{"id":24880,"date":"2026-09-30T09:13:10","date_gmt":"2026-09-30T09:13:10","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=24880"},"modified":"2026-09-30T09:13:10","modified_gmt":"2026-09-30T09:13:10","slug":"cisco-ccnp-security-300-710-test-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part13-q241-260","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/cisco-ccnp-security-300-710-test-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part13-q241-260\/","title":{"rendered":"Cisco CCNP Security 300-710 Test Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part13 Q241-260"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>Cisco CCNP Security 300-710 Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 241.<\/b><\/p>\n

An administrator suspects that a prefilter rule is causing selected traffic to bypass application identification and intrusion inspection. Which action should be taken first?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. <\/b> Review the prefilter rule conditions and determine whether a Fastpath action is matching the traffic<\/span>
    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disable all file policies<\/span>
    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Remove every NAT rule<\/span>
    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Restart Secure Firewall Management Center<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

    Prefilter policies are processed before the standard access control policy and can make early decisions about how traffic should be handled. A Fastpath action can intentionally bypass later inspection stages, including application identification and intrusion analysis. If traffic unexpectedly avoids those controls, the administrator should first determine whether it matches an overly broad Fastpath rule. Source and destination zones, networks, protocols, interfaces, and other conditions should be carefully reviewed. The solution may simply be to narrow the prefilter rule so only explicitly trusted traffic bypasses inspection. File policies, NAT rules, and Management Center restarts do not directly explain why traffic is skipping later security processing. Prefilter configuration is therefore the most logical starting point when an early policy decision appears to be responsible for reduced inspection.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 242.<\/b><\/p>\n

    An administrator modifies a network object that is referenced by multiple active access control rules. The Threat Defense devices continue using the previous object value. What is required?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. <\/b> Reboot all Threat Defense devices<\/span>
      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Recreate every rule that uses the object<\/span>
      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Re-register the devices with Management Center<\/span>
      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Deploy the pending configuration changes<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

      Objects used by access control policies are centrally managed in Secure Firewall Management Center, but changing an object does not automatically alter the configuration already running on managed Threat Defense devices. The new object value must be included in a deployment before the devices begin enforcing it. The administrator should review the pending changes, select the affected devices, deploy the configuration, and verify deployment status afterward. There is no need to recreate every rule that references the object because the references remain valid. Rebooting or re-registering managed devices is also unnecessary for normal object updates. This centralized object model is useful because one object change can update many policies, but administrators must remember that the change becomes operational only after the updated configuration is successfully deployed.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 243.<\/b><\/p>\n

      Which Cisco Secure Firewall construct allows several interfaces to share a common policy identity such as Inside, Outside, or DMZ?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. <\/b> URL category<\/span>
        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> File category<\/span>
        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Security zone<\/span>
        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Malware disposition<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

        Security zones logically group interfaces that perform similar security functions. An administrator can place multiple internal interfaces into an Inside zone and Internet-facing interfaces into an Outside zone, then reference those logical zones directly in access control rules. This simplifies policy design because rules no longer need to depend on individual physical interface names. Security zones also improve scalability when new interfaces are added because the administrator can often assign the interface to an existing zone rather than creating multiple new rules. URL categories classify web destinations, file categories relate to transferred content, and malware dispositions describe file verdicts. None of those provides interface grouping. Correct zone assignment is important because a misclassified interface can cause traffic to match unintended policy rules even when source and destination addresses appear correct.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 244.<\/b><\/p>\n

        An organization wants permitted application traffic inspected for exploits while maintaining application availability. Which configuration is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. <\/b> Trust the traffic<\/span>
          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Use an Allow rule with an intrusion policy applied<\/span>
          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Block the traffic and disable logging<\/span>
          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Configure only a NAT rule<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

