The CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) certification is one of the most recognized entry-level IT certifications in the world. Designed for aspiring IT professionals, this exam focuses on software, operating systems, cybersecurity, troubleshooting, and operational procedures. It is the second part of the A+ certification, the first being the 220-1101 exam which deals with hardware, networking, and mobile devices.

Passing both Core 1 and Core 2 is essential to earn the full A+ credential. This article provides over 20 free sample questions for the 220-1102 exam, giving you a chance to assess your knowledge and get a feel for the exam format.

Why You Should Practice with Free Exam Questions

When preparing for the A+ Core 2 exam, practicing with free, realistic exam-style questions is one of the most effective strategies to ensure you are well-prepared. Below are several reasons why integrating practice questions into your study routine is essential for success.

Helps Identify Knowledge Gaps

One of the most valuable aspects of practicing with realistic exam questions is that it allows you to pinpoint any areas where your understanding is lacking. By testing yourself on various topics, you can quickly assess which concepts you need to focus more on. This self-assessment can help you target weak spots, ensuring that you spend more time on the areas that need improvement and less on those you already have mastered.

Reinforces Key Concepts

Repetition is key to retaining information. By regularly answering practice questions, you reinforce the key concepts and terminology needed to pass the A+ Core 2 exam. These practice sessions are a great way to solidify your understanding and commit vital details to memory. Over time, you’ll become more comfortable with the material, improving both your knowledge and recall speed.

Familiarizes You with the Exam Format

Every exam comes with its own unique style and structure. Familiarity with the question format is essential to avoid surprises on the day of the test. By practicing with questions that resemble the actual exam, you can get used to the wording, pacing, and question types. Knowing what to expect helps you feel more confident and prepared when it’s time to take the real exam.

Builds Confidence and Reduces Exam Anxiety

A major source of exam anxiety is the fear of the unknown. When you practice with realistic questions, you reduce the fear of what might come up in the exam. The more practice you get, the more confident you become in your ability to answer questions correctly. This confidence is crucial for managing stress and improving your performance. With each practice session, you become more familiar with the exam, which, in turn, helps to lower anxiety levels.

Provides an Authentic Exam Experience

The free practice questions you encounter are crafted to mimic the difficulty level and content of the actual A+ Core 2 exam. This makes your preparation more authentic, offering a closer reflection of what you will experience when you take the exam. By practicing with high-quality, exam-style questions, you are simulating the real exam environment, which can significantly enhance your readiness.

Comprehensive Overview of the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) Exam

Before diving into the intricacies of practice questions, it’s crucial to understand the structure and key areas covered in the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) exam. This foundational exam assesses your knowledge and skills in a variety of IT domains, from operating systems to security practices. Below, we’ll break down the core exam domains and their respective weightings, so you know exactly what to expect.

Key Domains and Their Weightings

The CompTIA A+ 220-1102 exam is divided into several major domains, each of which contributes a specific percentage to the overall exam score. Understanding these domains is vital because they highlight the areas you need to focus on during your preparation.

1. Operating Systems – 31%

Operating systems make up the largest portion of the CompTIA A+ 220-1102 exam, covering 31% of the total exam. This domain requires candidates to have a deep understanding of installing, configuring, and troubleshooting various operating systems. You will be expected to work with common operating systems like Windows, Linux, and macOS, and to know how to handle their configurations, file systems, and tools. Additionally, understanding system performance optimization and the ability to resolve any software-related issues is crucial for passing this section.

Key topics include:

• Installation and configuration of operating systems.

• File system management and command-line tools.

• OS troubleshooting, including driver issues, and resolving system errors.

• Virtualization and cloud computing environments.

This domain tests your ability to work with systems that businesses and end-users rely on daily. Mastery in this area will demonstrate your ability to ensure smooth system operations.

2. Security – 25%

The Security domain accounts for 25% of the exam, and it reflects the increasing importance of cybersecurity in IT roles. CompTIA expects candidates to be knowledgeable about protecting information, devices, and networks against malicious threats. Understanding best practices for data protection, encryption, and security protocols is critical.

Topics covered include:

• Identifying and protecting against common security threats.

• Implementing security measures such as firewalls, antivirus software, and security patches.

• Knowledge of encryption techniques, both at rest and in transit.

• Configuring and managing user authentication, including multi-factor authentication (MFA).

