Oracle 1z0-1072-25 Cloud Infrastructure Architect Associate Exam Dumps and Practice Test Questions Set 11 Q151 – 165

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Question 151

A company needs to ensure that data stored in Object Storage is automatically deleted after 90 days to comply with data retention policies. Which OCI feature should be implemented?

A) Manual deletion scripts

B) Object Lifecycle Management

C) Archive Storage transition only

D) Bucket deletion

Answer: B

Explanation:

Object Lifecycle Management should be implemented to automatically delete data after 90 days in compliance with retention policies. This feature allows administrators to define rules that automatically perform actions on objects based on age or other criteria. Lifecycle policies can delete objects, move them to different storage tiers, or archive them without manual intervention. For the 90-day deletion requirement, a lifecycle rule would be configured to delete objects when they reach the specified age, ensuring consistent policy enforcement across all objects in the bucket.

Option A is incorrect because manual deletion scripts require ongoing maintenance, custom development, and scheduled execution that may fail or be forgotten. Manual approaches lack the reliability and audit capabilities of native lifecycle management and create operational overhead that automated solutions eliminate.

Option C is incorrect because transitioning to Archive Storage only moves objects to lower-cost storage without deleting them. While archiving is part of lifecycle management capabilities, the requirement specifically calls for deletion after 90 days rather than archival.

Option D is incorrect because deleting entire buckets removes all objects regardless of age and destroys the storage container itself. Bucket deletion is too broad for implementing retention policies that should selectively remove objects based on age while maintaining the bucket structure.

Question 152

An architect is designing a solution where compute instances need to access multiple OCI services including Object Storage, Autonomous Database, and Streaming. Which network gateway provides private access to these services without traversing the internet?

A) Internet Gateway

B) NAT Gateway

C) Service Gateway

D) Dynamic Routing Gateway

Answer: C

Explanation:

Service Gateway provides private access to supported OCI services including Object Storage, Autonomous Database, and Streaming without traffic traversing the internet. Service gateways enable resources in private subnets to reach Oracle services through the Oracle network backbone rather than public internet routes, improving security and performance. Traffic routed through service gateways does not consume internet bandwidth and avoids exposure to internet-based threats while accessing cloud services.

Option A is incorrect because Internet Gateway routes traffic between VCN resources and the public internet, not to OCI services through private connections. Using internet gateway for accessing Oracle services would require public IP addresses and expose traffic to the internet.

Option B is incorrect because NAT Gateway enables outbound internet access for instances without public IPs but does not provide the optimized private connectivity to Oracle services that service gateway offers. NAT gateway traffic travels over the internet rather than through private Oracle network paths.

Option D is incorrect because Dynamic Routing Gateway provides connectivity to on-premises networks and other VCNs rather than to Oracle services. DRG is used for hybrid cloud and VCN interconnection scenarios, not for accessing platform services.

Question 153

A financial services company requires that all data be encrypted at rest and in transit with customer-managed encryption keys. Which combination of OCI services meets this requirement?

A) Default encryption only

B) Vault for encryption keys with SSL/TLS for transit encryption

C) Security Lists for encryption

D) Block Volume encryption only

Answer: B

Explanation:

The combination of Vault for managing customer encryption keys and SSL/TLS for transit encryption meets the requirement for customer-managed encryption at rest and in transit. Vault allows customers to create and control master encryption keys used to encrypt data in OCI services including Object Storage, Block Volumes, and databases. SSL/TLS protocols encrypt data during transmission between clients and OCI services or between OCI resources, ensuring end-to-end encryption under customer control. This comprehensive approach addresses both at-rest and in-transit encryption requirements with customer-managed keys.

Option A is incorrect because default encryption uses Oracle-managed keys rather than customer-managed keys. While OCI encrypts data at rest by default, the requirement specifically calls for customer-managed keys that provide additional control over encryption material.

Option C is incorrect because Security Lists are network access control mechanisms that filter traffic based on rules, not encryption services. Security lists operate at the network layer and do not provide data encryption capabilities.

Option D is incorrect because Block Volume encryption alone only addresses storage encryption for compute volumes and does not cover other data stores like Object Storage or databases. Additionally, this option does not address transit encryption requirements.

Question 154

An application running in OCI needs to send email notifications to users. Which OCI service provides email delivery capabilities?

A) Notifications

B) Email Delivery

C) Functions

D) Events

Answer: B

Explanation:

Email Delivery is the OCI service that provides email delivery capabilities for applications to send transactional and bulk emails. This service offers SMTP relay and API-based email sending with features including bounce and complaint handling, sender authentication, and delivery analytics. Email Delivery helps applications reliably send notifications, alerts, and marketing communications while maintaining good sender reputation and providing visibility into delivery success rates.