          The Allow action permits matching traffic while still allowing additional inspection. By associating an intrusion policy with the access control rule, Snort can inspect the permitted traffic for exploit attempts, protocol violations, and other malicious behavior. This provides security without denying legitimate application access. Trust would allow the connection but bypass deeper inspection, which would not meet the requirement. Blocking the traffic would make the application unavailable, while NAT only changes addressing and does not provide exploit detection. Administrators should also configure appropriate connection and intrusion logging so security teams can determine which rule allowed the session and whether Snort identified suspicious behavior. The intrusion policy should be tuned to the environment so protection remains effective without producing excessive false positives.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 245.<\/b><\/p>\n

          A security team wants to restrict access to categories of websites rather than manually entering individual URLs. Which feature should be configured?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. <\/b> URL filtering<\/span>
            \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Dynamic PAT<\/span>
            \n<\/span>3.<\/b> High availability<\/span>
            \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Static routing<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

            URL filtering allows Secure Firewall to enforce web access policy using website categories and reputation. Administrators can create rules that block categories such as phishing, malware, gambling, adult content, or other destinations that violate organizational policy. This is far more scalable than maintaining thousands of individual URL objects because categories can be updated as websites change or new destinations appear. URL filtering conditions can also be combined with applications, users, security zones, and network objects to produce granular policies. Dynamic PAT performs address translation, high availability provides redundancy, and static routing controls packet forwarding. None of those functions classifies websites. When troubleshooting URL filtering, administrators should review connection and URL-related events to confirm the detected category and the rule responsible for the final action.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 246.<\/b><\/p>\n

            Which feature should an administrator use to reject traffic to known malicious infrastructure before full access control and intrusion inspection occur?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. <\/b> File policy<\/span>
              \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Health monitoring<\/span>
              \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Identity policy<\/span>
              \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Security Intelligence<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

              Security Intelligence provides early traffic filtering using reputation data and configured lists of IP addresses, networks, URLs, and domains. Known malicious infrastructure, such as command-and-control servers or malware-hosting destinations, can be blocked before traffic reaches more resource-intensive access control, intrusion, and file inspection stages. This reduces unnecessary processing and limits exposure to known threats. File policy examines transferred content, health monitoring reports device operational conditions, and identity policy associates user information with network activity. None of those provides the same early indicator-based enforcement. Administrators should still review Security Intelligence events during troubleshooting because traffic blocked at this stage may never reach later rules. Carefully maintained exceptions are also important when legitimate destinations are incorrectly classified.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 247.<\/b><\/p>\n

              A Snort signature triggers during an attempted attack against a server. Which event type should be reviewed first to investigate the signature match?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. <\/b> Health event<\/span>
                \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Deployment event<\/span>
                \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Intrusion event<\/span>
                \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Audit event<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                Intrusion events are generated when inspected traffic matches Snort intrusion rules. They provide detailed information such as the triggering rule or signature, source and destination addresses, protocol details, severity, classification, and timestamps. This makes them the best starting point for determining what kind of attack was detected and whether the event requires incident response, additional investigation, or policy tuning. Health events describe operational conditions, deployment events record configuration deployment activity, and audit events document administrative actions. Although those sources can add context, they do not contain the same signature-specific security information. Administrators should often correlate intrusion events with connection events and other telemetry to determine how the session was handled and whether related activity occurred before or after the alert.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 248.<\/b><\/p>\n

                An organization must allow hundreds of internal private hosts to share one public IPv4 address for outbound Internet connectivity. Which translation method is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. <\/b> Identity NAT<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Dynamic PAT<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Static NAT for every host<\/span>
                  \n<\/span>4.<\/b> No translation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Dynamic Port Address Translation allows many internal private hosts to share a single public IPv4 address by translating source ports in addition to the source address. Each outbound session is assigned a unique translated port so the firewall can maintain multiple simultaneous connections using the same public IP. This makes Dynamic PAT ideal for conserving limited IPv4 address space. Identity NAT preserves original addresses and therefore does not solve the requirement. Static one-to-one NAT would require a separate public mapping for each client, which is inefficient and may be impossible with limited address space. No translation would leave private addresses unusable across the public Internet. Dynamic PAT therefore provides the scalable many-to-one translation needed for typical enterprise outbound access.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 249.<\/b><\/p>\n

