{"id":22581,"date":"2026-09-26T06:18:33","date_gmt":"2026-09-26T06:18:33","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=22581"},"modified":"2026-09-26T06:18:33","modified_gmt":"2026-09-26T06:18:33","slug":"checkpoint-156-590-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-14-q261-280","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/checkpoint-156-590-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part-14-q261-280\/","title":{"rendered":"Checkpoint 156-590 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part 14 Q261-280"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>Checkpoint 156-590 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h1>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 261. Which Threat Prevention profile setting determines whether a protection is applied according to the potential severity of the detected threat?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. <\/b> Confidence<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. <\/b> Protected Scope<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. <\/b> Severity<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. <\/b> Track<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 3. Severity<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

    Threat severity is an important characteristic used when determining how Threat Prevention protections should behave. It represents the potential significance of a threat identified by a protection. Administrators can configure profile behavior so that protections associated with different severity levels receive different treatment. Severity works together with other profile characteristics, such as confidence and performance impact, to establish an appropriate security posture. A high-severity threat may require more aggressive prevention than a lower-severity event. Understanding severity is therefore important when reviewing why a protection is operating in Prevent or Detect mode and when tuning a Threat Prevention Profile for an organization’s requirements.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 262. Which Check Point component is responsible for maintaining the centralized configuration of Threat Prevention policies and profiles?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. <\/b> Security Management Server<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. <\/b> Security Gateway<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. <\/b> ThreatCloud<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. <\/b> SmartEvent Server<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 1. Security Management Server<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

      The Security Management Server provides centralized management for Check Point security configurations, including policies, objects, and Threat Prevention settings. Administrators use management tools such as SmartConsole to configure these settings and then install the resulting policy on the appropriate Security Gateways. The Security Gateway performs the actual traffic inspection and enforcement, while the Security Management Server serves as the central management component. ThreatCloud provides threat intelligence rather than acting as the organization’s primary policy-management repository. SmartEvent focuses on event analysis and correlation. Keeping these roles distinct is important when troubleshooting configuration, policy installation, and Threat Prevention behavior.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 263. An administrator wants to apply Threat Prevention only to selected Security Gateways rather than every gateway managed by the Security Management Server. Which part of the Threat Prevention rule is most relevant?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. <\/b> Track<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. <\/b> Action<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. <\/b> Service<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. <\/b> Install On<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 4. Install On<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

        The Install On field identifies the Security Gateways on which a policy rule is installed and enforced. When configuring Threat Prevention rules, administrators can use this field to determine which gateways should receive the applicable policy. This is different from the Source and Destination fields, which identify traffic endpoints, and from Track, which controls event logging behavior. Selecting the appropriate gateways is particularly important in environments containing multiple Security Gateways with different security requirements. A correctly configured Threat Prevention rule may still produce unexpected results if it is not installed on the gateway handling the traffic being investigated.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 264. Which Threat Prevention capability is intended to identify and stop communication between infected hosts and malicious command-and-control infrastructure?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. <\/b> Threat Extraction<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. <\/b> Anti-Bot<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. <\/b> Threat Emulation<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. <\/b> Anti-Virus<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 2. Anti-Bot<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

          Anti-Bot is designed to detect and prevent communication associated with botnet activity. When a workstation becomes infected, malware may attempt to contact command-and-control infrastructure to receive instructions, transmit information, or participate in malicious activity. Anti-Bot protections use Check Point security intelligence and detection mechanisms to identify this type of communication. Anti-Virus has a different primary purpose and focuses on detecting malicious software, while Threat Emulation analyzes suspicious files in a controlled environment. Threat Extraction sanitizes potentially dangerous file content. Therefore, communication with botnet command-and-control infrastructure is most directly addressed by Anti-Bot protection.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 265. What is the primary purpose of the Threat Prevention policy rule’s Protected Scope?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. <\/b> To identify the traffic or resources to which Threat Prevention should be applied<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. <\/b> To define the administrator’s permissions<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. <\/b> To configure the Security Gateway’s hostname<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. <\/b> To select the SmartConsole interface language<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1. To identify the traffic or resources to which Threat Prevention should be applied<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

