-bit errors and is commonly used in servers requiring high reliability?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. SDRAM<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. ECC memory<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. VRAM<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Cache<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              ECC, or Error-Correcting Code memory, includes additional information that allows the system to detect and correct certain memory errors. It is commonly used in servers, workstations, and other systems where data integrity and reliability are especially important. ECC memory can reduce the risk of undetected memory corruption caused by certain transient errors. VRAM is primarily associated with graphics processing, cache memory provides very fast temporary storage for processors, and ordinary SDRAM does not necessarily provide ECC capabilities. Therefore, ECC memory is the correct choice.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 307<\/b><\/h3>\n

              Which network device primarily connects wireless clients to a wired Ethernet network?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. Access point<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. Modem<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. Repeater<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. Patch panel<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                A wireless access point provides wireless connectivity to client devices and commonly bridges that wireless traffic to a wired Ethernet network. It allows laptops, smartphones, tablets, and other wireless devices to communicate with network resources through Wi-Fi. A modem provides access to certain service-provider networks, a repeater extends signals, and a patch panel is used for organizing and terminating network cabling. Access points may be standalone devices or integrated into wireless routers. Therefore, an access point performs the described network-connectivity function.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 308<\/b><\/h3>\n

                Which cable type is commonly used for cable television and broadband connections and has a central conductor surrounded by shielding?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Twisted-pair<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Fiber-optic<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. Coaxial<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Serial<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Coaxial cable contains a central conductive core surrounded by insulation, a conductive shielding layer, and an outer protective jacket. This construction provides protection against electromagnetic interference and makes coaxial cable suitable for applications such as cable television, broadband internet, and certain antenna systems. Twisted-pair cable uses pairs of conductors twisted together, fiber-optic cable transmits data using light, and serial cables use electrical signaling for compatible devices. Therefore, coaxial cable is the cable type described.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 309<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  Which protocol automatically synchronizes the system clock with a network time source?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. DHCP<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. DNS<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. NTP<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. SMB<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Network Time Protocol, or NTP, synchronizes computer clocks with trusted time sources across a network. Accurate time is important for authentication, security logs, scheduled tasks, certificates, and troubleshooting because inconsistent timestamps can make events difficult to correlate. DHCP can provide certain network configuration information, DNS resolves names, and SMB supports file and printer sharing. NTP is commonly configured to communicate with designated time servers so systems can maintain reasonably accurate clocks. Therefore, NTP is the protocol responsible for network-based time synchronization.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 310<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which Windows command displays the current IP configuration of a computer?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. ipconfig<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. ping<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. tracert<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. netstat<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      The ipconfig command displays network configuration information for Windows network interfaces. Depending on the options used, it can show IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, DNS-related information, and DHCP status. It is commonly used when diagnosing connectivity and addressing problems. Ping tests reachability, tracert displays the path packets take toward a destination, and netstat displays network connections and listening ports. Therefore, ipconfig is the appropriate command for viewing the computer’s current IP configuration.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 311<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      Which type of network address uniquely identifies a network interface at the data-link layer?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. IP address<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. MAC address<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. DNS name<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. URL<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        A Media Access Control, or MAC, address identifies a network interface at the data-link layer. Ethernet and Wi-Fi interfaces use MAC addressing for local network communication, while switches commonly use MAC addresses to determine where Ethernet frames should be forwarded. An IP address provides logical network-layer addressing, DNS names identify systems or services through name resolution, and URLs identify resources and access methods. Therefore, the MAC address is the identifier associated with a network interface at the data-link layer.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 312<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        Which backup method generally requires the least amount of storage for each individual backup when changes are relatively small?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Full<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Differential<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Incremental<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Mirror<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Incremental backups save only data that has changed since the previous backup. When changes between backup operations are relatively small, each individual incremental backup can require significantly less storage than a full or differential backup. This can also reduce the time needed to perform each backup. The tradeoff is that a complete restoration may require the original full backup plus multiple incremental sets in the correct sequence. Differential backups continue accumulating changes since the last full backup. Therefore, incremental backups generally require the least storage per individual backup.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 313<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          Which security control is designed to prevent unauthorized viewing of information displayed on a laptop screen from an angle?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. Privacy filter<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Cable lock<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Badge reader<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Surge protector<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            A privacy filter is a physical screen accessory designed to restrict the viewing angle of a display. It allows the person directly in front of the screen to see the content clearly while making the display difficult to view from the sides. This can help protect sensitive information when a laptop is used in public areas, offices, airports, or other shared environments. A cable lock secures physical equipment, a badge reader controls access to areas, and a surge protector protects against certain electrical disturbances. Therefore, a privacy filter provides the described protection.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 314<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            Which authentication method uses a physical characteristic such as a fingerprint or facial pattern?