• Understanding network security and securing wireless connections.

As security continues to be a top concern for organizations of all sizes, having a strong foundation in security practices is necessary for passing this section of the exam.

3. Software Troubleshooting – 22%

At 22%, software troubleshooting is another important domain in the 220-1102 exam. This section focuses on diagnosing and resolving issues related to software applications, whether it’s problems with installations, compatibility, or performance.

Topics in this domain include:

• Troubleshooting operating system problems, such as startup failures, crashes, and system resource issues.

• Resolving application-related issues, including software crashes and compatibility errors.

• Using diagnostic tools and commands to identify software-related problems.

• Repairing corrupted software and recovering lost or damaged data.

This domain evaluates your ability to apply logical troubleshooting methods to effectively address and resolve software issues in real-world environments.

4. Operational Procedures – 22%

The Operational Procedures domain makes up the remaining 22% of the exam. This section emphasizes understanding best practices in IT operations, encompassing areas like customer service, documentation, and incident response procedures.

Core areas covered include:

• Applying proper communication skills in a professional environment, including working with end-users.

• Implementing and following IT policies, procedures, and protocols.

• Understanding the importance of documentation, and how to maintain accurate records of IT issues and resolutions.

• Adhering to safety standards, especially when dealing with hardware and electrical components.

• Disaster recovery, backup strategies, and handling critical IT incidents.

This domain ensures that you not only possess the technical skills needed for IT roles but also understand the professional and procedural aspects of the job. It emphasizes that successful IT professionals must balance technical know-how with excellent organizational and communication skills.

Preparing for the 220-1102 Exam

In summary, the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) exam tests your knowledge in four critical areas: Operating Systems, Security, Software Troubleshooting, and Operational Procedures. As you prepare, it’s important to dive deep into each domain, ensuring you understand the concepts thoroughly. By practicing with realistic exam-style questions, you can refine your understanding of these topics, helping you achieve a higher level of confidence and readiness for the exam day.

20+ Free CompTIA A+ (220-1102) Sample Questions

Here are more than 20 multiple-choice questions with answer keys and explanations:

Question 1: Managing Startup Applications in Windows

When preparing for the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) exam, it’s important to be familiar with key tools used in Windows to manage system settings. One common task is managing startup applications, which are programs that launch automatically when Windows starts. Understanding how to control these applications can help improve system performance and troubleshooting efficiency.

Which Windows tool would you use to manage startup applications?

1. Device Manager
   B. Task Manager
   C. Control Panel
   D. Event Viewer

Answer: B – Task Manager

Explanation:

In Windows, the Task Manager is the tool used to manage startup applications. You can access it by right-clicking on the taskbar and selecting “Task Manager,” or by pressing Ctrl + Shift + Esc. Once opened, navigate to the Startup tab, where you can enable or disable applications that start automatically when Windows boots up.

This is especially useful for troubleshooting slow startup times or identifying unnecessary programs that may be consuming system resources. On the other hand:

• Device Manager (Option A) is used for managing hardware devices and their drivers, not for startup applications.

• Control Panel (Option C) is a broader utility used to manage various system settings, but it doesn’t provide a specific section for startup applications.

• Event Viewer (Option D) is used to view logs and events related to system operations, like errors and warnings, but it’s not designed for managing startup programs.

Knowing how to efficiently manage startup applications is critical for improving system performance and preventing unnecessary software from running in the background. Understanding these details will also be helpful for your exam, as they often appear in both practical and theoretical contexts.

Question 2: Removing Malware from a PC

Dealing with malware is a crucial part of maintaining the integrity and security of a system. If you’re preparing for the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) exam, it’s essential to know the best practices for malware removal. While there are several steps involved in the process, it’s important to start with the right one to minimize damage and prevent further infection.

A technician wants to remove malware from a PC. What should be the first step?

1. Enable System Restore
   B. Identify and research malware symptoms
   C. Reboot the system
   D. Install updates

Answer: B – Identify and research malware symptoms

Explanation:

The first step in removing malware from a PC should always be to identify and research the symptoms of the infection. This step allows the technician to understand the nature of the malware and plan an effective removal strategy. If you jump into actions like running malware removal tools or rebooting the system without fully understanding the infection, you might make the situation worse or miss signs that could be crucial for a complete cleanup.

