{"id":23648,"date":"2026-09-28T08:11:59","date_gmt":"2026-09-28T08:11:59","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=23648"},"modified":"2026-09-28T08:11:59","modified_gmt":"2026-09-28T08:11:59","slug":"comptia-a-220-1102-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part2-q21-40","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-a-220-1102-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part2-q21-40\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part2 Q21-40"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 21.<\/b><\/p>\n

Which Windows utility should a technician use to create, delete, extend, or shrink disk partitions?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. <\/b> Disk Management<\/span>
    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Event Viewer<\/span>
    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Task Scheduler<\/span>
    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Services<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    Disk Management is the Windows graphical utility used to manage disks, partitions, and volumes. A technician can initialize disks, create or delete volumes, assign drive letters, format supported volumes, and extend or shrink partitions when the underlying disk layout allows it. Event Viewer is used to review logs, Task Scheduler automates tasks, and Services controls background services. Because partitioning and volume management can affect stored data, technicians should confirm backups and understand the current disk configuration before making changes. Disk Management is the standard administrative tool for common storage-layout tasks in Windows.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 22.<\/b><\/p>\n

    Which Windows command refreshes Group Policy settings without requiring the user to wait for the normal background update interval?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. <\/b> gpresult<\/span>
      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> gpupdate<\/span>
      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> chkdsk<\/span>
      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> shutdown<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      The <\/span>gpupdate<\/span> command refreshes applicable Group Policy settings on a Windows computer. It is commonly used after policy changes when a technician wants the workstation or user session to process the new configuration sooner than the normal refresh cycle. <\/span>gpresult<\/span> displays information about applied Group Policy settings rather than refreshing them. <\/span>chkdsk<\/span> checks file-system integrity, while <\/span>shutdown<\/span> controls system shutdown or restart operations. When troubleshooting whether a newly configured policy has reached a workstation, <\/span>gpupdate<\/span> is one of the first useful commands to run.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 23.<\/b><\/p>\n

      Which Windows command displays the Group Policy settings that have been applied to a user or computer?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. <\/b> sfc<\/span>
        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> netstat<\/span>
        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> gpresult<\/span>
        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> format<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        The <\/span>gpresult<\/span> command reports Group Policy information for the local computer and user context. It can help technicians determine which policies were applied and troubleshoot cases where a workstation is not receiving the expected settings. Different switches can provide more detailed reporting. <\/span>sfc<\/span> checks Windows system files, <\/span>netstat<\/span> displays network connections and related statistics, and <\/span>format<\/span> prepares a volume for use and can destroy data. <\/span>gpresult<\/span> is therefore the appropriate diagnostic command when examining effective Group Policy configuration.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 24.<\/b><\/p>\n

        Which Windows utility allows a technician to start, stop, and configure background services?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. <\/b> Disk Cleanup<\/span>
          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Registry Editor<\/span>
          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Device Manager<\/span>
          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Services<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          The Services management console allows technicians to view Windows services, start or stop them, and configure their startup behavior. Services often run in the background and provide functions such as printing, networking, updates, and application support. If a required service is stopped or configured incorrectly, related features may fail. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, Registry Editor modifies registry settings, and Device Manager manages hardware devices and drivers. The Services console is therefore the correct tool for troubleshooting and configuring Windows background services.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 25.<\/b><\/p>\n

          Which Windows utility is most useful for configuring tasks to run automatically at a specific time or when a particular event occurs?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. <\/b> Task Scheduler<\/span>
            \n<\/span>2.<\/b> BitLocker<\/span>
            \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Disk Management<\/span>
            \n<\/span>4.<\/b> System Restore<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            Task Scheduler allows administrators to create automated tasks that run based on triggers such as a specific time, system startup, user logon, or certain system events. Tasks can launch programs, scripts, or other supported actions. This is useful for routine maintenance, reporting, scripted administration, and scheduled application operations. BitLocker provides drive encryption, Disk Management controls partitions and volumes, and System Restore rolls back selected system configuration changes. Task Scheduler is specifically designed for automating recurring or event-driven actions on Windows systems.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 26.<\/b><\/p>\n

            Which command should a technician use to test whether a remote host is reachable over an IP network?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. <\/b> tracert<\/span>
              \n<\/span>2.<\/b> ping<\/span>
              \n<\/span>3.<\/b> nslookup<\/span>
              \n<\/span>4.<\/b> net use<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              The <\/span>ping<\/span> command sends ICMP echo requests to a destination and, when permitted, receives replies that help verify basic IP connectivity. It is commonly used early in network troubleshooting to determine whether a device can reach another host. A failed ping does not always prove that the destination is offline because firewalls can block ICMP traffic. <\/span>tracert<\/span> displays the path toward a destination, <\/span>nslookup<\/span> tests DNS resolution, and <\/span>net use<\/span> manages network share connections. Ping is therefore the most direct command for a basic reachability test.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 27.<\/b><\/p>\n

