{"id":23680,"date":"2026-09-28T08:17:28","date_gmt":"2026-09-28T08:17:28","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=23680"},"modified":"2026-09-28T08:17:28","modified_gmt":"2026-09-28T08:17:28","slug":"comptia-a-220-1102-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part18-q341-360","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/comptia-a-220-1102-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part18-q341-360\/","title":{"rendered":"CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part18 Q341-360"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 341.<\/b><\/p>\n

A technician needs to remotely administer a Linux server securely from a Windows workstation using a command-line session. Which protocol is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. <\/b> SSH<\/span>
    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> FTP<\/span>
    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Telnet<\/span>
    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> SMB<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    SSH, or Secure Shell, is the preferred protocol for secure command-line administration of Linux and other Unix-like systems. It encrypts authentication information and session traffic, reducing the risk that passwords or administrative commands will be intercepted. FTP is primarily used for file transfers and does not inherently provide the same secure shell functionality. Telnet provides remote command-line access but transmits traffic without strong encryption and is therefore generally inappropriate for secure administration. SMB is mainly used for file and printer sharing. Technicians should also use strong authentication, limit administrative access to trusted systems or networks, and follow least-privilege principles. SSH keys may provide stronger authentication than passwords when they are managed securely. Remote administrative services should never be exposed more broadly than required because they are attractive targets for attackers.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 342.<\/b><\/p>\n

    Which Windows feature allows a technician to store usernames and passwords used to access websites, servers, and network resources?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. <\/b> Disk Cleanup<\/span>
      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Credential Manager<\/span>
      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Reliability Monitor<\/span>
      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Device Manager<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      Credential Manager stores certain Windows and web credentials that users or applications may use to access network shares, websites, or other resources. It can be useful when troubleshooting repeated authentication prompts or situations where a workstation continues trying an old password against a network resource. A technician may need to review and remove an outdated stored credential so that Windows prompts for the correct one. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, Reliability Monitor provides a historical stability view, and Device Manager manages hardware and drivers. Stored credentials should be treated as sensitive security information. Removing the wrong entry can interrupt access to legitimate services, so the technician should identify the affected resource carefully before deleting credentials and should avoid storing highly privileged credentials unnecessarily.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 343.<\/b><\/p>\n

      A user changes a domain password but is repeatedly locked out because a workstation continues using old credentials to access a shared resource. Which Windows location should the technician examine?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. <\/b> Power Options<\/span>
        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disk Management<\/span>
        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Credential Manager<\/span>
        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Windows Sandbox<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        Credential Manager is a logical place to investigate when Windows continues using stored credentials after a password has changed. Old saved credentials can repeatedly fail authentication against a network resource and may trigger account lockouts depending on organizational policy. The technician can review Windows credentials for the affected server or service and remove or update the relevant entry if authorized. Power Options controls energy settings, Disk Management handles storage, and Windows Sandbox creates an isolated temporary environment. Account lockouts can also be caused by mapped drives, services, scheduled tasks, mobile devices, or applications using cached passwords, so Credential Manager is one troubleshooting location rather than the only possible source. After correcting stored credentials, the technician should verify that failed logins stop and that the user can access the resource normally.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 344.<\/b><\/p>\n

        A laptop user wants the computer to automatically enter a low-power state after 10 minutes of inactivity while still allowing a quick return to the current session. Which Windows setting should be configured?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. <\/b> BitLocker<\/span>
          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> File History<\/span>
          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> System Restore<\/span>
          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Power Options<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          Power Options controls how Windows manages power-related behavior such as sleep, display timeout, battery usage, and other energy settings. Configuring the device to enter Sleep after a period of inactivity allows the current session to remain available while reducing power consumption. BitLocker provides drive encryption, File History protects user files, and System Restore rolls back selected system configuration changes. Sleep is different from Hibernate: Sleep keeps the session in memory and resumes quickly, while Hibernate writes the session state to storage and powers down more completely. On laptops, technicians should consider both AC and battery settings. In business environments, power settings may also be centrally controlled through Group Policy or management systems, so local settings may not always be authoritative.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 345.<\/b><\/p>\n