Here’s a deeper look into why Option B is the best first step:

• Identifying and researching malware symptoms helps the technician determine the type of malware (e.g., virus, ransomware, spyware), how it behaves, and which tools or techniques will be most effective for removal. Symptoms can include system slowdowns, strange pop-ups, files being encrypted, or unusual network activity.

After identifying the malware, you can move forward with other necessary steps, such as:

• Rebooting the system (Option C) – This step might be needed later, but it’s not the first action. A reboot may help you get the system back to a state where malware removal tools can be run.

• Enable System Restore (Option A) – Enabling system restore can be part of the recovery process, but it should not be the first step. It may even be risky if malware has already infected critical system files, as a system restore could reintroduce the malware.

• Install updates (Option D) – While keeping the system up to date is always important for security, installing updates should come later in the process after the malware has been removed. If updates are installed first, it might allow the malware to stay hidden or active during the update process.

In practice, you should also isolate the infected system from the network to prevent the malware from spreading or communicating with remote attackers. After identifying the symptoms, running an antivirus or anti-malware scan is often the next step, followed by restoring the system to a clean state.

Additional Considerations:

• Prevention: Always remember to use reliable security software and keep your system updated to prevent malware infections from occurring in the first place. Understanding how malware behaves, how to identify it, and how to remove it effectively is crucial for any IT professional.

• Best Practices: Never attempt to fix an infected machine without taking proper precautions, such as backing up data and using trusted removal tools. Some types of malware, such as ransomware, require special techniques or decryption tools, so research is essential before taking action.

Question 3: File Systems Used by macOS

As an IT professional, understanding the file systems used by different operating systems is critical, especially for CompTIA A+ (220-1102) exam preparation. Each operating system relies on specific file systems to manage data storage, and macOS is no different.

Which file system is primarily used by macOS?

1. FAT32
   B. NTFS
   C. APFS
   D. ext4

Answer: C – APFS

Explanation:

macOS primarily uses APFS (Apple File System), which was introduced by Apple in 2017. It replaced the older HFS+ (Mac OS Extended) file system and brought several significant improvements in terms of performance, security, and data management.

Here’s why APFS is the correct choice:

• APFS (Apple File System) is specifically designed for use with macOS, and it provides a modern approach to file storage. It’s optimized for solid-state drives (SSDs), providing faster read/write speeds and better overall performance. APFS also supports features like encryption, snapshots, and cloning of files, making it a robust and reliable choice for modern computing environments.

• FAT32 (Option A) is an older, widely-used file system that is compatible across multiple platforms, including Windows, macOS, and Linux. However, it has limitations such as file size restrictions (maximum 4 GB per file) and is not the primary file system used by macOS.

• NTFS (Option B) is the Windows file system, designed for use in Windows operating systems. It supports advanced features like file permissions and encryption, but it is not compatible with macOS by default, though macOS can read from NTFS drives, but writing requires third-party software.

• ext4 (Option D) is commonly used in Linux systems. It’s a powerful file system known for its stability and performance but is not used by macOS.

Why APFS is Important for macOS:

• Encryption: APFS allows full disk encryption natively, which is important for securing sensitive data, especially on portable devices like laptops.

• Performance: With SSD optimization, APFS is designed for fast access and quick file management, enhancing the overall user experience on modern Mac devices.

• Data Integrity: APFS has built-in checksumming for metadata, which means it’s more resilient against corruption and improves the reliability of data storage.

• Space Efficiency: It uses a method called copy-on-write to ensure that changes to files don’t overwrite the original data, making the system more efficient when handling data.

Other Considerations:

For IT professionals working with macOS systems, it’s important to be familiar with how APFS functions, particularly if you are tasked with troubleshooting, installing, or upgrading storage systems. Since macOS uses APFS, knowing how to manage and work with this file system is essential for handling macOS devices in the field.

Question 4: Encrypting Files and Folders in Windows

When it comes to data protection, encryption plays a critical role in keeping sensitive information secure. Windows provides various utilities to help encrypt data, and understanding which tool to use in different scenarios is crucial for IT professionals.

What Windows utility can be used to encrypt individual files and folders?