                  An internal server must always be reachable externally through the same public IP address while retaining its private address internally. Which configuration should be used?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. <\/b> Static NAT<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Dynamic PAT<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Identity NAT<\/span>
                    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Security Intelligence<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Static NAT creates a consistent mapping between the server’s internal private address and a public translated address. This allows external clients to use the same public IP every time while the server continues to operate with a private address internally. The predictable mapping is well suited to services such as web, mail, VPN, and application servers that must be published to external users. Dynamic PAT is usually intended for many outbound clients sharing one address and does not provide the same straightforward fixed server mapping. Identity NAT preserves the original address rather than translating it. Security Intelligence performs threat-based filtering and is unrelated to address translation. Administrators must also verify access control rules, routing, and return-path connectivity because creating the static translation alone does not automatically make the service reachable.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 250.<\/b><\/p>\n

                    A trusted vulnerability scanner generates large numbers of intrusion alerts during scheduled testing. What is the best way to reduce noise without weakening protection for other traffic?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. <\/b> Disable intrusion prevention globally<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Turn off all event logging<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Change every triggered signature globally<\/span>
                      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Apply targeted suppression, thresholding, or tuning for the authorized scanner<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Authorized vulnerability scanners intentionally generate traffic that resembles real attacks, so repeated intrusion events are expected during assessments. The best response is narrowly scoped tuning that reduces known scanner-generated alerts while preserving detection for the same attack patterns from other sources. Depending on the configuration, administrators can use suppression, thresholding, or rule-specific adjustments. Disabling intrusion prevention globally would create a major security gap, while removing event logging would reduce visibility without solving the underlying problem. Changing signatures globally could also hide real attacks from unrelated systems. Any tuning should be documented, limited to the authorized scanner or expected behavior, and reviewed periodically. If the scanner’s address, owner, or testing scope changes, the exception should be reassessed.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 251.<\/b><\/p>\n

                      An administrator wants users to browse permitted websites normally while preventing downloads of executable files. Which policy design best satisfies the requirement?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. <\/b> Health policy only<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Routing policy only<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Apply a file policy to the relevant Allow access control rule<\/span>
                        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Trust all web traffic<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                        A file policy allows Secure Firewall to apply content-level controls within traffic that is otherwise permitted. The administrator can attach a file policy to an Allow rule so normal browsing remains available while selected executable file types are detected, logged, blocked, or inspected for malware. This is more precise than denying the entire application or website category. A health policy monitors device condition, while routing policies control packet forwarding rather than file handling. Trust would bypass deeper inspection and could prevent file controls from being applied. If the executable is downloaded over encrypted HTTPS, appropriate TLS decryption may also be required so the firewall can inspect the file content. Combining an Allow rule with a file policy therefore provides both usability and file-level security enforcement.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 252.<\/b><\/p>\n