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Password authentication<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. Token authentication<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Biometric authentication<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. PIN authentication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Biometric authentication uses measurable physical or behavioral characteristics to verify a person’s identity. Common examples include fingerprints, facial recognition, iris patterns, and sometimes voice characteristics. Unlike passwords and PINs, biometric factors represent something the user is. Physical tokens generally represent something the user has. Biometric authentication can improve convenience and security when implemented properly, although organizations should consider privacy, device capabilities, and fallback authentication methods. Therefore, biometric authentication is the method described.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 315<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              Which type of malware can independently replicate across networks without requiring a user to manually execute the malicious program on every target?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. Trojan<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Worm<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. Spyware<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Adware<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                A worm is malware capable of self-replication and propagation across systems or networks without requiring the same manual execution process associated with many other types of malware. Worms can exploit vulnerabilities, weak credentials, or other weaknesses to spread from one system to another. A Trojan disguises itself as legitimate software, spyware secretly collects information, and adware primarily displays unwanted advertising. Because worms can spread rapidly, timely patching, network segmentation, access controls, and security monitoring are important defensive measures. Therefore, the malware described is a worm.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 316<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                Which physical security device can secure a laptop to a desk or other fixed object using a security cable?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. Privacy filter<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Smart card<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Kensington-style cable lock<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Badge reader<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  A Kensington-style cable lock is designed to physically secure compatible laptops and other equipment to a fixed object such as a desk. The cable typically attaches to a security slot on the device and wraps around a stationary structure, making opportunistic theft more difficult. A privacy filter protects displayed information from side viewing, a smart card is an authentication device, and a badge reader controls access to secured areas. Therefore, a Kensington-style cable lock provides the physical theft-prevention function described.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 317<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  Which Windows utility can identify applications and processes that are consuming excessive memory?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Task Manager<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Disk Management<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Device Manager<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Registry Editor<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Task Manager provides information about running applications and processes, including their memory, CPU, disk, network, and other resource usage. A technician can sort the processes by memory consumption to identify applications that may be using unusually large amounts of RAM. This is useful when diagnosing slow performance, application instability, or memory exhaustion. Disk Management handles storage volumes, Device Manager manages hardware and drivers, and Registry Editor modifies Windows configuration data. Therefore, Task Manager is the appropriate utility for identifying high memory usage.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 318<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    Which Windows recovery option is most appropriate for restoring a computer from a previously created complete system image?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Disk Cleanup<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. System Image Recovery<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Task Scheduler<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Safe Mode<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      System Image Recovery is designed to restore a Windows installation from a previously created system image. A system image can contain the operating system, installed applications, system settings, and data included when the image was created. This differs from System Restore, which primarily rolls back selected system components and configuration information to an earlier restore point. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, Task Scheduler manages scheduled activities, and Safe Mode starts Windows with limited drivers and services. Therefore, System Image Recovery is appropriate for restoring a complete system image.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 319<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      Which type of storage redundancy writes identical data to two drives so that the data remains available if one drive fails?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. RAID 0<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. RAID 5<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. RAID 1<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. JBOD<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        RAID 1 uses mirroring to write the same data to two drives. If one drive fails, the remaining mirrored drive can continue providing access to the stored data, assuming the array is otherwise healthy. RAID 1 therefore emphasizes redundancy rather than maximizing usable capacity. RAID 0 stripes data across drives without providing redundancy, RAID 5 uses distributed parity across multiple drives, and JBOD generally combines drives without providing the same mirroring behavior. Therefore, RAID 1 provides the described duplicate-data protection.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 320<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        A technician determines that a computer problem was caused by a recently installed application. What should the technician do after confirming the diagnosis?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Disable all networking permanently<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Remove the identified application and verify system operation<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Replace the motherboard<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Delete all user files<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Once a recently installed application has been confirmed as the cause of a problem, the technician should remove or uninstall the problematic software and then test the system to verify that normal operation has been restored. If necessary, the technician can investigate compatible versions, updates, or alternative software after resolving the immediate issue. Replacing unrelated hardware or deleting user files would be unnecessary and potentially harmful. Therefore, removing the identified application and verifying system functionality is the appropriate corrective action.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full CompTIA 220-1201 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps.   Question 301 Which connector is commonly used to provide power to a modern desktop motherboard from the PSU? 24-pin ATX 4-pin Molex 7-pin SATA 8P8C Correct Answer: 1 Explanation The 24-pin ATX connector is the primary motherboard power connection used by most modern desktop […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20358"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=20358"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20358\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":20359,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/20358\/revisions\/20359"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=20358"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=20358"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=20358"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}