{"id":24876,"date":"2026-09-30T09:12:17","date_gmt":"2026-09-30T09:12:17","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=24876"},"modified":"2026-09-30T09:12:17","modified_gmt":"2026-09-30T09:12:17","slug":"cisco-ccnp-security-300-710-test-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part11-q201-220","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/cisco-ccnp-security-300-710-test-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part11-q201-220\/","title":{"rendered":"Cisco CCNP Security 300-710 Test Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part11 Q201-220"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>Cisco CCNP Security 300-710 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 201.<\/b><\/p>\n

An administrator wants to determine whether a specific traffic flow is being handled by a prefilter Fastpath rule before it reaches the access control policy. What should be reviewed first?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. <\/b> Prefilter policy rule matching and the configured prefilter action<\/span>
    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Only the file policy<\/span>
    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Only the URL category database<\/span>
    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Only the high-availability status<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    Prefilter policy processing occurs before normal access control evaluation, so it is the correct place to investigate when traffic appears to bypass deeper inspection unexpectedly. A Fastpath action can allow matching traffic to avoid later processing stages, which may include application identification, intrusion inspection, and file analysis. The administrator should verify the source and destination zones, networks, protocols, and any tunnel-related criteria used by the prefilter rule. If the match conditions are too broad, sensitive traffic may be unintentionally excluded from deeper security controls. File policies and URL filtering apply later in processing and therefore may never see Fastpath traffic. High-availability status is unrelated unless the issue involves failover or synchronization. Reviewing the prefilter rule and action first provides the clearest explanation for an intentional early inspection bypass.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 202.<\/b><\/p>\n

    An administrator saves changes to a NAT policy and access control policy in Secure Firewall Management Center. The managed Threat Defense device continues to enforce the previous configuration. What is the most likely reason?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. <\/b> Every NAT change requires a device reboot<\/span>
      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> The access control policy must be deleted first<\/span>
      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> The managed device must be re-registered<\/span>
      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> The pending configuration changes have not been deployed<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      Secure Firewall Management Center maintains policy changes centrally until the administrator explicitly deploys them to the managed Threat Defense device. Saving a policy does not automatically make the new configuration active on the enforcement device. The administrator should review pending changes, select the affected device or devices, deploy the updated configuration, and verify that the deployment task succeeds. Rebooting the firewall is not normally required for routine NAT or access control changes. Re-registration is used for management-association problems rather than normal policy updates, and deleting the existing access control policy is unnecessary. This distinction between saved and deployed configuration is important because an administrator may correctly modify a policy yet still observe unchanged behavior if the new version remains only in Management Center.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 203.<\/b><\/p>\n

      Which Secure Firewall object is most useful when an administrator wants several interfaces with similar security roles to be referenced together in access control rules?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. <\/b> File category<\/span>
        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> URL category<\/span>
        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Security zone<\/span>
        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Malware disposition<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        Security zones logically group interfaces according to their security role, making access control policies easier to design and maintain. For example, several internal interfaces may belong to an Inside zone, while Internet-facing interfaces belong to an Outside zone. Rules can then match source and destination zones rather than requiring separate rules for every interface. This abstraction improves readability and reduces administrative effort when interfaces are added or changed. File categories and malware dispositions relate to file inspection, while URL categories classify web destinations. Neither provides interface grouping. Administrators should carefully verify zone membership because placing an interface in the wrong zone can cause traffic to match unexpected access control rules even when addresses and applications are otherwise correct.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 204.<\/b><\/p>\n

        An administrator needs to allow a business application and apply Snort intrusion inspection to the traffic. Which access control action should be configured?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. <\/b> Trust<\/span>
          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Allow<\/span>
          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Block<\/span>
          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Interactive Block<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          The Allow action permits matching traffic while still allowing additional inspection such as an intrusion policy, file policy, and other applicable security controls. By associating the appropriate intrusion policy with the rule, Snort can inspect the permitted application traffic for exploit attempts and suspicious protocol behavior. Trust is different because it allows traffic while bypassing additional deep inspection, so it would not satisfy the requirement. Block would deny the application, and Interactive Block is intended for specific web-warning scenarios. The administrator should also configure suitable event logging so that connection and intrusion activity can be analyzed afterward. Allow combined with intrusion inspection therefore provides the correct balance between application availability and threat detection.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 205.<\/b><\/p>\n