                        After TLS decryption is enabled for outbound HTTPS traffic, users begin reporting certificate warnings. What should be checked first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. <\/b> Route metrics<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Whether endpoint systems trust the CA used by Secure Firewall to sign generated certificates<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> PAT translation counts<\/span>
                          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Intrusion rule severity<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Outbound TLS decryption commonly causes the firewall to generate substitute certificates for external destinations. These certificates are signed by a CA configured for the decryption process. Client endpoints must trust this CA or browsers and applications will report certificate-chain warnings. The administrator should therefore verify that the correct CA certificate has been distributed to endpoint trust stores and that the chain is valid. Route metrics, PAT utilization, and intrusion severity do not normally cause certificate trust errors. If CA trust is correct, the administrator should next investigate applications that use certificate pinning, unsupported cryptographic behavior, invalid server certificates, or destinations that should be exempted from decryption. Proper certificate deployment is one of the most important prerequisites for a successful outbound TLS inspection design.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 253.<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Which capability should be reviewed when a Threat Defense device is experiencing high CPU usage, memory pressure, or interface problems?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. <\/b> Health monitoring<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>2.<\/b> URL filtering<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Security Intelligence<\/span>
                            \n<\/span>4.<\/b> File policy<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Health monitoring provides operational visibility into Secure Firewall devices and managed components. Administrators can use health information to review CPU utilization, memory usage, interface status, process health, communication with Management Center, and other system conditions. This makes it the correct place to start when a device appears overloaded, unstable, or partially unavailable. URL filtering, Security Intelligence, and file policies are traffic-security controls rather than device-health tools. Health data can help distinguish a capacity issue from an interface failure, software-process problem, or management communication issue. Once the underlying condition is identified, the administrator can decide whether policy optimization, troubleshooting, software maintenance, or capacity expansion is appropriate.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 254.<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Two compatible Threat Defense appliances are configured so one can take over traffic forwarding when the active device fails. Which feature provides this function?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. <\/b> Dynamic PAT<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>2.<\/b> File inspection<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>3.<\/b> URL filtering<\/span>
                              \n<\/span>4.<\/b> High availability<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                              High availability provides firewall redundancy by pairing compatible devices and allowing a standby peer to assume the forwarding role when the active appliance becomes unavailable. Depending on platform support and design, configuration information and relevant connection state can be synchronized to reduce disruption during failover. Administrators should monitor HA links, synchronization, monitored interfaces, and peer health to ensure that the standby appliance remains ready. Dynamic PAT performs address translation, file inspection analyzes content, and URL filtering controls access to web destinations. None of those features provides appliance-level failover. High availability is therefore the appropriate technology when an organization wants firewall services to remain available despite the failure of one device or monitored component.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 255.<\/b><\/p>\n