Option A is incorrect because Notifications is a pub/sub messaging service that delivers messages to subscribed endpoints through channels like email, SMS, Slack, or PagerDuty, but it is designed for alerting and event distribution rather than application-generated transactional emails to end users.

Option C is incorrect because Functions is a serverless compute service for running code in response to events. While Functions could be used to trigger email sending, it does not itself provide email delivery infrastructure or SMTP relay capabilities.

Option D is incorrect because Events tracks state changes in OCI resources and triggers actions based on those changes. Events can initiate workflows but does not provide the email delivery infrastructure needed for sending messages to users.

Question 155

A company wants to implement a disaster recovery strategy where they can quickly restore their entire OCI environment including compute instances, block volumes, and configurations. Which approach provides the most comprehensive recovery capability?

A) Manual documentation of configurations

B) Boot volume and block volume backups with custom images

C) Taking screenshots of the console

D) Exporting only the network configuration

Answer: B

Explanation:

Boot volume and block volume backups combined with custom images provide the most comprehensive recovery capability for OCI environments. Boot volume backups capture the entire operating system and configuration of compute instances, while block volume backups preserve data volumes. Custom images enable rapid provisioning of new instances with pre-configured software and settings. Together, these components allow complete environment restoration including compute configurations, application installations, and data, supporting comprehensive disaster recovery objectives with minimal recovery time.

Option A is incorrect because manual documentation requires time-consuming recreation of resources and configurations during recovery, increasing recovery time objectives and introducing human error risk. Manual approaches lack the speed and reliability of automated backup-based recovery.

Option C is incorrect because screenshots provide visual documentation but cannot be used to programmatically restore configurations or data. Screenshots are reference materials rather than functional recovery artifacts that can rebuild environments.

Option D is incorrect because exporting only network configuration addresses one aspect of the environment but omits compute instances, storage, and applications. Comprehensive disaster recovery requires backing up all critical components, not just networking elements.

Question 156

An architect needs to design a solution where traffic to a web application is distributed based on geographic location of users, sending European users to EU region and US users to US region. Which OCI service provides this capability?

A) Load Balancer

B) Traffic Management Steering Policy

C) VCN Route Table

D) Security List

Answer: B

Explanation:

Traffic Management Steering Policy provides the capability to distribute traffic based on geographic location of users. Traffic Management offers various steering policies including geolocation steering that directs users to endpoints based on their geographic origin. For the scenario described, a geolocation policy would route European users to resources in EU regions and US users to US regions, optimizing performance through regional proximity and potentially addressing data residency requirements.

Option A is incorrect because Load Balancer distributes traffic across backend servers within a region but does not provide geographic routing capabilities. Load balancers operate at the regional level and cannot direct users to different regions based on their location.

Option C is incorrect because VCN Route Tables control traffic routing within and between networks based on destination IP addresses, not source geography. Route tables direct packets to next hops but do not implement geography-based traffic steering.

Option D is incorrect because Security Lists filter traffic based on network parameters like IP addresses, protocols, and ports rather than geographic origin. Security lists implement access control policies, not traffic distribution based on user location.

Question 157

A development team needs isolated environments for each developer to test code without affecting others. Each environment should be completely separated with its own networking and resources. Which OCI construct provides this isolation?

A) Separate availability domains

B) Separate compartments with dedicated VCNs

C) Shared VCN with multiple subnets

D) Single compartment with tagged resources

Answer: B

Explanation:

Separate compartments with dedicated VCNs provide complete isolation for individual developer environments. Compartments offer logical isolation with separate IAM policies controlling access, while dedicated VCNs ensure network separation between environments. Each developer can have a compartment containing a VCN with compute instances, databases, and other resources, ensuring changes in one environment cannot impact others. This approach provides both access control isolation through compartments and network isolation through separate VCNs.

Option A is incorrect because availability domains are physical infrastructure divisions within regions designed for fault tolerance rather than logical environment isolation. Resources in different availability domains within the same VCN can communicate freely and do not provide the access control separation needed for developer environments.

Option C is incorrect because a shared VCN with multiple subnets provides network segmentation but does not offer complete isolation. Resources in different subnets can potentially communicate, and all developers would have access to the same VCN requiring additional security list complexity.

Option D is incorrect because a single compartment with tagged resources provides organizational labeling but does not enforce isolation. All resources in the same compartment are subject to the same policies, and tags alone cannot prevent one developer from impacting another’s resources.

Question 158

An application requires consistent block storage performance that does not degrade during backup operations. Which OCI block volume feature should be enabled?

A) Volume groups

B) Clone volumes

C) Backup policy

D) Volume performance units with backup without performance impact

Answer: D

Explanation:

Volume performance units with backup operations that do not impact performance ensure consistent block storage performance during backup operations. OCI block volumes with sufficient performance units (VPUs) maintain IOPS and throughput levels even when backups are running, ensuring production workloads are not affected by backup operations. This capability is critical for applications that cannot tolerate performance degradation and need consistent storage performance characteristics regardless of maintenance operations.