          Which Windows power state saves the current session to storage and allows the computer to power off almost completely while preserving open applications?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. <\/b> Hibernate<\/span>
            \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Sleep<\/span>
            \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Lock<\/span>
            \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Sign out<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            Hibernate saves the contents of the current session to storage and then powers the system down to a very low-power state. When the computer starts again, Windows restores the previous session, including open applications and documents. Sleep keeps session data primarily in memory and therefore requires some continued power, although it resumes more quickly. Lock secures the active session but leaves the computer fully running, while signing out closes the user’s session. Hibernate is useful when a user wants to preserve work over a longer period without keeping the system actively powered. Technicians should remember that hibernation requires storage space for the hibernation file and may be disabled or unavailable on some systems depending on hardware or policy.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 346.<\/b><\/p>\n

            A Windows user complains that the screen turns off too quickly while reading documents. Which setting should the technician adjust?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. <\/b> Windows Firewall<\/span>
              \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Display timeout in Power Options<\/span>
              \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Disk Management<\/span>
              \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Device Manager<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              The display timeout setting determines how long the system waits before turning off the screen because of inactivity. It is normally configured through Windows power settings and can have separate values for battery power and AC power on laptops. Adjusting the display timeout is appropriate when a user’s screen turns off too quickly during normal work. Windows Firewall controls network traffic, Disk Management manages storage, and Device Manager manages hardware and drivers. The technician should balance user convenience with power conservation and organizational policy. In managed environments, local settings may be enforced centrally, so if the user’s change does not persist, the technician should check whether Group Policy or endpoint management is controlling the configuration.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 347.<\/b><\/p>\n

              Which Windows tool should a technician use to monitor processor, memory, disk, and network counters over time and create detailed performance data collections?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. <\/b> Disk Cleanup<\/span>
                \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Task Scheduler<\/span>
                \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Performance Monitor<\/span>
                \n<\/span>4.<\/b> File History<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                Performance Monitor is a Windows administrative tool that can display and record detailed performance counters over time. It can track processor activity, memory usage, disk performance, network utilization, and many other system metrics. This makes it useful for diagnosing intermittent performance problems that may not be visible during a short Task Manager session. Task Scheduler automates jobs, Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, and File History protects user data. Performance Monitor can also use data collector sets to gather performance information over longer periods for later analysis. Technicians should select relevant counters rather than recording every available metric because excessive data can be difficult to interpret. Establishing a normal baseline can make it easier to identify unusual system behavior.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 348.<\/b><\/p>\n

                A workstation is occasionally slow, but the problem never occurs while the technician is watching. Which Windows tool is best suited to recording performance counters for later review?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. <\/b> Device Manager<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>2.<\/b> File Explorer<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Disk Management<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Performance Monitor<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Performance Monitor is well suited to intermittent performance problems because it can record selected system counters over a period of time. A technician can create a data collector set that tracks CPU, memory, disk, network, or application-related metrics while the user continues normal work. When the slowdown occurs, the recorded data can be reviewed to identify a resource bottleneck. Device Manager focuses on hardware status, File Explorer manages files, and Disk Management handles storage volumes. This approach is more reliable than asking the user to remember exactly what the system was doing. The technician should choose meaningful counters and collect data for an appropriate period so the resulting logs remain manageable and useful.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 349.<\/b><\/p>\n

                  A Windows application cannot open because the system reports that another process is locking one of its files. Which utility can help identify which process is accessing that file?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Resource Monitor<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disk Cleanup<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> BitLocker<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> System Restore<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Resource Monitor can help identify processes that are accessing specific files or resources. In the CPU section, associated handles can be searched to determine which process may be holding a file open. This is valuable when an application cannot modify, rename, or delete a file because another process has locked it. Disk Cleanup removes temporary files, BitLocker encrypts storage, and System Restore rolls back selected configuration changes. Once the process is identified, the technician should determine whether it can be safely closed or whether a service needs to be stopped. Forcing termination may cause data loss, so the least disruptive corrective action should be used. Understanding which process owns the handle is preferable to rebooting the computer without first identifying the cause.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 350.<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Which Windows command opens the Registry Editor, a tool that should be used cautiously because incorrect changes can affect system stability?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. <\/b> msinfo32<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> regedit<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> cleanmgr<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> taskmgr<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      The <\/span>regedit<\/span> command opens Registry Editor, which allows authorized users to view and modify the Windows Registry. The Registry stores configuration information for Windows, hardware, users, and applications. Because incorrect changes can cause application failures, boot problems, or other system instability, Registry Editor should be used only when there is a clear reason and the technician understands the required change. Backing up relevant keys or creating an appropriate recovery point can reduce risk. <\/span>msinfo32<\/span> opens System Information, <\/span>cleanmgr<\/span> launches Disk Cleanup in supported environments, and <\/span>taskmgr<\/span> opens Task Manager. Registry changes should not be used as a trial-and-error troubleshooting method when safer graphical settings or documented vendor procedures are available.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 351.<\/b><\/p>\n

