Pass Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Exam in First Attempt Easily
Real Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Verified by experts
3 products

You save $69.98

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Premium Bundle

  • Premium File 306 Questions & Answers
  • Last Update: Nov 4, 2026
  • Training Course 223 Lectures
  • Study Guide 411 Pages
$79.99 $149.97

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    306 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    223 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    411 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 31

Question 300

A business wants to peer two VPCs owned by different accounts, but their primary IPv4 CIDRs overlap. Even though security groups could permit the application port, the console refuses the intended peering topology. What prerequisite should be addressed?

  1. Grant AdministratorAccess to both VPC owners.
  2. Disable all network ACLs and retry peering.
  3. Turn on Route 53 DNSSEC signing for the private records.
  4. Resolve overlapping IPv4 CIDR assignments or use a suitable service-scoped alternative such as PrivateLink.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Overlapping address ranges prevent an ordinary peering connection from providing unambiguous routing. Both peers would claim the same destination address space.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Permissions cannot remove the addressing overlap restriction.

B:

Stateless filters do not affect CIDR compatibility.

C:

DNSSEC does not make identical source and destination prefixes routable.

Question 301

A security review must record exactly which IAM role called ModifyTransitGatewayRouteTable during a production change, and also which network flows later used the resulting path. Which pairing best covers both evidence categories?

  1. Use CloudTrail for API caller attribution and Transit Gateway or VPC Flow Logs for packet-path metadata.
  2. Use only VPC Flow Logs and assume they record the caller of EC2 API operations.
  3. Use only CloudTrail and assume it stores every transmitted TCP payload.
  4. Use only public Route 53 authoritative query logs for both.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Configuration change identities and routed traffic observations are different evidence layers and should be correlated by time.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Flow logs describe network traffic and do not reliably attribute AWS control-plane API identities.

C:

CloudTrail is not a packet capture service.

D:

DNS queries neither expose route-table modifying principals nor reconstruct transit flows.

Question 302

A finance VPC experiences sporadic failed TCP connection attempts. Investigators need source and destination IPs, ports, protocol, and whether network interfaces accepted or rejected traffic; full payloads are expressly not needed. Which telemetry is most suitable?

  1. VPC Traffic Mirroring to a packet analyzer
  2. CloudTrail management events alone
  3. Route 53 public query logging only
  4. VPC Flow Logs on the relevant VPC, subnet, or network interfaces

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Flow Logs emit connection metadata including addressing and flow action without recording packet payload.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Packet mirroring could expose payloads and is unnecessary for the requested flow summaries.

B:

CloudTrail records API operations, not each attempted TCP flow.

C:

Authoritative DNS queries do not show per-interface IP traffic accept/reject outcomes.

Question 303

A healthcare network uses dedicated Direct Connect circuits but requires cryptographic protection for all sensitive traffic in transit.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. A capture or approved cryptographic validation confirms protected traffic traverses the dedicated path and keys are managed under policy
  2. Route inspection and failover tests show expected preferred next hops and automatic recovery without unexpected asymmetric paths
  3. A lab route test confirms eligible VPC prefixes traverse the intended transit VIF and Transit Gateway attachments in both directions
  4. Two independent path tests demonstrate private prefix reachability and routing continuity when the primary Direct Connect circuit is disabled

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A capture or approved cryptographic validation confirms protected traffic traverses the dedicated path and keys are managed under policy. That is relevant because direct Connect provides a dedicated transport path but does not inherently encrypt all payloads, so confidentiality must be provided separately when policy requires it.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This would validate bgp route policy for hybrid path preference. The case instead needs evidence for ipsec encryption over direct connect: A capture or approved cryptographic validation confirms protected traffic traverses the dedicated path and keys are managed under policy.

C:

This would validate transit vif for multiple transit gateways. The case instead needs evidence for ipsec encryption over direct connect: A capture or approved cryptographic validation confirms protected traffic traverses the dedicated path and keys are managed under policy.

D:

This would validate direct connect private connectivity and redundancy. The case instead needs evidence for ipsec encryption over direct connect: A capture or approved cryptographic validation confirms protected traffic traverses the dedicated path and keys are managed under policy.

Question 304

A VPC Flow Logs query shows log-status SKIPDATA during a five-minute incident. A network engineer wants to claim there were no denied flows during that period because the queried log contains no REJECT records. What is the justified conclusion?

  1. Infer every packet was accepted because the log has no explicit REJECT.
  2. Treat the interval as incomplete evidence and corroborate with other network and service telemetry.
  3. Interpret SKIPDATA as a confirmation that the subnet had zero traffic.
  4. Conclude all instances were powered off for the entire window.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

SKIPDATA indicates one or more flow records were not captured, so missing REJECT entries cannot prove the absence of denied traffic.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Records can be skipped; silence is not an all-accepted verdict.

C:

NODATA, not SKIPDATA, is the status associated with no observed traffic.

D:

The status describes log collection and does not establish EC2 instance state.

Question 305

Two private zones with overlapping suffixes create surprising resolution behavior for workloads attached to different VPCs.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. Queries from each approved VPC return documented private or public answers consistently and no unintended shadow zone remains
  2. A validating resolver accepts signed published records and rejects a deliberately broken test chain as expected
  3. All approved VPCs resolve the corporate suffix through the specified resolver targets and unapproved VPCs do not gain an implicit rule
  4. A VPC client resolves the datacenter namespace, the corporate DNS logs show forwarded queries and public names continue normally

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Queries from each approved VPC return documented private or public answers consistently and no unintended shadow zone remains. That is relevant because vPC Resolver selects eligible private namespaces and forwarding rules based on match and association; public records need not be consulted when a matching private zone exists.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This would validate dnssec public-zone validation and signing. The case instead needs evidence for split-horizon dns precedence troubleshooting: Queries from each approved VPC return documented private or public answers consistently and no unintended shadow zone remains.

