{"id":24928,"date":"2026-09-30T09:35:39","date_gmt":"2026-09-30T09:35:39","guid":{"rendered":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/?p=24928"},"modified":"2026-09-30T09:35:39","modified_gmt":"2026-09-30T09:35:39","slug":"isc-sscp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part17-q321-340","status":"publish","type":"post","link":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/isc-sscp-practice-test-questions-and-exam-dumps-part17-q321-340\/","title":{"rendered":"ISC SSCP Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part17 Q321-340"},"content":{"rendered":"

View Full <\/b>ISC SSCP Exam Dumps<\/b><\/a> and Practice Test Dumps.<\/b><\/h2>\n

 <\/p>\n

Question 321<\/b><\/h3>\n

Which principle requires access to information only when it is necessary for an authorized task?<\/b><\/p>\n

    \n
  1. Data aggregation<\/span><\/li>\n
  2. Need-to-know<\/span><\/li>\n
  3. Open access<\/span><\/li>\n
  4. Data replication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

    The need-to-know principle limits access to information based on whether an individual requires that information to perform an authorized responsibility. Even when a user has general access to a system, sensitive information should not automatically be available unless it is necessary for the user’s duties. This principle reduces unnecessary exposure and limits the potential impact of compromised accounts or inappropriate use. It should be supported by authorization controls, data classification, role definitions, and periodic access reviews. Need-to-know is particularly important for sensitive, confidential, regulated, or mission-critical information.<\/span><\/p>\n

    Question 322<\/b><\/h3>\n

    A security team needs to ensure that a network device is configured according to approved organizational requirements. Which activity is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

      \n
    1. Configuration compliance assessment<\/span><\/li>\n
    2. Password sharing<\/span><\/li>\n
    3. Public administration<\/span><\/li>\n
    4. Unrestricted configuration changes<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

      Configuration compliance assessment compares the current settings of a network device against an approved security baseline or configuration standard. It can identify insecure services, inappropriate access settings, weak authentication configurations, outdated protocols, and other deviations. Findings should be reviewed and corrected through authorized change procedures. Password sharing weakens accountability, public administration increases exposure, and unrestricted configuration changes make it difficult to maintain a consistent security posture. Regular configuration assessments help organizations detect drift and verify that network devices continue to meet established security requirements after updates or administrative changes.<\/span><\/p>\n

      Question 323<\/b><\/h3>\n

      Which technology can help detect suspicious traffic patterns by inspecting network communications?<\/b><\/p>\n

        \n
      1. Data deduplication<\/span><\/li>\n
      2. File compression<\/span><\/li>\n
      3. Intrusion detection system<\/span><\/li>\n
      4. Disk partitioning<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

        Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

        An intrusion detection system monitors network or system activity for indicators of suspicious or potentially malicious behavior. Depending on its design, an IDS may identify known attack signatures, unusual traffic patterns, protocol violations, or other indicators that warrant investigation. Detection systems can generate alerts that security personnel investigate alongside endpoint, authentication, and application information. Data deduplication reduces duplicate storage, file compression reduces data size, and disk partitioning organizes storage. An IDS should be appropriately configured and monitored because excessive false positives or inadequate coverage can reduce its practical security value.<\/span><\/p>\n

        Question 324<\/b><\/h3>\n

        An organization wants to ensure that employees receive only the applications required for their job functions. Which approach supports this objective?<\/b><\/p>\n

          \n
        1. Open software installation<\/span><\/li>\n
        2. Role-based application access<\/span><\/li>\n
        3. Anonymous application accounts<\/span><\/li>\n
        4. Unrestricted administrative permissions<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

          Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

          Role-based application access assigns software permissions according to defined job responsibilities. This supports least privilege by ensuring that users receive access to applications needed for their work rather than broad access to unrelated systems. Role definitions should be based on documented business requirements and reviewed when employees change responsibilities. Open software installation and unrestricted administrative permissions increase the possibility of unauthorized applications and configuration changes. Anonymous accounts also weaken accountability. Application access should be integrated with identity lifecycle processes so that permissions are updated when users join, transfer roles, or leave the organization.<\/span><\/p>\n