                      A user accidentally changed an advanced application setting in the Windows Registry. Before modifying the Registry to correct it, what should the technician do?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. <\/b> Back up the relevant Registry key or ensure a recovery method exists<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disable antivirus permanently<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Delete all user profiles<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Reformat the drive immediately<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Before modifying the Windows Registry, the technician should create a suitable backup or ensure a recovery mechanism exists. Exporting the affected Registry key can provide a quick way to restore the original configuration if the change causes problems. For broader system changes, a restore point or system backup may also be appropriate. Permanently disabling antivirus, deleting profiles, or reformatting the drive would be excessive and unrelated. Registry changes can have wide-ranging consequences, so they should be based on documented requirements rather than guesswork. The technician should change only the necessary value, document the original setting, and test the application afterward. If the fix fails, the change should be reversed using the prepared backup or recovery method.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 352.<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Which Windows utility should a technician use to remove an installed desktop application through a graphical interface?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. <\/b> Device Manager<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disk Management<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Apps\/Installed apps or Programs and Features<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Event Viewer<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Windows provides graphical interfaces such as Installed apps in Settings or Programs and Features in Control Panel for uninstalling applications. These tools use the application’s configured uninstaller and are generally safer than manually deleting program folders. Device Manager is for hardware and drivers, Disk Management handles disks and partitions, and Event Viewer displays logs. If a newly installed application is causing instability, uninstalling it through the proper interface is a reasonable corrective step. The technician should verify whether the application stores important user data or settings before removal and should restart the system if the uninstaller requires it. If the application must later be reinstalled, installation media, licensing information, and configuration details should be available.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 353.<\/b><\/p>\n

                          A legacy business application works correctly on an older version of Windows but fails on a newer Windows workstation. Which feature should the technician try before replacing the application?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. <\/b> Disk Cleanup<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>2.<\/b> File History<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Compatibility mode<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Storage Spaces<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Compatibility mode can help older applications run on newer versions of Windows by adjusting how Windows presents certain operating-system behaviors to the application. It may emulate settings associated with an earlier Windows release or adjust display and privilege-related compatibility options. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, File History protects user data, and Storage Spaces manages pooled storage. Compatibility mode is not guaranteed to fix every legacy application because some software depends on unsupported drivers, obsolete frameworks, or outdated security mechanisms. The technician should also check whether the vendor provides an updated version or patch. Running unsupported software can introduce security and support risks, so compatibility mode should be considered a troubleshooting option rather than a permanent substitute for modernization when the application is business-critical.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 354.<\/b><\/p>\n

                            A Windows application fails to open because a required software component or runtime is missing. Which troubleshooting action is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Replace the monitor<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Install the required dependency from a trusted source<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Clear the ARP cache<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Change the computer name<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Applications often depend on runtimes, libraries, frameworks, or other software components. If an application reports that a required dependency is missing, the technician should identify the required component and install the correct supported version from a trusted vendor or approved source. Replacing the monitor, clearing the ARP cache, or changing the computer name would not address an application dependency. The technician should avoid downloading random DLL files from untrusted websites because those files may be malicious, incompatible, or outdated. If the application has an installer repair option, that may also restore missing components. After installing the dependency, the application should be tested and the change documented.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 355.<\/b><\/p>\n