Option A is incorrect because volume groups organize multiple volumes for coordinated operations like consistent backups across volumes but do not specifically address performance maintenance during backups. Volume groups provide consistency rather than performance guarantees.

Option B is incorrect because clone volumes create instant copies of volumes for testing or development but do not relate to maintaining performance during backup operations of the original volume. Cloning is a separate feature from performance management.

Option C is incorrect because backup policies automate backup schedules and retention but do not address the performance characteristics during backup operations. Policies control when backups occur, not how they impact application performance.

Question 159

A company needs to ensure that their VCN resources can resolve domain names for internal services and external internet sites. Which DNS configuration is required?

A) Only public DNS resolvers

B) VCN DNS resolver with custom DNS zones for internal names and forwarders for external names

C) No DNS configuration needed

D) Manual host file management

Answer: B

Explanation:

VCN DNS resolver with custom DNS zones for internal names and forwarders for external names provides comprehensive DNS resolution for both internal services and external internet sites. OCI provides a built-in DNS resolver for each VCN that can resolve names within the VCN and forward external queries to specified DNS servers. Custom DNS zones can be created for internal service discovery, while DNS forwarders or public resolvers handle external domain resolution, providing complete naming services.

Option A is incorrect because using only public DNS resolvers cannot resolve internal VCN names or custom private domain names used within the organization. Public DNS servers only resolve publicly registered domains and cannot provide internal name resolution services.

Option C is incorrect because DNS configuration is necessary for name resolution functionality. Without proper DNS setup, resources cannot resolve domain names to IP addresses, breaking connectivity to services referenced by hostnames.

Option D is incorrect because manual host file management is not scalable, requires updates on every instance, and is error-prone. Host files cannot provide dynamic name resolution or handle the complexity of modern distributed applications with many services.

Question 160

An organization wants to track all API calls made in their OCI tenancy for security auditing and compliance. Which service provides this capability?

A) Monitoring

B) Logging with Audit logs

C) Events

D) Notifications

Answer: B

Explanation:

Logging with Audit logs provides comprehensive tracking of all API calls made in an OCI tenancy for security auditing and compliance. Audit logs automatically record every API request including who made the call, when it occurred, which resource was affected, and what action was performed. These logs are retained for compliance purposes and can be searched, analyzed, and archived for security investigations and regulatory requirements. Audit logging is automatically enabled for all tenancies.

Option A is incorrect because Monitoring collects performance metrics and generates alarms based on threshold violations rather than tracking individual API calls. Monitoring focuses on resource health and performance rather than detailed action auditing.

Option C is incorrect because Events tracks state changes in resources and triggers actions based on those changes, but it does not provide the comprehensive API call logging needed for compliance auditing. Events are for automation triggers rather than complete audit trails.

Option D is incorrect because Notifications delivers messages to subscribers but does not track or record API calls. Notifications is a messaging delivery service rather than an auditing and logging solution.

Question 161

A company needs to run Oracle Database workloads in OCI with predictable performance and the ability to scale CPU and storage independently. Which database service option should be used?

A) Autonomous Database Serverless

B) Autonomous Database Dedicated

C) Base Database Service on Virtual Machines

D) MySQL Database Service

Answer: A

Explanation:

Autonomous Database Serverless provides the ability to run Oracle Database workloads with predictable performance and independent scaling of CPU and storage resources. The serverless deployment model allows customers to scale compute resources up or down independently of storage capacity, paying only for the resources consumed. Autonomous Database automates management tasks including patching, backups, and optimization while providing consistent performance characteristics suitable for production workloads.

Option B is incorrect because Autonomous Database Dedicated provides dedicated Exadata infrastructure for isolation and compliance requirements but comes at higher cost than serverless. While dedicated offers independent scaling, serverless provides this capability more cost-effectively for standard workloads not requiring dedicated infrastructure.

Option C is incorrect because Base Database Service on Virtual Machines requires more manual management and does not offer the same ease of independent CPU and storage scaling as Autonomous Database. Traditional database services require more planning and potential downtime for resource scaling.

Option D is incorrect because MySQL Database Service runs MySQL databases rather than Oracle Database. The requirement specifically calls for Oracle Database workloads which cannot be served by MySQL.

Question 162

An application needs to process messages asynchronously between microservices with guaranteed delivery and the ability to process messages at different rates. Which OCI service should be used?