          Question 325<\/b><\/h3>\n

          Which security measure helps prevent unauthorized individuals from viewing sensitive documents left on a printer?<\/b><\/p>\n

            \n
          1. Secure print release<\/span><\/li>\n
          2. Data replication<\/span><\/li>\n
          3. Network load balancing<\/span><\/li>\n
          4. DNS caching<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

            Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

            Secure print release requires users to authenticate before sensitive documents are released from a printer. This helps prevent confidential information from remaining unattended in a shared printing area where unauthorized individuals could view or collect it. Authentication may use a badge, PIN, biometric method, or another approved mechanism. Data replication and network load balancing address availability and performance, while DNS caching supports name resolution. Secure printing should be combined with appropriate document classification, user awareness, printer configuration, and disposal procedures to reduce information exposure throughout the document lifecycle.<\/span><\/p>\n

            Question 326<\/b><\/h3>\n

            A security administrator discovers that a user has retained access to a system after changing jobs. What should be performed?<\/b><\/p>\n

              \n
            1. Grant additional permissions<\/span><\/li>\n
            2. Remove or modify obsolete permissions<\/span><\/li>\n
            3. Disable security monitoring<\/span><\/li>\n
            4. Share the account with the new team<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

              Obsolete permissions should be removed or modified when a user’s responsibilities change. Retaining access from a previous role can create excessive privileges and increase the impact of a compromised account. Identity lifecycle management and access recertification processes should identify these situations and ensure that changes are authorized and documented. Granting additional permissions without reviewing existing access can compound the problem. Shared accounts reduce accountability, while disabling monitoring removes useful evidence. Organizations should connect role changes with timely access reviews so that permissions remain aligned with current responsibilities and least-privilege requirements.<\/span><\/p>\n

              Question 327<\/b><\/h3>\n

              Which control can prevent users from connecting unauthorized removable storage devices to managed endpoints?<\/b><\/p>\n

                \n
              1. Data classification<\/span><\/li>\n
              2. Email filtering<\/span><\/li>\n
              3. Endpoint device control<\/span><\/li>\n
              4. Database replication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                Endpoint device control can restrict the use of removable storage devices such as USB drives according to organizational policy. Controls may block unauthorized devices, permit only approved hardware, enforce read-only access, or generate alerts when restricted devices are connected. Such measures can reduce risks involving malware introduction, unauthorized data copying, and loss of sensitive information. Data classification identifies information sensitivity, email filtering addresses message-based threats, and database replication supports availability. Device-control policies should be clearly documented and combined with user awareness, endpoint monitoring, and approved procedures for legitimate removable-media requirements.<\/span><\/p>\n

                Question 328<\/b><\/h3>\n

                A company wants to determine whether an employee’s account was used from an unusual geographic location. Which information is most useful?<\/b><\/p>\n

                  \n
                1. Printer model<\/span><\/li>\n
                2. Storage capacity<\/span><\/li>\n
                3. Authentication source information<\/span><\/li>\n
                4. Monitor resolution<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                  Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                  Authentication source information can help identify unusual account activity by showing where authentication attempts originated. Relevant evidence may include source IP addresses, geographic indicators, device identifiers, timestamps, authentication methods, and historical activity patterns. Security teams can use this information to identify suspicious access patterns such as impossible travel or unexpected remote connections. Geographic indicators are not always precise because VPNs, proxies, mobile networks, and other technologies can affect apparent location. Printer models, storage capacity, and monitor resolution do not provide useful evidence for evaluating authentication origin.<\/span><\/p>\n

                  Question 329<\/b><\/h3>\n

                  Which approach helps protect administrator credentials from being exposed in scripts or configuration files?<\/b><\/p>\n