                              A user repeatedly receives certificate warnings when visiting several HTTPS websites, and the computer’s date is several years incorrect. Which action should the technician take first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. <\/b> Correct the system date and time<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disable certificate validation<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Turn off the firewall<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Reinstall every browser<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Certificates have defined validity periods, so a significantly incorrect system date or time can make legitimate certificates appear expired or not yet valid. Correcting the date, time, and time zone is therefore an appropriate first step when multiple trusted HTTPS sites suddenly produce certificate warnings. Disabling certificate validation would create a serious security risk because it could allow man-in-the-middle attacks to go unnoticed. Disabling the firewall or reinstalling every browser is unnecessary before checking the obvious time mismatch. If the date repeatedly becomes incorrect after shutdown, the technician should investigate time synchronization settings or, on some systems, a failing real-time clock battery. After correcting the time, the websites should be retested to confirm the warnings are resolved.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 356.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Which type of backup would usually provide the fastest restore because only one backup set is required, although it requires the most storage space and backup time?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> Incremental<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Differential<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Synthetic incremental only<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Full<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  A full backup copies the entire selected data set and can therefore provide a relatively straightforward restoration process because the technician may need only the desired full backup set. The trade-off is that full backups generally consume more storage space and take longer to create than incremental or differential backups. Incremental backups are efficient during backup operations but may require the last full backup plus every subsequent incremental for recovery. Differential backups require the last full backup plus the latest differential. The best backup design depends on available storage, backup windows, recovery objectives, retention requirements, and business risk. Regardless of the backup type, organizations should verify job success and test actual restores rather than assuming a completed backup automatically guarantees recoverability.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 357.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  A company requires that no more than 30 minutes of newly created data can be lost after a major failure. Which recovery metric does this requirement define?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> RPO<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> RTO<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> MTBF<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> SLA response time only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Recovery Point Objective, or RPO, defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. An RPO of 30 minutes means the backup, replication, or data-protection design should allow the organization to recover to a point no more than about 30 minutes before the disruption. Recovery Time Objective, or RTO, measures how quickly the service must be restored, not how much data can be lost. MTBF describes expected time between failures, while an SLA may include several service commitments but is not the specific recovery metric described here. A short RPO may require frequent backups, continuous replication, or application-level protection. The chosen technology must be capable of meeting the actual business requirement reliably.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 358.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    A critical application must be operational again within two hours after a disaster. Which metric is being defined?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> RPO<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> RTO<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Password history<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Retention period<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Recovery Time Objective, or RTO, specifies how quickly a service, application, or system should be restored after a disruption. If the business requirement is that the application must be operational within two hours, then the RTO is two hours. RPO addresses acceptable data loss rather than downtime. Password history is an authentication setting, and retention period defines how long data or backups are kept. Achieving a short RTO may require preconfigured recovery infrastructure, documented procedures, automation, spare hardware, high availability, or rapid access to backups. Organizations should test disaster-recovery plans to determine whether the stated RTO can actually be met under realistic conditions rather than relying only on written plans.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 359.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      A technician plans to deploy an operating-system update to hundreds of production workstations. Which action should occur before broad deployment to reduce risk?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> Test the update on a controlled subset of systems<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disable all backups<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Remove endpoint protection<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Deploy immediately to every device without review<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Testing a significant update on a controlled group of representative systems can reveal application, driver, security, or compatibility problems before the change affects the entire organization. This is a common part of effective change management. The technician should also review the update’s scope, risks, dependencies, rollback options, required approvals, maintenance window, and communication plan. Disabling backups or endpoint protection would increase risk rather than reduce it, and deploying immediately to every device could turn a small compatibility issue into a widespread outage. After pilot testing succeeds, the organization can proceed with a staged deployment while monitoring for unexpected problems. The change record should document testing results and any conditions identified during the pilot.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 360.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        A technician has completed a production change, confirmed the system is working normally, and verified that no rollback is required. What is the most appropriate final action?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> Delete all change records<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Make additional changes without approval<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Disable monitoring<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Update the documentation and formally close the change<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          A production change should be formally closed only after implementation has been verified and the final state is documented. The technician should update the change record with the actual actions performed, test results, any deviations from the original plan, problems encountered, and final outcome. If lessons were learned, they should be recorded so future changes can be improved. Deleting records reduces accountability, making additional unapproved changes introduces unnecessary risk, and disabling monitoring removes useful visibility just when post-change observation may still be valuable. Proper closure is part of disciplined change management and gives the organization a reliable historical record. Documentation also helps future technicians understand why the system was configured a certain way and how to reverse or reproduce the change if necessary.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 341. A technician needs to remotely administer a Linux server securely from a Windows workstation using a command-line session. Which protocol is most appropriate? SSH 2. FTP 3. Telnet 4. SMB Correct Answer: 1 Explanation: SSH, or Secure Shell, is the preferred […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/23680"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=23680"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/23680\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":23681,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/23680\/revisions\/23681"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=23680"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=23680"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=23680"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}