1. BitLocker
   B. EFS
   C. TPM
   D. BIOS

Answer: B – EFS (Encrypting File System)

Explanation:

The correct tool for encrypting individual files and folders in Windows is EFS (Encrypting File System). EFS is built into Windows Professional, Enterprise, and Education editions, and it allows users to encrypt files and folders at the file system level. Once a file is encrypted with EFS, only the user who encrypted the file (or a designated recovery agent) can decrypt it.

• BitLocker (Option A) is another encryption tool, but it is used for full disk encryption, not for encrypting individual files or folders. BitLocker is typically used to encrypt entire drives, ensuring that the data on the drive remains protected from unauthorized access.

• TPM (Option C) stands for Trusted Platform Module, which is a hardware-based security feature. It’s often used in conjunction with BitLocker to provide enhanced security, but it’s not a tool for encrypting files or folders directly. Instead, TPM helps protect the encryption keys used by BitLocker.

• BIOS (Option D) is a low-level firmware interface used to initialize hardware when a computer starts. While BIOS settings may include security features, it does not offer encryption capabilities for individual files and folders.

How EFS Works:

EFS uses public key cryptography to protect data. When a file is encrypted using EFS, Windows generates an encryption key based on your user account credentials, ensuring that only you can access the file. EFS provides a seamless and transparent experience for users, as files are automatically decrypted when accessed by the authorized user.

Additionally, EFS is often used alongside other security measures, such as user authentication and access control lists (ACLs), to provide a comprehensive data protection strategy.

Question 5: Port Number for Secure Web Traffic (HTTPS)

In the world of networking, understanding port numbers is essential, especially when configuring firewalls, routers, or troubleshooting network issues. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is the protocol used for secure communication over the internet, and it uses a specific port number.

Which port number is used for secure web traffic (HTTPS)?

1. 21
   B. 80
   C. 443
   D. 25

Answer: C – 443

Explanation:

Port 443 is used for HTTPS traffic. HTTPS is an encrypted version of HTTP, ensuring secure communication between clients (such as web browsers) and servers. The encryption is achieved through SSL/TLS protocols, which protect data from eavesdropping, tampering, and forgery during transmission.

• Port 80 (Option B) is used for HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol), which is unencrypted. It’s the default port for standard web traffic, but because it lacks encryption, it’s considered less secure than HTTPS.

• Port 21 (Option A) is used for FTP (File Transfer Protocol), which is typically used for transferring files between a client and a server. FTP does not provide encryption by default, though secure versions like FTPS and SFTP exist.

• Port 25 (Option D) is used for SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol), which is responsible for sending email messages between servers. This port is not related to web traffic but is instead used for email communications.

Why Port 443 Is Essential:

Port 443 ensures that sensitive data, such as login credentials, credit card numbers, and personal information, is securely transmitted over the internet. The use of SSL/TLS certificates on websites also verifies the authenticity of the website, preventing man-in-the-middle attacks and other security threats.

As an IT professional, it’s essential to be familiar with these port numbers, as they often come up during networking configurations, security setups, and troubleshooting scenarios.

Question 6: Checking System File Integrity in Windows

Windows systems can encounter issues with corrupted or missing system files, which can lead to instability or malfunctions. Fortunately, there are tools available to help fix these problems and ensure system integrity.

Which command can be used in Windows to check system file integrity?

1. chkdsk
   B. sfc
   C. ipconfig
   D. netstat

Answer: B – sfc

Explanation:

The correct command to check and repair system file integrity in Windows is sfc, which stands for System File Checker. This tool scans the system for corrupted or missing system files and attempts to replace them with the correct versions from the system’s cache or the original Windows installation files.

To use sfc, you can run the following command in an elevated Command Prompt (run as administrator):

sfc /scannow

This will initiate a scan of all protected system files and repair any discrepancies it finds.

Here’s why the other options aren’t the right choice:

• chkdsk (Option A) is used to check and repair disk-related errors, such as bad sectors or file system issues, but it doesn’t focus on system file integrity. It’s a powerful tool for ensuring your hard drive is in good health, but it’s not designed for checking Windows system files specifically.

• ipconfig (Option C) is used to display and manage the network configuration of a computer. It can provide details such as IP addresses and network interfaces but doesn’t deal with system files or their integrity.

• netstat (Option D) is used to display network statistics, including open connections and ports on a computer. While it’s useful for network troubleshooting, it doesn’t address file integrity issues.