          A company wants to prevent users from accessing websites based on categories such as phishing, malware, gambling, and adult content. Which Secure Firewall feature should be used?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. <\/b> URL filtering<\/span>
            \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Dynamic PAT<\/span>
            \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Static routing<\/span>
            \n<\/span>4.<\/b> High availability<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            URL filtering allows Secure Firewall to make web access decisions based on site category and reputation. Instead of maintaining a large manual list of individual URLs, administrators can permit or deny categories such as phishing, malware, gambling, adult content, or other business-defined groups. This is more scalable because websites may be reclassified as new intelligence becomes available. URL filtering can also be combined with user identity, application conditions, networks, and security zones for more granular enforcement. Dynamic PAT performs address translation, static routing controls forwarding paths, and high availability provides firewall redundancy. None of these functions categorizes websites. URL filtering is therefore the correct capability when the organization wants policy decisions based on website classification and reputation rather than on IP address or port alone.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 206.<\/b><\/p>\n

            Which feature should be used to block traffic to known malicious IP addresses or domains before more resource-intensive inspection is performed?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. <\/b> File inspection<\/span>
              \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Health monitoring<\/span>
              \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Identity policy<\/span>
              \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Security Intelligence<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              Security Intelligence provides early filtering using known or configured indicators such as IP addresses, networks, domains, and URLs. When traffic matches a Security Intelligence block list, the firewall can deny the connection before deeper access control, intrusion, or file inspection occurs. This reduces unnecessary processing and limits communication with known malicious infrastructure such as command-and-control servers or malware-hosting systems. File inspection analyzes content later in the inspection path, health monitoring tracks device condition, and identity policy helps associate users with traffic. None of those performs early reputation-based filtering. Administrators should still monitor Security Intelligence events and maintain carefully scoped exceptions because an incorrectly categorized destination can affect legitimate connectivity.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 207.<\/b><\/p>\n

              A Snort rule detects what appears to be an exploit attempt against a production server. Which event type should be reviewed first for details about the triggered signature?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. <\/b> Health event<\/span>
                \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Deployment event<\/span>
                \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Intrusion event<\/span>
                \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Audit event<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                Intrusion events provide the detailed information generated when inspected traffic matches a Snort rule. These events can include the rule or signature identifier, severity, classification, source and destination information, protocol details, and timestamps. They are therefore the primary source for analyzing potential exploit attempts and determining whether the activity represents a real attack, authorized testing, or a false positive. Health events describe operational conditions, deployment events record configuration deployment activity, and audit events track administrative actions. While those event types may provide useful context, they do not contain the same signature-specific threat information. Administrators should correlate intrusion events with connection events and other telemetry to understand the full scope and decide whether containment, tuning, or further investigation is needed.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 208.<\/b><\/p>\n

                An organization has hundreds of internal private hosts that must share one public IPv4 address for outbound Internet access. Which NAT method is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. <\/b> Identity NAT<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Dynamic PAT<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Static NAT for every internal host<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>4.<\/b> No NAT<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Dynamic Port Address Translation enables many internal hosts to share a single public IPv4 address by translating source ports in addition to the source address. Each session receives a distinct translated port mapping, allowing the firewall to keep simultaneous connections separate. This method conserves public IPv4 address space and is commonly used for enterprise outbound Internet connectivity. Identity NAT preserves original addresses and therefore would not provide the required public translation. Static one-to-one NAT would require many public addresses and is inefficient for a large user population. No NAT would leave private RFC1918 addresses unsuitable for normal Internet routing. Dynamic PAT is therefore the correct many-to-one translation method for this requirement.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 209.<\/b><\/p>\n

                  An internal web server must be consistently reachable from the Internet using the same public IPv4 address. Which NAT configuration should be used?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Static NAT between the private server address and the public address<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Dynamic PAT only<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Identity NAT only<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Security Intelligence allow-listing<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Static NAT provides a predictable one-to-one relationship between the internal private address and a public translated address. This makes it suitable for published servers because external users can consistently connect to the same public IP while the server continues using its private address internally. Dynamic PAT is usually used for outbound client traffic where many systems share one address, and it does not provide the same straightforward permanent mapping for an inbound service. Identity NAT does not translate the address, while Security Intelligence does not perform translation at all. The administrator must also ensure that routing, access control policy, and any required service ports are correctly configured, because NAT alone does not automatically permit the traffic.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 210.<\/b><\/p>\n

                    A trusted vulnerability scanner generates thousands of expected intrusion alerts during approved testing. What is the best way to reduce alert noise without weakening protection for unrelated traffic?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. <\/b> Disable all intrusion inspection<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disable all connection logging<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Set every matching Snort rule to permit globally<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Apply narrowly scoped suppression, thresholding, or rule tuning for the authorized scanner<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Authorized vulnerability scanners intentionally generate traffic that resembles attacks, so they can produce a large volume of intrusion events. The safest response is targeted tuning that reduces expected noise while preserving normal detection behavior for other sources. Administrators can use suppression, thresholding, or other supported rule-tuning methods scoped specifically to the scanner or its known behavior. Disabling intrusion inspection globally would create a major security gap, while disabling connection logging would reduce visibility without addressing the alerts. Changing all matching Snort rules globally could hide real attacks from other systems. The tuning should be documented and reviewed periodically, especially if scanner addresses or testing scope change. This maintains strong security coverage while preventing analysts from being overwhelmed by expected assessment traffic.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 211.<\/b><\/p>\n