            Protected Scope identifies the traffic, networks, hosts, or other relevant entities that should receive Threat Prevention inspection according to the configured policy. This allows administrators to limit or target protection rather than automatically applying identical inspection to every possible traffic flow. Protected Scope should be considered together with other rule elements, including the applicable Threat Prevention Profile and gateway installation settings. Correctly defining the scope is important because an otherwise correctly configured profile may not protect the traffic an administrator expects if that traffic falls outside the rule’s intended scope. Scope configuration therefore plays an important role in effective Threat Prevention deployment.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 266. Which protection is most closely associated with identifying malicious files using known malware signatures and related detection mechanisms?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. <\/b> Threat Extraction<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. <\/b> Anti-Bot<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. <\/b> Anti-Virus<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. <\/b> SmartEvent<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 3. Anti-Virus<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

              Anti-Virus is primarily intended to identify and protect against malware, including known malicious files and related threats. Signature-based detection is one of the traditional mechanisms used to recognize known malware, while additional security intelligence and inspection capabilities can improve protection against evolving threats. Anti-Bot addresses botnet communications, Threat Extraction sanitizes potentially dangerous files, and SmartEvent provides event analysis rather than direct malware prevention. Administrators should understand these functional distinctions when analyzing Threat Prevention events. If an event concerns a malicious file identified through antivirus protection, the Anti-Virus configuration and the applicable Threat Prevention Profile should be reviewed.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 267. An administrator changes a Threat Prevention Profile but the Security Gateway continues using the previous behavior. What should be verified before troubleshooting the protection itself?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. <\/b> Whether the gateway’s hostname was changed<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. <\/b> Whether the updated policy was installed on the gateway<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. <\/b> Whether SmartConsole was minimized<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. <\/b> Whether the administrator changed the network object name<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 2. Whether the updated policy was installed on the gateway<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                Changes made in the Security Management Server do not necessarily become active on a Security Gateway until the relevant policy is successfully installed. When troubleshooting a configuration change that appears to have no effect, administrators should first verify that the correct Threat Prevention policy was installed on the gateway processing the traffic. They should also confirm that the expected profile and rule are included in that policy. This distinction between management configuration and gateway enforcement is fundamental to Check Point administration. A correctly configured profile can appear ineffective if the gateway continues operating with an older installed policy.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 268. Which Threat Prevention technology can provide a sanitized version of a document by removing potentially dangerous active content?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. <\/b> Anti-Bot<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. <\/b> IPS<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. <\/b> ThreatCloud<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. <\/b> Threat Extraction<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 4. Threat Extraction<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Threat Extraction is designed to reduce the risk associated with potentially dangerous file content by sanitizing files. It can remove active or potentially malicious components while preserving usable content where possible. This provides users with a safer version of a document instead of relying solely on detecting whether the original file is malicious. Threat Emulation uses a different approach by analyzing suspicious files in an isolated environment. Anti-Bot focuses on botnet communication, while ThreatCloud supplies threat intelligence. Threat Extraction is therefore particularly relevant when an organization wants to reduce the risk of malicious active content embedded within files delivered to users.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 269. Which configuration factor indicates how reliably a Threat Prevention protection can identify a suspected attack?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Confidence<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. <\/b> Severity<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. <\/b> Performance Impact<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. <\/b> Protected Scope<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1. Confidence<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Confidence represents how reliably a protection can identify activity as malicious. Threat Prevention Profiles use confidence as one of the characteristics that can influence protection behavior. A protection with stronger confidence in its detection may be treated differently from one where identification is less certain. Confidence should not be confused with severity: severity concerns the potential significance of the threat, whereas confidence concerns the reliability of the detection. Performance Impact describes the expected resource cost of a protection. Understanding these distinctions helps administrators interpret profile behavior and make informed configuration adjustments when balancing security coverage, detection accuracy, and gateway performance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 270. Which component is primarily used to analyze and correlate security events rather than directly inspect traffic for Threat Prevention enforcement?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. <\/b> Threat Emulation<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. <\/b> Security Gateway<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. <\/b> SmartEvent<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. <\/b> Anti-Virus<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 3. SmartEvent<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                      SmartEvent is designed for security event analysis and correlation. It collects and analyzes security events to help administrators identify significant activity, trends, and potential incidents across the environment. The Security Gateway, in contrast, performs traffic inspection and enforces installed security policies. Threat Emulation analyzes suspicious files, while Anti-Virus focuses on malware detection. SmartEvent can therefore provide valuable operational visibility into Threat Prevention activity without being the component responsible for directly enforcing the underlying prevention decision on network traffic. Understanding this distinction helps administrators identify the correct tool when investigating security events.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 271. What is the expected behavior when an IPS protection is configured for Detect rather than Prevent?