                    \n
                  1. Secrets management<\/span><\/li>\n
                  2. Plaintext storage<\/span><\/li>\n
                  3. Shared text files<\/span><\/li>\n
                  4. Public repositories<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                    Secrets management systems provide controlled storage and retrieval of sensitive values such as passwords, API keys, certificates, and tokens. Instead of embedding credentials directly in scripts or configuration files, applications or administrators can retrieve secrets through authorized mechanisms. Proper secrets management can include encryption, access controls, auditing, rotation, and lifecycle management. Plaintext storage and shared files increase the risk of credential disclosure, while public repositories can expose secrets to unauthorized parties. Organizations should also scan repositories and configuration stores for accidentally exposed credentials and rotate compromised secrets promptly.<\/span><\/p>\n

                    Question 330<\/b><\/h3>\n

                    Which activity helps determine whether a security alert represents a genuine incident rather than a false positive?<\/b><\/p>\n

                      \n
                    1. Deleting the alert immediately<\/span><\/li>\n
                    2. Disabling the detection system<\/span><\/li>\n
                    3. Ignoring related events<\/span><\/li>\n
                    4. Alert validation and investigation<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                      Alert validation and investigation help determine whether a security alert represents malicious or unauthorized activity. Analysts can examine associated logs, endpoint telemetry, authentication records, network connections, user behavior, and other evidence to establish context. This process helps distinguish genuine incidents from legitimate activity that triggered a detection rule. Immediately deleting alerts or disabling detection systems removes visibility, while ignoring related events can prevent analysts from identifying broader attack patterns. Effective security operations should establish documented investigation procedures, prioritize alerts according to risk, and preserve relevant evidence during analysis.<\/span><\/p>\n

                      Question 331<\/b><\/h3>\n

                      Which practice reduces the risk that an attacker can exploit default credentials on a newly deployed device?<\/b><\/p>\n

                        \n
                      1. Enable anonymous access<\/span><\/li>\n
                      2. Change default credentials<\/span><\/li>\n
                      3. Publish administrator passwords<\/span><\/li>\n
                      4. Disable authentication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                        Changing default credentials is an important security-hardening practice for newly deployed systems and devices. Manufacturers may ship products with known usernames and passwords that are widely documented or easily discovered. Leaving those credentials unchanged can allow unauthorized users to gain administrative access. Organizations should replace default passwords with strong unique credentials and use multifactor authentication where supported. Anonymous access and disabled authentication remove important security barriers, while publishing administrator passwords directly exposes credentials. Secure deployment procedures should include credential changes, configuration hardening, patching, access restrictions, and verification before production use.<\/span><\/p>\n

                        Question 332<\/b><\/h3>\n

                        A security team wants to ensure that an application can access only the database functions it actually requires. Which control is most appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                          \n
                        1. Unrestricted database permissions<\/span><\/li>\n
                        2. Shared database accounts<\/span><\/li>\n
                        3. Least-privilege database authorization<\/span><\/li>\n
                        4. Anonymous database access<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                          Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                          Least-privilege database authorization limits an application’s database permissions to the operations and data required for legitimate functionality. For example, an application may need permission to read selected tables but not modify administrative structures or access unrelated records. Restricting database privileges can reduce the impact of application vulnerabilities or compromised application credentials. Unrestricted permissions increase exposure, while shared accounts reduce accountability. Anonymous access is inappropriate for sensitive databases. Database authorization should be reviewed periodically, protected with strong credentials or service identities, monitored, and updated when application requirements change.<\/span><\/p>\n

                          Question 333<\/b><\/h3>\n

                          Which document identifies the responsibilities of different teams during a disaster recovery effort?<\/b><\/p>\n