                      An administrator wants users to browse the web normally but wants executable file downloads blocked. Which configuration best meets the requirement?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. <\/b> Health policy only<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Routing policy only<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> File policy associated with the relevant Allow access control rule<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Trust all web traffic<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        A file policy provides granular control over supported file types moving through permitted traffic. By associating an appropriate file policy with an Allow access control rule, the administrator can let normal web browsing continue while executable files are detected, logged, blocked, or subjected to malware analysis. This is preferable to blocking the entire application because it enforces the restriction at the content level. A health policy monitors device condition, while routing affects packet forwarding rather than file handling. Trust would bypass deeper inspection and could prevent the file policy from being applied. If the download occurs inside encrypted HTTPS traffic, the administrator may also need TLS decryption so the firewall can inspect the content. File policies therefore provide the required selective enforcement.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 212.<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Users begin receiving certificate warnings immediately after outbound TLS decryption is enabled. What should the administrator verify first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. <\/b> OSPF metrics<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Whether endpoint systems trust the CA used by the firewall to sign substitute certificates<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Dynamic PAT port utilization<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Intrusion rule severity<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Outbound TLS decryption generally requires the firewall to generate a substitute certificate for the external destination and sign it with a certificate authority configured for decryption. Client endpoints must trust that CA. If the CA is missing from the endpoint trust store, browsers and applications can display certificate warnings because the presented certificate chain is not recognized as trusted. The administrator should therefore confirm CA distribution and trust before investigating unrelated network settings. OSPF metrics, PAT utilization, and intrusion rule severity do not cause certificate-chain warnings. If CA trust is correct, the next areas to examine may include certificate pinning, unsupported applications, certificate validity, or destinations that should be bypassed from decryption. Proper certificate management is a critical part of successful TLS inspection.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 213.<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Which Secure Firewall capability should be used to investigate high CPU utilization, memory pressure, interface failures, and other operational device conditions?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. <\/b> Health monitoring<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>2.<\/b> URL filtering<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>3.<\/b> File inspection<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Security Intelligence<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Health monitoring provides administrators with operational information about Secure Firewall devices and managed components. Depending on the platform, this can include CPU utilization, memory consumption, interface state, process health, device communication, and other system conditions. It is therefore an appropriate first source when a firewall appears overloaded, unstable, or disconnected. URL filtering controls access to categorized websites, file inspection analyzes transferred content, and Security Intelligence blocks or permits traffic based on indicators. These are security-policy features rather than platform-health tools. Reviewing health data can help administrators determine whether the issue involves capacity, interface problems, software processes, or communication with Management Center. From there, additional troubleshooting or resource planning can be performed.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 214.<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Which technology allows a standby Threat Defense appliance to take over traffic forwarding if the active peer fails?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Dynamic PAT<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>2.<\/b> File inspection<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Security Intelligence<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>4.<\/b> High availability<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              High availability provides appliance redundancy by pairing compatible firewalls and allowing one device to assume forwarding duties if the active peer becomes unavailable. Depending on the supported platform and HA design, configuration and relevant connection state may be synchronized between peers to reduce disruption during failover. Administrators should monitor failover links, peer health, interface states, and synchronization because a standby unit must remain healthy to provide effective redundancy. Dynamic PAT translates addresses and ports, file inspection analyzes content, and Security Intelligence filters traffic based on known indicators. None of these provides appliance-level failover. High availability is therefore the correct technology when an organization requires continuity of firewall services during device or monitored-interface failure.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 215.<\/b><\/p>\n