C:

This would validate route 53 resolver forwarding rule sharing. The case instead needs evidence for split-horizon dns precedence troubleshooting: Queries from each approved VPC return documented private or public answers consistently and no unintended shadow zone remains.

D:

This would validate route 53 resolver outbound rule association. The case instead needs evidence for split-horizon dns precedence troubleshooting: Queries from each approved VPC return documented private or public answers consistently and no unintended shadow zone remains.

Question 306

A public image API accepts requests with ?format=avif or ?format=jpeg and returns different encoded bytes for each. CloudFront is configured to ignore all query strings in its cache key, so AVIF clients sometimes receive JPEG. What must change?

  1. Increase the default TTL to keep each response in the cache longer.
  2. Strip the format parameter before requests reach the image encoder.
  3. Add an AWS Global Accelerator static IP address to the distribution.
  4. Include the format query parameter in the cache policy key and send it to the origin.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Format changes the representation of the same path, so it must distinguish cached objects. Including that parameter in the key also forwards it when the origin needs to encode the variant.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Longer TTL makes incorrect cross-format reuse persist for longer; the cache key still merges byte-incompatible AVIF and JPEG representations under the same public path.

B:

Removing format would make the origin encoder unable to know which representation the viewer requested. It would not preserve the intended dual-format image API contract.

C:

Global Accelerator addresses transport entry to eligible regional endpoints and cannot change how CloudFront distinguishes query-dependent AVIF and JPEG representations in an edge cache.

Question 307

A team must publish the zone apex sales.example.com directly to an Application Load Balancer without putting a conventional CNAME at the apex. The ALB DNS name may change underlying IP addresses. Which Route 53 record fits?

  1. Create a CNAME record named sales.example.com at that zone apex.
  2. Create an alias A record at the apex targeting the ALB.
  3. Copy one ALB node IP address into a permanent A record.
  4. Set a TXT record with the ALB DNS name and let browsers interpret it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Route 53 alias records can refer to supported AWS targets at the apex without violating CNAME and SOA/NS coexistence rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A conventional apex CNAME conflicts with the zone’s required records.

C:

Load balancer node addresses can change; pinning one IP undermines resiliency.

D:

Browsers do not use TXT records as web origin address mappings.

Question 308

A production application normally reaches a private datacenter over Direct Connect. The organization expects a Site-to-Site VPN backup, but the VPN uses BGP only for a different, less-specific destination prefix. After Direct Connect withdrawal, the service prefix is not reachable through the backup. Which failover risk is demonstrated?

  1. The Direct Connect physical cable automatically encrypts all packets once the VPN router enters standby.
  2. The alternate transport can be healthy while the required private destination has no eligible backup route, prolonging the outage after the primary prefix is withdrawn.
  3. The Site-to-Site VPN changes the destination's private address into a public address after failover.
  4. The application must fail only because its public Route 53 name server changes ownership during BGP convergence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Route coverage and supported route preference must be tested for the exact application destination; VPN tunnel-up does not guarantee a matching failover path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An unrelated VPN backup state does not enable encryption on a dedicated physical circuit.

C:

VPN failover routing does not imply public address translation of the workload.

D:

No DNS delegation change is stated; the failure is missing route coverage for the private prefix.

Question 309

A highly distributed read-only scientific archive uses CloudFront with a single S3 origin. Many edge caches miss on the same multi-gigabyte public dataset at once. The team wants an additional centralized caching layer before the origin. Which feature addresses repeated regional origin fetches?

  1. Enable an ALB target group that requires stateful client stickiness.
  2. Replace the public CDN with a single-AZ NAT gateway.
  3. Enable CloudFront Origin Shield in an appropriate AWS Region for the distribution.
  4. Create an inbound Route 53 Resolver endpoint in the data VPC.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Origin Shield adds a centralized extra caching layer for CloudFront origin fetches, reducing duplicate misses that otherwise travel back to the data origin across distributed edge locations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ALB target-group stickiness influences selection of back-end web targets. It does not insert an extra CloudFront cache layer in front of an S3 origin.

B:

A NAT gateway is an outbound IPv4 translation device for private subnets, not a global read cache. It would add network cost and fail the archive objective.

D:

Resolver inbound endpoints allow hybrid DNS queries from external networks. They do not consolidate CloudFront cache misses or increase cache reuse for large public archive objects.

Question 310

A resolver team enabled query logging for the accounts that use an internal domain. An incident reviewer finds far fewer log entries than application DNS calls during the hour, and TTLs were long. What must the logging specification clarify?

  1. A cache hit always generates a separate authoritative DNS log event.
  2. Route 53 Resolver logs need not include cache-served repeated lookups, so they are not a complete application DNS request counter.
  3. The missing lines prove application clients made no DNS requests.
  4. DNS logging automatically captures HTTP request bodies after resolution.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cached responses can satisfy multiple application requests without new upstream Resolver log events.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Resolver caching can suppress repeated query processing and logging.

C:

The application calls may have been answered from previously cached DNS data.

D:

Query logging concerns DNS data rather than the later HTTP payload.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    306 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    223 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    411 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF
This is ONE TIME OFFER

You save
10%

Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

You save
10%

Use Discount Code:

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.

Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examlabs.com and follow the directions.

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your email address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

  • Realistic exam simulation and exam editor with preview functions
  • Whole exam in a single file with several different question types
  • Customizable exam-taking mode & detailed score reports