{"id":24562,"date":"2026-09-29T09:54:53","date_gmt":"2026-09-29T09:54:53","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=24562"},"modified":"2026-09-29T09:54:53","modified_gmt":"2026-09-29T09:54:53","slug":"iia-iia-cia-part3-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part17-q321-340","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/iia-iia-cia-part3-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part17-q321-340\/","title":{"rendered":"IIA IIA-CIA-Part3 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part17 Q321-340"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>IIA IIA-CIA-Part3 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps.<\/b><\/p>\n


\n<\/b>Q321. Which financial measure evaluates how efficiently a company collects customer balances<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. <\/b> Debt ratio<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. <\/b> Receivables turnover<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. <\/b> Gross margin<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. <\/b> Current ratio<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 2. Receivables turnover<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    Receivables turnover measures how efficiently an organization collects amounts owed by customers. It usually compares credit sales with average accounts receivable during a period. A higher turnover may indicate faster collections although industry practices and customer credit terms should also be considered. Debt ratio measures financial leverage. Gross margin evaluates profitability after cost of goods sold. Current ratio measures short term liquidity. Receivables turnover is therefore the correct answer because it focuses specifically on collection efficiency. Significant changes may indicate weaker credit controls slower customer payments or changes in collection practices that require additional management review.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Q322. Which security process removes malicious software from an affected device after containment<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. <\/b> Preparation<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. <\/b> Identification<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. <\/b> Recovery<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. <\/b> Eradication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 4. Eradication<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      Eradication removes malicious software unauthorized accounts harmful files and other causes of a security incident after the threat has been contained. Preparation establishes response capabilities before an incident occurs. Identification confirms and analyzes the event. Recovery restores normal operations after the threat has been removed. Eradication is therefore the correct answer because it focuses on eliminating the source of compromise from affected systems. Security teams may also patch vulnerabilities reset credentials and review related systems during this phase. Careful validation is important before systems are returned to normal production operation.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Q323. Which control best prevents employees from approving purchases above their authority<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. <\/b> Approval limits<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. <\/b> Data backup<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. <\/b> File compression<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. <\/b> Network monitoring<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 1. Approval limits<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        Approval limits define the maximum value or type of transaction each employee is authorized to approve. This helps prevent individuals from committing organizational resources beyond their assigned authority. Data backup supports information recovery. File compression reduces storage requirements. Network monitoring observes technology traffic. Approval limits is therefore the correct answer because purchasing authority should match employee responsibility and management expectations. Automated systems can enforce these limits by routing higher value transactions to more senior approvers. Periodic review is also important because job roles and organizational structures may change over time.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Q324. Which project measure compares earned value with planned value<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. <\/b> Cost performance index<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. <\/b> Resource utilization<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. <\/b> Schedule performance index<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. <\/b> Risk score<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 3. Schedule performance index<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          Schedule performance index compares earned value with planned value and indicates whether project progress is ahead of or behind the planned schedule. A value above one generally indicates favorable schedule performance while a value below one can indicate delay. Cost performance index compares earned value with actual cost. Resource utilization measures how heavily resources are used. Risk score evaluates project exposure. Schedule performance index is therefore the correct answer because it directly evaluates progress relative to the planned schedule using earned value information and can help project managers identify developing delays.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Q325. Which accounting account represents accumulated profits retained in the business<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. <\/b> Retained earnings<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. <\/b> Accounts payable<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. <\/b> Unearned revenue<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. <\/b> Prepaid expense<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1. Retained earnings<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            Retained earnings represents cumulative profits that have been kept in the organization rather than distributed to owners. The balance generally increases with net income and decreases with losses or distributions such as dividends. Accounts payable represents amounts owed to suppliers. Unearned revenue represents cash received before related revenue is earned. Prepaid expense represents payments made before receiving future benefits. Retained earnings is therefore the correct answer because it reflects accumulated earnings retained within the organization and forms part of owners equity on the balance sheet.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Q326. Which cybersecurity control helps detect unauthorized transfer of sensitive files<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. <\/b> Capacity planning<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. <\/b> File compression<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. <\/b> Backup scheduling<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. <\/b> Data loss prevention<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 4. Data loss prevention<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              Data loss prevention controls monitor and restrict the movement of sensitive information through channels such as email cloud services removable media and network transfers. These controls can identify protected information and block or alert on unauthorized transmission. Capacity planning estimates future technology requirements. File compression reduces storage size. Backup scheduling determines when recovery copies are created. Data loss prevention is therefore the correct answer because it directly addresses the risk of confidential data leaving approved environments without authorization. Effective programs also require clear data classification and well designed policies to reduce unnecessary false alerts.