                              A user reports that a business application is unexpectedly blocked. Which information should the administrator review first to determine the firewall decision?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. <\/b> Device serial numbers<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Hardware inventory only<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Connection event details, including the matched rule and action<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Only interface error counters<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Connection events are the best starting point for understanding how a specific session was handled. When appropriate logging is enabled, the event can show source and destination addresses, ports, detected application, user identity, source and destination zones, action, and the access control rule that processed the traffic. This information can reveal whether the connection matched an unexpected rule or whether another policy condition such as application, user, or URL category affected the decision. Once the access control result is understood, the administrator can expand the investigation into Security Intelligence, NAT, decryption, intrusion inspection, routing, or downstream connectivity if needed. Device inventory and serial-number data do not explain session-level policy actions, while interface counters are mainly useful for physical or link-related issues.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 216.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                An organization needs a firewall rule that allows access to a sensitive application only for members of a specific directory group. Which capability is required?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> Static NAT<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Identity-based access control<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>3.<\/b> High availability<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>4.<\/b> File inspection only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Identity-based access control allows Secure Firewall rules to use usernames and directory-group membership as policy conditions. With appropriate identity integration, network sessions can be associated with specific users so that access decisions are based on identity rather than solely on source IP addresses. This allows the administrator to permit a sensitive application for an authorized group while denying everyone else. Static NAT translates addresses, high availability provides appliance redundancy, and file inspection controls transferred content. None of those independently provides user or group context. Identity-aware policies are especially valuable in environments where users move between endpoints or share address ranges. Administrators should ensure that user-to-IP mapping is accurate so that the correct identity is applied to each connection.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 217.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Which access control action can display a warning page for web traffic and allow the user to continue when organizational policy permits?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> Interactive Block<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Trust<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Fastpath<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Security Intelligence Block<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Interactive Block is intended for supported web traffic where the organization wants to warn the user but may still permit continuation. The firewall can present a warning page and, depending on policy, allow the user to proceed after acknowledging the message. This is useful for categories that are discouraged or risky but not absolutely prohibited. Trust simply permits traffic while bypassing deeper inspection, while Fastpath bypasses later processing through the prefilter policy. Security Intelligence Block denies traffic based on configured or reputation-based indicators and does not provide the same user acknowledgement workflow. Interactive Block is therefore the correct choice when the organization wants to combine user awareness with conditional access rather than enforcing an unconditional denial.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 218.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    An access control rule permits a file-transfer application, but the security team also wants the transferred files evaluated for malware. What should be added to the rule?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> A static route only<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> A health policy only<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> A security zone only<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> An appropriate file policy with malware inspection<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      An Allow access control rule permits the application connection, but a file policy provides additional content-level controls. By associating a file policy configured for malware inspection, Secure Firewall can evaluate supported files, record file and malware events, and enforce configured actions for malicious content. A static route affects forwarding, a health policy monitors device condition, and a security zone groups interfaces for policy matching. None of these analyzes transferred files. If the application uses TLS encryption, the administrator may also need a decryption policy so the firewall can see the file content. Applying a file policy to the permitted traffic allows the business application to remain accessible while still providing file-level security enforcement.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 219.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Connection events confirm that Secure Firewall allowed a session, but the destination application remains unreachable. What should the administrator investigate next?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> Delete the access control policy<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disable Snort globally<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Verify NAT translation, routing, interface state, return path, and downstream connectivity<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Reinstall Secure Firewall Management Center<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Once the firewall’s access control policy has been confirmed to permit the session, troubleshooting should shift toward forwarding and end-to-end connectivity. An incorrect NAT rule may translate the traffic improperly, a required route may be missing, an interface may be down, or return traffic may use an asymmetric or invalid path. A downstream router, load balancer, server, or application can also prevent successful communication. The administrator should follow the packet path systematically using route information, NAT behavior, interface statistics, connection events, and packet-tracing tools as appropriate. Disabling Snort or deleting the access control policy is unnecessary when policy permission is already verified. Reinstalling Management Center would also be inappropriate without evidence that the management platform itself is failing.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 220.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        An administrator discovers that a broad Trust rule causes sensitive traffic to bypass intrusion and file inspection. What is the best corrective action?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> Disable every access control rule<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Narrow or replace the Trust rule so only explicitly approved traffic bypasses inspection, then deploy the updated policy<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Turn off all connection logging<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Configure Dynamic PAT for the affected traffic<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Trust rules should be narrowly defined because matching traffic bypasses additional inspection. If a broad Trust rule captures sensitive sessions, those connections can avoid Snort intrusion prevention, file inspection, malware analysis, and other security controls that the organization expects. The administrator should review the rule’s sources, destinations, security zones, applications, users, and other match criteria and reduce its scope to only traffic that has been explicitly approved for inspection bypass. If the traffic should remain allowed but inspected, the safer design may be to replace Trust with an Allow action and associate the appropriate security policies. After making the change, the updated policy must be deployed and verified through connection events. Logging or PAT changes do not solve an overly broad inspection bypass.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full Cisco CCNP Security 300-710 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 201. An administrator wants to determine whether a specific traffic flow is being handled by a prefilter Fastpath rule before it reaches the access control policy. What should be reviewed first? Prefilter policy rule matching and the configured prefilter action 2. […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24876"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=24876"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24876\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":24877,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24876\/revisions\/24877"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=24876"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=24876"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=24876"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}