Additional Tips for System Maintenance:

Running sfc is an essential part of system maintenance, especially after a system crash, software installation, or when encountering unexplained system behavior. For advanced users, DISM (Deployment Imaging Service and Management Tool) can be used alongside sfc to fix Windows images and provide a deeper repair solution for system files.

Question 7: Resetting a User’s Password on a Windows Domain

In an enterprise environment, managing user accounts and their credentials is essential. When users forget their passwords or need a password reset, administrators must have the right tools to perform this task.

You need to reset a user’s password on a Windows domain. Which tool should you use?

1. Local Users and Groups
   B. Group Policy Editor
   C. Active Directory Users and Computers
   D. Task Scheduler

Answer: C – Active Directory Users and Computers

Explanation:

When working with Windows domains, the appropriate tool for managing user accounts, including resetting passwords, is Active Directory Users and Computers (ADUC). ADUC is a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in that allows administrators to manage objects in Active Directory, including users, computers, and groups.

To reset a user’s password in ADUC:

1. Open Active Directory Users and Computers from the Administrative Tools or by typing dsa.msc in the Run dialog.

2. Find and right-click the user account.

3. Select Reset Password and follow the prompts.

Here’s why the other options aren’t appropriate:

• Local Users and Groups (Option A) is used for managing local accounts on a standalone computer or in workgroup environments, but it does not work with user accounts in a domain. It is useful for managing users on individual machines, not across an entire domain.

• Group Policy Editor (Option B) is primarily used for configuring security policies, user settings, and system behaviors on Windows machines within a domain. It does not provide functionality for resetting individual user passwords.

• Task Scheduler (Option D) is used to schedule and automate tasks on a Windows system. It has no role in managing user credentials or resetting passwords.

Additional Tips for Domain Management:

When managing users in a domain environment, you can also use PowerShell for bulk operations, such as resetting multiple user passwords, by using the Set-ADAccountPassword cmdlet. Additionally, administrators should always follow best practices for password complexity, expiration, and recovery processes to maintain a secure network environment.

Question 8: Understanding User Account Control (UAC) in Windows

User Account Control (UAC) is an important security feature in Windows that helps prevent unauthorized changes to the operating system. It is designed to enhance security by prompting users when applications attempt to make changes that require administrative privileges.

What is the primary purpose of UAC (User Account Control) in Windows?

1. Schedule tasks
2. Restrict user access to the internet
3. Prevent unauthorized changes
4. Backup system files

Answer: C – Prevent unauthorized changes

Explanation:

The primary purpose of UAC (User Account Control) is to prevent unauthorized changes to the system. When a program or process attempts to make a change that requires administrative privileges (such as installing software or modifying system settings), UAC prompts the user to confirm whether they want to proceed. This is an important security feature that helps protect the system from malware or malicious users trying to make unauthorized modifications.

Here’s why the other options aren’t correct:

• Schedule tasks (Option A) is not the function of UAC. Scheduling tasks can be done through Task Scheduler, not UAC.

• Restrict user access to the internet (Option B) is not a function of UAC. UAC is focused on controlling user privileges for system changes, not controlling network or internet access.

• Backup system files (Option D) is not related to UAC. While backing up system files is an important task, it’s usually performed with tools like Windows Backup or File History, not through UAC.

Additional Considerations:

UAC provides a layer of defense against security threats such as privilege escalation attacks, where malware tries to gain higher access to the system without the user’s knowledge. UAC is also customizable, allowing users to adjust the notification settings based on their preferences and security needs. Disabling UAC is generally not recommended, as it lowers the system’s defense against potential threats.

Question 9: Configuring Group Policy Settings on a Local Computer

Group Policy is a feature in Windows that allows administrators to control and configure user settings and system policies across multiple computers in an organization. For local machines, there is a utility available to configure Group Policy settings without requiring a domain environment.

What is the name of the utility used to configure Group Policy settings on a local computer?

1. regedit
2. msconfig
3. gpedit.msc
4. services.msc

Answer: C – gpedit.msc

Explanation:

The correct utility for configuring Group Policy settings on a local computer is gpedit.msc, which stands for Group Policy Editor. This tool allows users to configure various system settings, security policies, and user configurations. You can access gpedit.msc by typing gpedit.msc in the Run dialog or the Start menu search box.