                              A user reports that a permitted application is unexpectedly blocked. Which information should the administrator review first?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. <\/b> Device serial number only<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Hardware inventory only<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Connection event details, including the matched rule and action<\/span>
                                \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Interface counters only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Connection events are usually the best starting point for determining how a specific session was processed. When suitable logging is enabled, the event can show source and destination addresses, ports, application identity, user information, source and destination zones, action, and the access control rule that matched the traffic. This can immediately reveal whether the session matched an unexpected rule, application condition, identity restriction, or web category. Once the policy decision is understood, troubleshooting can move to Security Intelligence, NAT, decryption, intrusion processing, routing, or downstream connectivity as appropriate. Device serial numbers and hardware inventory do not explain session-level policy decisions, while interface counters are primarily useful for link and physical troubleshooting.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 256.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                An organization needs a rule that permits access to a sensitive application only for members of a specific corporate directory group. Which capability is required?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. <\/b> Static NAT<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Identity-based access control<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>3.<\/b> High availability<\/span>
                                  \n<\/span>4.<\/b> File inspection only<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Identity-based access control allows Secure Firewall policies to reference users and directory groups when evaluating traffic. With supported identity integration, the firewall can associate network connections with individual users and then permit or deny access according to group membership. This makes it possible to allow a sensitive application for an authorized department while denying other users on the same network. Static NAT translates addresses, high availability provides device redundancy, and file inspection controls transferred content. None of those supplies the identity context required for user-group enforcement. Administrators should also verify user-to-IP mappings and identity-source connectivity because incorrect mappings can cause otherwise valid rules to behave unexpectedly. Identity-aware access control provides more meaningful policy than relying on IP addresses alone.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 257.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Which access control action can display a warning page to users and allow them to continue to a web destination when policy permits?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. <\/b> Interactive Block<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Trust<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Fastpath<\/span>
                                    \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Security Intelligence Block<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Interactive Block provides a web-based warning workflow for traffic that matches the rule. Instead of issuing an unconditional denial, the firewall can present a warning page and allow the user to continue when the organization’s policy permits acknowledgement-based access. This can be useful for destinations considered risky, distracting, or discouraged but not completely prohibited. Trust simply allows traffic while bypassing deeper inspection, while Fastpath bypasses later processing through the prefilter policy. Security Intelligence Block rejects traffic based on reputation or configured indicators. None of those provides the same user-facing warning and continuation mechanism. Interactive Block therefore best matches a policy that aims to influence user behavior while still allowing exceptions under controlled conditions.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 258.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    An application is permitted by an access control rule, but the security team wants transferred files analyzed for malware. Which configuration should be added?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. <\/b> A static route only<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>2.<\/b> A health policy only<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>3.<\/b> A security zone only<\/span>
                                      \n<\/span>4.<\/b> An appropriate file policy with malware inspection<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      An Allow access control rule permits the application session, but a file policy adds content-level controls for supported files transferred within the connection. By applying a file policy configured for malware inspection, Secure Firewall can evaluate file types, generate file or malware events, and enforce configured actions when malicious content is detected. A static route influences forwarding, a health policy monitors the device’s condition, and a security zone groups interfaces for policy purposes. None of these performs malware analysis. If the application transfers files inside encrypted TLS sessions, the administrator may also need decryption so the firewall can inspect the content. Associating an appropriate file policy with the Allow rule therefore provides application availability while maintaining file-level threat protection.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 259.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Connection events show that a session was permitted, but the destination service remains unreachable. Which troubleshooting step should come next?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. <\/b> Delete the access control policy<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Disable Snort globally<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Verify NAT, routing, interface state, return-path routing, and downstream connectivity<\/span>
                                        \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Reinstall Management Center<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Once the access control policy is confirmed to have allowed the connection, the administrator should move to forwarding and end-to-end connectivity analysis. An incorrect NAT translation could send traffic to the wrong address, a route might be missing, an interface could be down, or return traffic may follow an asymmetric or invalid path. The destination server, load balancer, or downstream router could also be responsible. Packet tracing, routing information, NAT translations, interface statistics, and endpoint tests can help determine where the communication fails. Deleting the access control policy or disabling Snort would create unnecessary risk without addressing a likely forwarding problem. Reinstalling Management Center is also inappropriate unless evidence specifically points to a management-platform failure.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 260.<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        An administrator finds that a broad Trust rule is causing critical application traffic to bypass intrusion and file inspection. What is the best corrective action?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. <\/b> Disable the entire access control policy<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>2.<\/b> Narrow or replace the Trust rule so only explicitly approved traffic bypasses inspection, then deploy the updated policy<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>3.<\/b> Disable connection logging<\/span>
                                          \n<\/span>4.<\/b> Configure Dynamic PAT for the affected traffic<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation:<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Trust rules should be scoped narrowly because matching traffic bypasses additional inspection. If a broad Trust rule includes critical applications, those sessions can avoid intrusion prevention, file controls, malware analysis, and other security functions that the organization expects. The administrator should review the rule’s source and destination networks, applications, users, security zones, and other match criteria and limit it to traffic that has been explicitly approved for inspection bypass. If the critical application should remain permitted but inspected, replacing Trust with Allow and attaching the appropriate security policies is usually safer. After the policy is modified, the new configuration must be deployed and verified through event data. Disabling logging or changing PAT does not address the underlying security problem.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full Cisco CCNP Security 300-710 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps   Question 241. An administrator suspects that a prefilter rule is causing selected traffic to bypass application identification and intrusion inspection. Which action should be taken first? Review the prefilter rule conditions and determine whether a Fastpath action is matching the traffic 2. […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24880"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=24880"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24880\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":24881,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24880\/revisions\/24881"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=24880"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=24880"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=24880"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}