              Which Windows command helps identify the network path and intermediate routers between a workstation and a remote destination?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. <\/b> hostname<\/span>
                \n<\/span>2.<\/b> tasklist<\/span>
                \n<\/span>3.<\/b> tracert<\/span>
                \n<\/span>4.<\/b> sfc<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                The <\/span>tracert<\/span> command traces the route packets take toward a destination and displays intermediate hops along the path. This can help identify where communication stops or where unusual latency occurs. It is useful when a remote service is unreachable even though local connectivity is functioning. <\/span>hostname<\/span> displays the local computer name, <\/span>tasklist<\/span> displays running processes, and <\/span>sfc<\/span> checks protected Windows system files. <\/span>tracert<\/span> is therefore the appropriate command when a technician needs visibility into the route between the source and destination.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 28.<\/b><\/p>\n

                Which Windows command is most appropriate for troubleshooting DNS name resolution?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. <\/b> chkdsk<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>2.<\/b> netstat<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>3.<\/b> taskkill<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>4.<\/b> nslookup<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  The <\/span>nslookup<\/span> command queries DNS servers and helps technicians determine whether hostnames are resolving to the expected IP addresses. It can also identify which DNS server is responding and help isolate name-resolution issues from general connectivity problems. <\/span>chkdsk<\/span> checks disks and file systems, <\/span>netstat<\/span> displays network connections and listening ports, and <\/span>taskkill<\/span> terminates processes. If a user can reach an IP address but cannot access the same system by hostname, <\/span>nslookup<\/span> is a useful tool for investigating DNS configuration and resolution.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 29.<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Which Windows command displays active network connections and listening ports?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. <\/b> netstat<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> gpupdate<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> format<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> shutdown<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    The <\/span>netstat<\/span> command displays network-related information such as active connections, listening ports, protocol statistics, and, with appropriate switches, associated process information. It is useful for troubleshooting connectivity, checking whether a service is listening on an expected port, or identifying unusual network activity. <\/span>gpupdate<\/span> refreshes Group Policy, <\/span>format<\/span> prepares a storage volume, and <\/span>shutdown<\/span> controls system power operations. Netstat is therefore a valuable command-line tool for examining current TCP\/IP connection activity on a Windows system.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 30.<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Which Windows command lists the processes currently running on the local computer?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. <\/b> nslookup<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> tasklist<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> tracert<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> gpresult<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      The <\/span>tasklist<\/span> command displays a list of processes currently running on the Windows system. It can show process names and identifiers and is useful when troubleshooting applications or preparing to terminate a specific process from the command line. <\/span>nslookup<\/span> investigates DNS, <\/span>tracert<\/span> traces network routes, and <\/span>gpresult<\/span> reports Group Policy information. Tasklist is particularly useful in command-line or remote administration scenarios where the graphical Task Manager may not be convenient or available.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 31.<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Which Windows command can be used to terminate a process by name or process ID?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. <\/b> tasklist<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> sfc<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> taskkill<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> net use<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        The <\/span>taskkill<\/span> command terminates processes from the Windows command line. A technician can target a process by its executable image name or process identifier, and additional switches can be used when needed. This is useful when an application is frozen or when remote or scripted administration is being performed. <\/span>tasklist<\/span> only displays processes, <\/span>sfc<\/span> checks protected system files, and <\/span>net use<\/span> manages network resources. Technicians should confirm the target before terminating a process because stopping critical system processes can affect stability.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 32.<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Which Windows feature allows a technician to return certain system files, registry settings, and drivers to an earlier configuration without normally affecting the user’s personal documents?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. <\/b> Disk Cleanup<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> BitLocker<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Storage Spaces<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> System Restore<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          System Restore uses restore points to roll back selected Windows system components, drivers, registry settings, and configuration changes to an earlier state. It is useful when a recently installed driver, application, or update causes system problems. Personal documents are generally not the target of System Restore, although users should still maintain separate backups for important data. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, BitLocker encrypts drives, and Storage Spaces provides storage pooling and resiliency. System Restore is specifically intended to reverse certain problematic system changes.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 33.<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Which Windows feature allows users to recover previous versions of files when File History has been properly configured?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. <\/b> File History<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Task Scheduler<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Device Manager<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Windows Firewall<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            File History can automatically save copies of user files to another storage location and allow recovery of previous versions. This is useful for accidental deletion, unwanted edits, or file corruption. It should not be viewed as a complete enterprise backup solution for all operating-system and application data, but it can provide convenient protection for user files. Task Scheduler automates tasks, Device Manager manages hardware, and Windows Firewall controls network communication. File History is specifically focused on maintaining recoverable versions of user data.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 34.<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Which type of Windows account normally has the broadest ability to install software and change system-wide settings?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Guest<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Administrator<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Standard user<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Local service only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              An Administrator account has elevated privileges that can be used to install applications, modify system-wide settings, manage accounts, and perform other administrative operations. Standard users have fewer permissions, which reduces the damage that accidental or malicious activity can cause. Guest accounts are highly restricted, and service accounts are used for specific system or application functions rather than normal interactive administration. Following the principle of least privilege, users should generally operate with standard permissions and elevate only when an administrative task actually requires it.