A) API Gateway

B) Queue

C) Functions

D) Container Instances

Answer: B

Explanation:

Queue is the appropriate OCI service for processing messages asynchronously between microservices with guaranteed delivery and flexible processing rates. OCI Queue provides fully managed message queuing that decouples producers from consumers, allowing them to operate independently at different speeds. Messages are reliably stored until consumers process them, providing guaranteed delivery even if consumers are temporarily unavailable. Queue supports various messaging patterns including point-to-point and publish-subscribe for microservices communication.

Option A is incorrect because API Gateway routes and manages API requests but does not provide asynchronous message queuing or guaranteed delivery. API Gateway facilitates synchronous request-response patterns rather than asynchronous messaging between services.

Option C is incorrect because Functions is a serverless compute platform for running code in response to events rather than a message queuing service. While Functions can be triggered by queue messages, it does not provide the queuing infrastructure itself.

Option D is incorrect because Container Instances runs containerized applications but does not provide message queuing services. Container Instances could host applications that produce or consume queue messages but does not offer the queuing functionality described.

Question 163

A company wants to deploy applications using Kubernetes in OCI without managing the control plane infrastructure. Which service should they use?

A) Compute instances with manual Kubernetes installation

B) Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE)

C) Container Instances

D) Functions

Answer: B

Explanation:

Container Engine for Kubernetes (OKE) provides managed Kubernetes clusters where Oracle manages the control plane infrastructure while customers focus on deploying applications. OKE automates Kubernetes master node deployment, upgrading, and scaling, eliminating the operational burden of managing control plane components. Customers retain full control over worker nodes and deployed applications while benefiting from a fully managed, production-grade Kubernetes environment integrated with OCI services.

Option A is incorrect because manually installing Kubernetes on compute instances requires customers to manage all aspects of the cluster including control plane components, which contradicts the requirement to avoid managing control plane infrastructure. Manual deployment increases operational overhead significantly.

Option C is incorrect because Container Instances provides serverless container execution for individual containers or small groups but does not offer Kubernetes orchestration. Container Instances is suitable for simple containerized workloads but not for complex Kubernetes-based applications.

Option D is incorrect because Functions is a serverless platform for running event-driven code rather than a Kubernetes environment. Functions uses a different programming model and does not provide Kubernetes orchestration capabilities.

Question 164

An architect is designing a multi-tier application where the web tier in a public subnet needs to communicate with the application tier in a private subnet. Which configuration enables this communication?

A) Remove all security list rules

B) Configure security list rules allowing traffic between the subnets on required ports

C) Place both tiers in public subnets only

D) Use separate VCNs for each tier

Answer: B

Explanation:

Configuring security list rules allowing traffic between subnets on required ports enables communication between the web tier in public subnet and application tier in private subnet. Security lists act as virtual firewalls controlling traffic to and from instances. For the multi-tier application, ingress rules in the application tier security list should allow traffic from the web tier subnet on application ports, while the web tier security list should allow return traffic. This configuration provides necessary connectivity while maintaining security through controlled access.

Option A is incorrect because removing all security list rules blocks all traffic including the necessary communication between tiers. Security lists must contain appropriate allow rules for desired traffic flows while blocking unauthorized access.

Option C is incorrect because placing both tiers in public subnets exposes the application tier directly to the internet, violating security best practices. The application tier should remain in a private subnet with access only from authorized sources like the web tier.

Option D is incorrect because using separate VCNs for each tier adds unnecessary complexity requiring VCN peering or other interconnection mechanisms. Within a single VCN, subnets can communicate when security list rules permit, providing simpler architecture.

Question 165

A company needs to migrate a large amount of data to OCI Object Storage with minimal impact on their internet bandwidth. Which OCI service facilitates this offline data transfer?

A) FastConnect

B) Data Transfer Service using physical appliances

C) Site-to-Site VPN

D) Direct internet upload

Answer: B

Explanation:

Data Transfer Service using physical appliances facilitates offline data transfer to OCI Object Storage with minimal internet bandwidth impact. Oracle provides secure transfer appliances that customers load with data at their location, then ship to Oracle for high-speed upload to Object Storage. This offline method is ideal for large datasets where network transfer would be time-consuming or consume excessive bandwidth. The appliances provide encryption and tracking throughout the transfer process, ensuring secure and reliable data migration.

Option A is incorrect because FastConnect provides dedicated network connectivity between on-premises and OCI but still uses network bandwidth for data transfer. While FastConnect offers better performance than internet connections, it does not eliminate bandwidth consumption like offline transfer methods.

Option C is incorrect because Site-to-Site VPN uses internet bandwidth for encrypted data transfer and would not minimize bandwidth impact for large data migrations. VPN connections are suitable for ongoing connectivity but not optimal for bulk data transfer.

Option D is incorrect because direct internet upload consumes substantial bandwidth and may be impractical for large datasets due to time requirements and potential bandwidth limitations. Direct upload is the exact scenario the question seeks to avoid.