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Q327. Which management practice compares employee performance with predetermined expectations<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. <\/b> Strategic planning<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. <\/b> Performance appraisal<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. <\/b> Market analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. <\/b> Capital budgeting<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 2. Performance appraisal<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                Performance appraisal evaluates an employee results behaviors or competencies against defined expectations or objectives. It can support feedback compensation development promotion and training decisions. Strategic planning establishes long term organizational direction. Market analysis evaluates external customers and competitors. Capital budgeting evaluates long term investment projects. Performance appraisal is therefore the correct answer because it specifically assesses individual work performance. Effective appraisals should use relevant criteria reliable evidence and consistent processes so employees understand expectations and receive meaningful feedback about strengths areas for improvement and future development needs.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Q328. Which financial concept measures the additional benefit from one extra unit of an activity<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. <\/b> Fixed benefit<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. <\/b> Sunk benefit<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. <\/b> Marginal benefit<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. <\/b> Historical benefit<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 3. Marginal benefit<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Marginal benefit is the additional benefit obtained from one additional unit of an activity product or service. It is useful when management evaluates whether increasing an activity provides enough added value to justify the related marginal cost. Fixed benefit and sunk benefit are not standard concepts describing incremental value. Historical benefit refers generally to past value rather than the effect of one additional unit. Marginal benefit is therefore the correct answer because decision making often depends on comparing the incremental benefit of a choice with the incremental resources required to obtain it.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Q329. Which audit technique follows a recorded item backward to supporting documentation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Tracing<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. <\/b> Observation<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. <\/b> Confirmation<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. <\/b> Vouching<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 4. Vouching<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Vouching begins with a transaction recorded in the accounting records and follows it backward to supporting source documents. This helps auditors test whether recorded transactions actually occurred and are properly supported. Tracing generally begins with source documents and follows them into accounting records to test completeness. Observation involves watching procedures. Confirmation obtains evidence from an independent third party. Vouching is therefore the correct answer because it is commonly used to test the occurrence or validity of recorded transactions such as purchases payments or sales by examining supporting evidence.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Q330. Which organizational practice helps reduce dependence on one key employee<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. <\/b> Succession planning<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. <\/b> Centralization<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. <\/b> Downsizing<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. <\/b> Informal delegation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 1. Succession planning<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Succession planning identifies critical positions and prepares qualified employees to assume those roles when current job holders leave or become unavailable. It helps reduce organizational dependence on key individuals and supports continuity of leadership and specialized knowledge. Centralization concentrates decision authority. Downsizing reduces organizational size. Informal delegation assigns tasks but does not create a structured replacement plan. Succession planning is therefore the correct answer because it proactively develops future talent and reduces operational disruption when important employees retire resign transfer or become unexpectedly unavailable.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Q331. Which database concept describes information about the structure and meaning of stored data<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. <\/b> Encryption<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. <\/b> Replication<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. <\/b> Metadata<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. <\/b> Compression<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 3. Metadata<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Metadata is information that describes other data. In a database it can define field names formats relationships ownership creation dates and other characteristics that help users and systems understand stored information. Encryption protects data confidentiality. Replication creates additional copies. Compression reduces storage size. Metadata is therefore the correct answer because it provides descriptive information about the structure context and meaning of data rather than representing the business data itself. Strong metadata management supports data governance integration analytics and more consistent interpretation of information across systems and departments.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Q332. Which economic condition occurs when quantity demanded equals quantity supplied<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. <\/b> Shortage<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. <\/b> Market equilibrium<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. <\/b> Surplus<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. <\/b> Deflation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 2. Market equilibrium<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Market equilibrium occurs when the quantity buyers are willing to purchase equals the quantity sellers are willing to provide at a particular price. A shortage exists when demand exceeds supply. A surplus exists when supply exceeds demand. Deflation is a broad decline in general price levels. Market equilibrium is therefore the correct answer because it represents the point where market demand and supply are balanced. Changes in consumer preferences costs technology regulation or other factors can shift demand or supply and create a new equilibrium price and quantity.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Q333. Which control helps ensure checks are issued only to valid authorized payees<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. <\/b> Data encryption<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. <\/b> File backup<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. <\/b> Network monitoring<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. <\/b> Positive pay<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 4. Positive pay<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Positive pay is a banking control in which the organization provides the bank with information about authorized checks. The bank compares presented checks with the approved list and flags or rejects unmatched items according to the arrangement. Data encryption protects confidentiality. File backup supports recovery. Network monitoring observes technology traffic. Positive pay is therefore the correct answer because it directly reduces the risk of altered counterfeit or unauthorized checks being paid. Organizations can combine it with segregation of duties secure check stock reconciliations and approval controls for stronger disbursement protection.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Q334. Which project approach completes major phases in a largely sequential order<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Waterfall<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. <\/b> Agile<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. <\/b> Kanban<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. <\/b> Scrum<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 1. Waterfall<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Waterfall project management follows a largely sequential approach in which major phases such as requirements design development testing and implementation occur in an ordered progression. Agile approaches use shorter iterative cycles and frequent adjustment. Kanban focuses on visual workflow and limiting work in progress. Scrum is an agile framework using defined roles events and short development cycles. Waterfall is therefore the correct answer because it emphasizes completing one major phase before moving to the next. It can be appropriate when requirements are stable and changes are expected to be limited.