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 35.<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Which Windows feature prompts users for approval or credentials when a process attempts to perform an action requiring elevated privileges?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. <\/b> EFS<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Windows Sandbox<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>3.<\/b> User Account Control<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Disk Cleanup<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                User Account Control, or UAC, helps reduce unauthorized administrative changes by prompting for consent or credentials when software attempts to perform tasks requiring elevation. Even users who belong to the local Administrators group normally work with a filtered token until elevation is approved. This reduces the likelihood that ordinary applications silently make system-wide changes. EFS provides file-level encryption, Windows Sandbox creates an isolated environment for temporary testing, and Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files. UAC is therefore a privilege-elevation control rather than an encryption or storage feature.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 36.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Which Windows security feature controls inbound and outbound network traffic according to configured rules?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> System Restore<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>2.<\/b> BitLocker<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Task Scheduler<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Windows Defender Firewall<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Windows Defender Firewall controls network traffic based on configured rules, profiles, applications, ports, protocols, and other criteria. It can help reduce unauthorized access to a workstation and limit exposure of unnecessary services. System Restore rolls back selected system changes, BitLocker provides drive encryption, and Task Scheduler automates tasks. Firewalls are an important host-security layer, but they should be combined with patching, endpoint protection, least privilege, and secure configuration. Disabling the firewall simply to solve a connectivity issue is generally less appropriate than identifying and correcting the required rule.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 37.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Which malware-remediation action should occur after a threat has been removed and the system is believed to be clean?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> Schedule scans and update security software<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disable all endpoint protection<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Restore every unknown application<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Reuse compromised credentials<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    After malware removal, technicians should update the operating system and security software, enable appropriate protection, schedule or perform additional scans, verify normal functionality, and educate the user if the infection involved unsafe behavior. The system should not simply be returned to service without confirming that protections are current. Disabling endpoint protection would increase risk, restoring unknown software could reintroduce malware, and compromised passwords should be changed rather than reused. Follow-up actions help reduce the chance that the same threat or vulnerability results in another infection.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 38.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Which security control helps prevent repeated password-guessing attempts by temporarily disabling an account after too many failed sign-ins?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> Password history<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Account lockout policy<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> File encryption<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Screen saver timeout only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      An account lockout policy can temporarily lock an account after a configured number of failed login attempts. This helps reduce the effectiveness of repeated online password-guessing attacks. Organizations must balance security and usability because overly aggressive thresholds can create denial-of-service problems when legitimate users make mistakes or attackers intentionally trigger lockouts. Password history prevents reuse of recent passwords, while file encryption protects data confidentiality. A screen saver timeout can reduce unattended-access risk but does not directly stop repeated authentication attempts.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 39.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Which security practice is most appropriate before disposing of a storage drive containing confidential company data?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> Rename the files<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Delete the desktop shortcuts<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Sanitize or physically destroy the drive according to policy<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Move the files to the Recycle Bin<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Sensitive storage devices should be sanitized or physically destroyed according to organizational policy and the sensitivity of the data. Simply deleting files, emptying the Recycle Bin, or reformatting a drive may leave recoverable information behind. Appropriate sanitization methods can include secure erasure, cryptographic erase where suitable, degaussing for compatible magnetic media, or physical destruction. The exact method depends on the storage technology, regulatory requirements, and company policy. Proper media disposal prevents confidential information from being recovered after hardware leaves organizational control.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 40.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        A technician has implemented a solution to a user’s issue and confirmed that the original problem no longer occurs. What should the technician do next according to standard troubleshooting methodology?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> Change unrelated settings to prevent future unknown issues<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Delete the troubleshooting history<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Close the ticket without recording the solution<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Document findings, actions, and outcomes<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Once a solution has been implemented and full system functionality has been verified, the technician should document the problem, troubleshooting steps, solution, and outcome. Good documentation creates a record for support history, assists other technicians, helps identify recurring issues, and can improve organizational knowledge. Changing unrelated settings may introduce additional problems, while deleting the troubleshooting history reduces accountability and learning. Closing a ticket without documentation makes future support more difficult. Documentation is therefore the appropriate final step after confirming that the issue has been resolved successfully.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 21. Which Windows utility should a technician use to create, delete, extend, or shrink disk partitions? Disk Management 2. Event Viewer 3. Task Scheduler 4. Services Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: Disk Management is the Windows graphical utility used to manage disks, partitions, […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/23648"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=23648"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/23648\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":23649,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/23648\/revisions\/23649"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=23648"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=23648"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=23648"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}