Here’s why the other options aren’t suitable:

• regedit (Option A) is the Registry Editor, which allows you to directly edit the Windows Registry. While you can configure many system settings here, it’s not designed for managing Group Policy settings.

• msconfig (Option B) is used to configure startup settings, manage system services, and troubleshoot boot-related problems. It does not provide access to Group Policy configurations.

• services.msc (Option D) is used to manage Windows services, such as starting or stopping services, setting service types, and troubleshooting. It does not allow you to configure Group Policy settings.

How gpedit.msc Works:

Group Policy Editor is divided into two main sections:

1. Computer Configuration: Contains settings that apply to the computer, regardless of the user logged in.

2. User Configuration: Contains settings that apply to users, regardless of which computer they log into.

Group Policy settings allow administrators to configure things like:

• Password policies

• Windows Update behavior

• Software restrictions

• User interface settings

Local vs. Domain Group Policy:

While gpedit.msc is used for local Group Policy management, in larger organizations, Group Policy is usually managed through Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) on a domain controller, where administrators can configure policies for all computers and users in the domain.

Question 10

Which Linux command is used to change file permissions?
A. chmod
B. chown
C. ls
D. mkdir
Answer: A

Question 11

Which method is best for securely disposing of a magnetic hard drive?
A. Formatting
B. Shredding
C. Deleting
D. Repartitioning
Answer: B

Question 12

Which feature allows a mobile device to connect to another device to share internet access?
A. Tethering
B. AirDrop
C. NFC
D. VPN
Answer: A

Question 13

What type of malware disguises itself as legitimate software?
A. Worm
B. Trojan
C. Ransomware
D. Rootkit
Answer: B

Question 14

A user can receive email but cannot send. What port should be checked for SMTP?
A. 110
B. 443
C. 25
D. 53
Answer: C

Question 15

Which backup method backs up only the data that has changed since the last full backup?
A. Full
B. Incremental
C. Differential
D. Mirror
Answer: B

Question 16

What kind of account is best for everyday use in Windows to enhance security?
A. Administrator
B. Power User
C. Guest
D. Standard User
Answer: D

Question 17

Which utility is best to analyze system performance in real-time on Windows?
A. Services
B. Event Viewer
C. Task Manager
D. Disk Cleanup
Answer: C

Question 18

What does a VPN primarily provide to a remote user?
A. Faster Internet
B. Anonymity
C. Secure encrypted tunnel
D. Free data
Answer: C

Question 19

Which protocol secures web communication by encrypting data?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. HTTPS
D. Telnet
Answer: C

Question 20

Which option best describes social engineering?
A. Malware infection
B. Software bug
C. Tricking users into giving information
D. Encryption failure
Answer: C

Question 21

Which Windows feature allows you to roll back system settings to a previous state?
A. Task Manager
B. System Restore
C. Recovery Drive
D. Event Viewer
Answer: B

Tips for Preparing for the A+ 220-1102 Exam

Getting ready for the Core 2 exam takes a mix of study, hands-on practice, and strategic review. Here are some useful tips:

• Use Multiple Resources: Don’t rely on a single source. Combine books, video tutorials, and practice exams.

• Create a Study Schedule: Break your study into chunks focusing on each domain.

• Get Hands-On Practice: Install and configure Windows and Linux VMs, practice navigating system utilities, and troubleshoot real problems.

• Take Timed Practice Tests: Simulate the exam environment to improve your pacing and time management.

Where to Find More Free Practice Questions

If you found these questions helpful, there are several platforms offering additional free and premium practice exams:

• CompTIA’s Official Website – Sample questions and study guides

• Professor Messer – Free video courses and quizzes

• ExamCompass – Multiple sets of A+ Core 2 quizzes

• Quizlet – Flashcards and community-driven questions

• Reddit r/CompTIA – Shared tips, questions, and exam experiences

Final Thoughts

Preparing for the CompTIA A+ (220-1102) Core 2 exam can be challenging, especially if you’re new to IT. But with consistent practice and an understanding of the exam domains, success is well within reach. The questions provided here are a strong foundation to begin your study journey. Use them as a diagnostic tool, and continue practicing with different scenarios until you feel confident.

Keep testing yourself, stay curious, and don’t hesitate to explore beyond the exam objectives. With the right preparation, you’ll not only pass the exam but also build real-world skills that employers value.