                            \n
                          1. Software inventory<\/span><\/li>\n
                          2. Disaster recovery plan<\/span><\/li>\n
                          3. Password policy<\/span><\/li>\n
                          4. Network address list<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                            Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                            Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                            A disaster recovery plan documents how an organization will restore critical systems and services after a disruptive event. It can identify recovery priorities, responsibilities, communication procedures, dependencies, technical recovery steps, alternate facilities, and escalation requirements. Clearly assigning responsibilities helps ensure that personnel understand their roles during a high-pressure recovery situation. Software inventories and network address lists may provide supporting information but do not establish the overall recovery responsibilities. Password policies address authentication requirements. Disaster recovery plans should be tested through exercises and updated when systems, personnel, dependencies, or business requirements change.<\/span><\/p>\n

                            Question 334<\/b><\/h3>\n

                            A security administrator needs to determine whether a user still requires access to a sensitive application. Which process should be used?<\/b><\/p>\n

                              \n
                            1. Access recertification<\/span><\/li>\n
                            2. File compression<\/span><\/li>\n
                            3. Network broadcasting<\/span><\/li>\n
                            4. Data duplication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                              Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                              Access recertification requires authorized personnel to periodically confirm that assigned permissions remain necessary and appropriate. During the process, managers or application owners can review user roles, business responsibilities, privileged access, and sensitive application permissions. Unnecessary access should be removed through approved procedures. Access recertification helps address stale permissions that may remain after role changes or temporary assignments. File compression reduces storage size, network broadcasting distributes traffic, and data duplication creates additional copies. Recertification should be documented and performed at intervals appropriate to the sensitivity and risk of the application.<\/span><\/p>\n

                              Question 335<\/b><\/h3>\n

                              Which control helps ensure that a user cannot deny having performed an authorized digital transaction when reliable evidence exists?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                \n
                              1. Data compression<\/span><\/li>\n
                              2. Nonrepudiation mechanisms<\/span><\/li>\n
                              3. Network segmentation<\/span><\/li>\n
                              4. Backup replication<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                Nonrepudiation mechanisms provide evidence that can help associate an action or transaction with a particular party and make it more difficult to falsely deny participation. Depending on the system, digital signatures, secure audit records, timestamps, and strong identity controls may contribute to nonrepudiation. The strength of the evidence depends on how identities, keys, logs, and supporting records are managed. Data compression reduces data size, network segmentation limits communication paths, and backup replication supports availability. Nonrepudiation is particularly relevant for transactions or communications where accountability and evidence of origin are important.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                Question 336<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                An organization wants to ensure that only approved personnel can modify firewall configurations. Which control should be applied?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  \n
                                1. Restricted administrative access<\/span><\/li>\n
                                2. Public management access<\/span><\/li>\n
                                3. Shared credentials<\/span><\/li>\n
                                4. Anonymous administration<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                  Correct Answer: 1<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                  Restricted administrative access limits firewall configuration privileges to authorized personnel whose responsibilities require them. Administrative access should use individual accounts, strong authentication, least privilege, and appropriate monitoring. Management interfaces should be reachable only through approved networks or secure administrative channels whenever possible. Public management access increases exposure, while shared credentials reduce accountability. Anonymous administration prevents reliable attribution and should not be used for security-sensitive configuration. Firewall changes should also follow documented change-management procedures so that modifications are reviewed, approved, recorded, and validated after implementation.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                  Question 337<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                  Which activity helps identify whether a security control has become ineffective because of changes in the operating environment?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    \n
                                  1. Control reassessment<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  2. Unrestricted access expansion<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  3. Removal of monitoring<\/span><\/li>\n
                                  4. Credential sharing<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                    Correct Answer: 2<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                    Control reassessment evaluates whether a security control continues to meet its intended objective after changes in technology, architecture, threats, business processes, or organizational requirements. A control that was effective previously may become inadequate after a system redesign or new integration. Reassessment can involve reviewing control objectives, testing configurations, examining evidence, and comparing results against current risk requirements. Unrestricted access expansion and credential sharing increase risk, while removing monitoring reduces visibility. Organizations should reassess controls after significant changes and establish remediation activities when testing identifies weaknesses.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                    Question 338<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                    A company wants to reduce the risk that confidential information remains on a retired storage device. Which action is appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      \n
                                    1. Reuse the device immediately<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    2. Leave the data intact<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    3. Securely sanitize the storage media<\/span><\/li>\n
                                    4. Place the device in an open area<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                      Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                      Securely sanitizing storage media removes or renders previously stored information inaccessible before the device is reused, transferred, or disposed of. The appropriate sanitization method depends on the storage technology, sensitivity of the information, and intended disposition. Organizations should use approved procedures and maintain evidence that sanitization was completed where required. Simply deleting files may not provide sufficient protection because recoverable data can remain on some media. Immediate reuse, leaving data intact, or storing the device without protection can expose confidential information. Media disposal should be integrated with asset lifecycle and information-retention procedures.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                      Question 339<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                      Which capability helps security personnel identify relationships among events generated by multiple systems?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        \n
                                      1. Centralized event correlation<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      2. Screen locking<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      3. Disk formatting<\/span><\/li>\n
                                      4. Printer management<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                        Correct Answer: 3<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                        Centralized event correlation combines security information from multiple sources and identifies relationships that may indicate suspicious activity. A security team can correlate authentication failures, endpoint alerts, firewall connections, application events, and other telemetry to build a more complete picture of an incident. Correlation can reduce the difficulty of investigating isolated events and may help identify attack sequences that would otherwise remain unnoticed. Screen locking protects unattended devices, disk formatting manages storage, and printer management handles printing operations. Effective correlation requires reliable timestamps, appropriate data sources, normalization, and carefully designed detection rules.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                        Question 340<\/b><\/h3>\n