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. <\/b> The protection is removed from the profile<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. <\/b> The gateway blocks every connection<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. <\/b> The Security Management Server shuts down the protection<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. <\/b> The activity is detected and logged without being actively blocked by that protection<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 4. The activity is detected and logged without being actively blocked by that protection<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Detect mode is intended to provide visibility into suspicious activity without actively preventing the detected traffic through that protection. Events can be logged so administrators can review the nature, frequency, and context of the activity. This can be useful during policy tuning or when evaluating the potential impact of enabling active prevention. Prevent mode has a different purpose because it is intended to stop traffic identified by the protection. When reviewing an IPS event, administrators should therefore check the configured protection mode and applicable profile rather than assuming that every detected event was blocked.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 272. Which object type is most appropriate for representing a collection of individual hosts when configuring Threat Prevention policy rules?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. <\/b> Service Group<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. <\/b> Host Group<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. <\/b> Address Range<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. <\/b> Service Object<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 2. Host Group<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                          A Host Group represents a collection of individual Host objects and can simplify policy configuration when the same group of hosts requires identical treatment. Instead of adding many individual host objects to multiple rules, an administrator can create or use a Host Group and reference it in the appropriate policy rule. An Address Range represents a consecutive range of IP addresses, while a Service Group contains service objects rather than hosts. A Service Object represents a particular protocol or service definition. Using appropriate object types improves policy readability and makes security configuration easier to maintain.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 273. Which Threat Prevention protection is designed to analyze potentially malicious file behavior in an isolated environment?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. <\/b> Threat Emulation<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. <\/b> Threat Extraction<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. <\/b> Anti-Bot<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. <\/b> SmartEvent<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1. Threat Emulation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Threat Emulation uses a controlled environment to analyze suspicious files and observe their behavior. This approach can help identify malicious characteristics that may not be apparent from static inspection alone. It is particularly useful for detecting advanced or previously unknown threats that may attempt to evade traditional signature-based detection. Threat Extraction takes a different approach by sanitizing files and removing potentially dangerous active content. Anti-Bot focuses on command-and-control communications, while SmartEvent provides event analysis and correlation. Therefore, behavioral analysis of a suspicious file in an isolated environment is the primary role of Threat Emulation.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 274. In a Threat Prevention rule, which element determines whether detected activity should be recorded for administrative review?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Source<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. <\/b> Destination<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. <\/b> Track<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. <\/b> Install On<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 3. Track<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                              The Track field controls how the rule’s activity is recorded and tracked. Depending on the selected tracking option, administrators can generate logs or other tracking information for security events. This is important for monitoring Threat Prevention activity and investigating suspicious behavior after a rule has been applied. Track does not determine the traffic endpoints; Source and Destination perform that function. Install On identifies the gateways where the policy is installed. When investigating missing or unexpected security events, administrators should therefore verify the rule’s Track setting along with the applicable profile and gateway configuration.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 275. Which statement best describes the role of ThreatCloud in a Check Point Threat Prevention deployment?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. <\/b> It replaces SmartConsole as the management interface<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. <\/b> It provides threat intelligence that can support security detection and prevention<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. <\/b> It assigns IP addresses to Security Gateways<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. <\/b> It creates network objects automatically for every host<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 2. It provides threat intelligence that can support security detection and prevention<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                                ThreatCloud provides Check Point threat intelligence that can support multiple security technologies and detection mechanisms. Threat intelligence can include information about malicious files, domains, addresses, and other indicators associated with security threats. Security protections can use this information to improve their ability to identify and respond to suspicious activity. ThreatCloud is not the primary graphical management interface; that role belongs to SmartConsole. It also does not replace the Security Management Server or perform basic IP address assignment. Understanding ThreatCloud’s role helps administrators distinguish intelligence services from policy-management and enforcement components.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 276. What is a key reason an administrator might choose a custom Threat Prevention Profile instead of relying exclusively on a predefined profile?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> To remove the requirement for policy installation<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. <\/b> To eliminate the need for Security Gateways<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. <\/b> To replace SmartConsole with another management platform<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. <\/b> To tailor protection behavior and coverage to specific organizational requirements<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 4. To tailor protection behavior and coverage to specific organizational requirements<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Custom Threat Prevention Profiles provide administrators with greater control over how protections are applied. Different organizations may have different security requirements, traffic patterns, performance constraints, or risk tolerances. A custom profile allows administrators to adjust protection behavior according to those requirements instead of using exactly the same predefined configuration everywhere. This does not eliminate the need for a Security Management Server or Security Gateway, nor does it bypass policy installation. The purpose of customization is to establish an appropriate and manageable Threat Prevention configuration while maintaining the organization’s required level of security inspection.