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Q335. Which financial ratio measures the ability to pay short term obligations using current assets<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. <\/b> Debt ratio<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. <\/b> Current ratio<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. <\/b> Asset turnover<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. <\/b> Gross margin<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 2. Current ratio<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                The current ratio compares current assets with current liabilities and provides information about short term liquidity. A higher ratio generally suggests that more short term resources are available to meet obligations becoming due. Debt ratio measures leverage. Asset turnover measures how efficiently assets generate revenue. Gross margin measures profitability after cost of goods sold. Current ratio is therefore the correct answer because it directly evaluates the relationship between resources expected to be used or converted into cash within the operating cycle and liabilities due within a similar period.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Q336. Which security practice reduces risk by installing only necessary software and services<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> Data replication<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. <\/b> File archiving<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. <\/b> Secure configuration<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. <\/b> Capacity forecasting<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 3. Secure configuration<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Secure configuration reduces exposure by removing unnecessary software disabling unused services changing insecure default settings and applying approved system configurations. Data replication creates additional information copies. File archiving supports retention. Capacity forecasting estimates future technology needs. Secure configuration is therefore the correct answer because unnecessary components can increase the number of weaknesses available to attackers. Organizations should define security baselines monitor configuration changes apply patches and review systems periodically to confirm that settings remain aligned with approved standards as applications and technology environments change.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Q337. Which control helps prevent sales staff from creating fictitious customers<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> Independent customer setup approval<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. <\/b> Daily backup<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. <\/b> File compression<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. <\/b> Network routing<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1. Independent customer setup approval<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Independent customer setup approval requires a person outside the requesting sales function to verify and authorize new customer records before they become active. This helps reduce the risk of fictitious accounts being created to manipulate sales results or support fraudulent transactions. Daily backup supports recovery. File compression reduces storage requirements. Network routing directs traffic. Independent customer setup approval is therefore the correct answer because customer master data should be created only after appropriate verification. Supporting documentation restricted update rights and periodic customer master reviews can provide additional control.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Q338. Which governance activity evaluates whether organizational strategy remains appropriate<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> Inventory count<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. <\/b> Password review<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. <\/b> File archiving<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. <\/b> Board strategy review<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 4. Board strategy review<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Board strategy review allows directors to evaluate whether organizational strategy remains appropriate given performance risk market conditions stakeholder expectations and changes in the external environment. Inventory counts verify physical assets. Password reviews focus on access security. File archiving manages information retention. Board strategy review is therefore the correct answer because the board has an important oversight role in reviewing and challenging strategic direction. Effective oversight requires timely information independent judgment and clear communication with management about assumptions risks objectives and progress toward strategic goals.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Q339. Which analytical technique evaluates the relationship between two or more variables<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> Sampling<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. <\/b> Encryption<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. <\/b> Regression analysis<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. <\/b> Archiving<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3. Regression analysis<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Regression analysis evaluates relationships among variables and can estimate how changes in one or more independent variables are associated with a dependent variable. It can support forecasting risk analysis and identification of unusual relationships. Sampling selects part of a population for testing. Encryption protects confidentiality. Archiving stores information for retention. Regression analysis is therefore the correct answer because it uses statistical methods to model relationships among variables. Auditors should understand data quality model assumptions and the possibility that correlation does not necessarily prove a causal relationship.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Q340. Which control helps ensure terminated vendors are no longer available for new purchases<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> Data backup<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. <\/b> Vendor status deactivation<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. <\/b> Password complexity<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. <\/b> File compression<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 2. Vendor status deactivation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Vendor status deactivation prevents purchasing or payment activity from being initiated with suppliers that are no longer approved or active. This can reduce errors and fraud involving outdated vendor records. Data backup supports recovery. Password complexity strengthens authentication. File compression reduces storage size. Vendor status deactivation is therefore the correct answer because inactive suppliers should not remain available for normal transaction processing. Organizations should establish procedures for changing vendor status promptly and periodically review inactive or duplicate supplier records to maintain an accurate vendor master file.<\/span><\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full IIA IIA-CIA-Part3 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps. Q321. Which financial measure evaluates how efficiently a company collects customer balances Debt ratio Receivables turnover Gross margin Current ratio Correct Answer: 2. Receivables turnover Explanation Receivables turnover measures how efficiently an organization collects amounts owed by customers. It usually compares credit sales with average […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24562"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=24562"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24562\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":24563,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24562\/revisions\/24563"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=24562"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=24562"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=24562"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}