                                        A security manager wants to verify that employees understand how to respond to a simulated security incident. Which activity is appropriate?<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          \n
                                        1. Disable the response plan<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        2. Conduct a security exercise<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        3. Remove incident documentation<\/span><\/li>\n
                                        4. Eliminate employee training<\/span><\/li>\n<\/ol>\n

                                          Correct Answer: 4<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          Explanation<\/b><\/p>\n

                                          A security exercise allows employees and response teams to practice their responsibilities in a controlled scenario without waiting for a real incident. Exercises can evaluate communication, escalation, decision-making, technical procedures, documentation, and coordination among different teams. Findings can identify weaknesses in training or response procedures and provide opportunities for improvement. Disabling the response plan or removing documentation reduces preparedness, while eliminating training leaves personnel less prepared to recognize and handle incidents. Exercises should be conducted periodically and followed by documented lessons learned, assigned improvements, and updates to relevant procedures or training.<\/span><\/p>\n

                                           <\/p>\n","protected":false},"excerpt":{"rendered":"

                                          View Full ISC SSCP Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps.   Question 321 Which principle requires access to information only when it is necessary for an authorized task? Data aggregation Need-to-know Open access Data replication Correct Answer: 2 Explanation The need-to-know principle limits access to information based on whether an individual requires that information to […]<\/p>\n","protected":false},"author":1,"featured_media":0,"comment_status":"closed","ping_status":"closed","sticky":false,"template":"","format":"standard","meta":[],"categories":[1648,1647],"tags":[],"_links":{"self":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24928"}],"collection":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts"}],"about":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/types\/post"}],"author":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/users\/1"}],"replies":[{"embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/comments?post=24928"}],"version-history":[{"count":1,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24928\/revisions"}],"predecessor-version":[{"id":24929,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/posts\/24928\/revisions\/24929"}],"wp:attachment":[{"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/media?parent=24928"}],"wp:term":[{"taxonomy":"category","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/categories?post=24928"},{"taxonomy":"post_tag","embeddable":true,"href":"https:\/\/www.examlabs.com\/certification\/wp-json\/wp\/v2\/tags?post=24928"}],"curies":[{"name":"wp","href":"https:\/\/api.w.org\/{rel}","templated":true}]}}