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 277. An administrator wants to determine whether a Threat Prevention event was generated by Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, or another protection. What information should be reviewed?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> The protection or blade identified in the event details<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. <\/b> The SmartConsole window dimensions<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. <\/b> The administrator’s username only<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. <\/b> The gateway’s operating-system timezone only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1. The protection or blade identified in the event details<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Threat Prevention events contain information that helps administrators identify the protection responsible for detecting or handling the activity. Reviewing the event details can reveal whether the event originated from Anti-Bot, Anti-Virus, IPS, Threat Emulation, or another protection. This information is useful when troubleshooting because each protection has different functions and configuration settings. Administrators should then correlate the event with the applicable Threat Prevention Profile and policy rule. Unrelated information, such as SmartConsole display settings, does not identify the security protection responsible for the event.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 278. Which statement correctly describes the relationship between Detect and Prevent behavior in Threat Prevention?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> Detect always disables logging<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. <\/b> Prevent only records events and never blocks them<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. <\/b> Detect provides visibility without active blocking, while Prevent is intended to stop identified malicious activity<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. <\/b> Detect and Prevent are identical settings with different names<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 3. Detect provides visibility without active blocking, while Prevent is intended to stop identified malicious activity<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Detect and Prevent represent different protection behaviors. Detect mode is generally used when administrators want to identify and record suspicious activity while allowing the traffic to continue through that protection. Prevent mode is intended to actively stop activity identified as malicious by the protection. This distinction is important during deployment because changing from Detect to Prevent can alter how the gateway handles traffic. Administrators should review the relevant Threat Prevention Profile, rule, and event information when determining which behavior is currently active. A detected event alone does not necessarily mean that the traffic was blocked.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 279. Which Check Point component performs the actual enforcement of an installed Threat Prevention policy against network traffic?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> SmartConsole<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. <\/b> Security Gateway<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. <\/b> SmartEvent<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. <\/b> ThreatCloud<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 2. Security Gateway<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        The Security Gateway is responsible for inspecting network traffic and enforcing the security policies installed on it. The Security Management Server centrally manages policies and configuration, while SmartConsole provides the graphical interface administrators use to configure and manage those settings. ThreatCloud supplies threat intelligence, and SmartEvent focuses on event analysis and correlation. Once a Threat Prevention policy is configured and installed, the Security Gateway uses the resulting configuration to inspect applicable traffic and apply the configured protection behavior. This distinction between centralized management and local enforcement is fundamental to understanding Check Point security architecture.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 280. An administrator wants a Threat Prevention configuration that balances security coverage with gateway resource consumption. Which profile characteristics should be considered together?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> Source, Destination, and Service<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. <\/b> Hostname, SIC, and administrator role<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. <\/b> Track, Install On, and Action<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. <\/b> Severity, confidence, and performance impact<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 4. Severity, confidence, and performance impact<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation :-<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Threat Prevention Profiles use characteristics such as threat severity, detection confidence, and performance impact to help determine protection behavior. Severity reflects the potential significance of a threat, confidence indicates how reliably a protection can identify malicious activity, and performance impact represents the expected processing cost associated with the protection. Considering these factors together allows administrators to balance security coverage with operational requirements. Source, Destination, and Service identify traffic characteristics in policy rules, while Track and Install On serve different policy-management purposes. Understanding these profile characteristics is therefore important when tuning Threat Prevention for both effective protection and acceptable gateway performance.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full Checkpoint 156-590 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 261. Which Threat Prevention profile setting determines whether a protection is applied according to the potential severity of the detected threat? Confidence Protected Scope Severity Track Correct Answer: 3. Severity Explanation :- Threat severity is an important characteristic used when determining how Threat […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/22581"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=22581"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/22581\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":22582,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/22581\/revisions\/22582"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=22581"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=22581"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=22581"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}