Pass Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Exam in First Attempt Easily
Real Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Verified by experts
3 products

You save $69.98

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Premium Bundle

  • Premium File 306 Questions & Answers
  • Last Update: Nov 4, 2026
  • Training Course 223 Lectures
  • Study Guide 411 Pages
$79.99 $149.97

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    306 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    223 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    411 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 35

Question 340

A company uses AWS Direct Connect for private datacenter reachability, but policy explicitly requires IPsec at the IP network layer between the customer gateway and AWS. A dedicated fiber circuit without crypto does not qualify, and application TLS alone is insufficient under policy. Which architecture adds the required network-layer protection?

  1. Use the unchanged Direct Connect private virtual interface without an IPsec overlay because a dedicated line is inherently encrypted.
  2. Enable MACsec where supported on a Direct Connect physical link and treat its hop-level link encryption as end-to-end site-to-site IPsec.
  3. Require HTTPS application TLS on web requests while leaving non-HTTP private packets on an unencrypted Direct Connect route.
  4. Establish a supported AWS Site-to-Site IPsec VPN overlay over an eligible Direct Connect public/connectivity path, configure the required routes, and verify tunnel security association and failover.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Direct Connect transport is not universally encrypted. The supported IPsec VPN overlay supplies network-layer encryption and must be paired with compatible reachability and routing for the protected datacenter prefixes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A private dedicated physical path does not by itself supply the required IPsec encryption.

B:

MACsec can protect an eligible link, but it is not the required network-layer IPsec tunnel between the specified gateways.

C:

Application TLS does not satisfy a policy requiring an IP-layer IPsec overlay for the entire designated network flow.

Question 341

A SOC claims its network incident investigation contains every rejected packet because Flow Logs are enabled on the VPC. Some records have log-status SKIPDATA during the relevant window. What should the audit conclusion state?

  1. SKIPDATA proves there were no packets in the interval.
  2. The Flow Logs evidence is incomplete for those intervals and cannot certify every traffic decision.
  3. SKIPDATA means all dropped packets were definitely malicious.
  4. The incident is resolved because Flow Logs were technically enabled.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

SKIPDATA means the collection pipeline skipped some records; missing entries cannot be interpreted as proof of no activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

No observed traffic is denoted differently from skipped collection records.

C:

The status is about log capture, not intent or rule decision.

D:

Enabling collection does not repair gaps or establish what occurred during them.

Question 342

EC2 application hosts need to resolve a corporate Active Directory forest through DNS servers inside the datacenter.

Which technical explanation best accounts for the network behavior described?

  1. Resolver forwarding rule selection depends on matching domain names and VPC association; endpoints alone do not select where matching DNS queries go
  2. Private hosted-zone DNS answers are scoped to associated VPCs; cross-account use requires explicit authorization and association
  3. DNSSEC establishes a chain of trust from a parent DS record to the child zone's signing keys, allowing validating resolvers to reject forged answers
  4. A shared Resolver rule enables cross-account reuse of the same domain-specific outbound lookup policy, while attachment and network reachability remain necessary

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Resolver forwarding rule selection depends on matching domain names and VPC association; endpoints alone do not select where matching DNS queries go. A direct check is to configure a Route 53 Resolver outbound forwarding rule for the required suffix, associate it with the VPC and use reachable endpoint targets and observe the corresponding path.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Private hosted-zone DNS answers are scoped to associated VPCs; cross-account use requires explicit authorization and association. That is a valid account of cross-account private hosted zone association, but it does not explain the route 53 resolver outbound rule association behavior in the scenario.

C:

DNSSEC establishes a chain of trust from a parent DS record to the child zone's signing keys, allowing validating resolvers to reject forged answers. That is a valid account of dnssec public-zone validation and signing, but it does not explain the route 53 resolver outbound rule association behavior in the scenario.

D:

A shared Resolver rule enables cross-account reuse of the same domain-specific outbound lookup policy, while attachment and network reachability remain necessary. That is a valid account of route 53 resolver forwarding rule sharing, but it does not explain the route 53 resolver outbound rule association behavior in the scenario.

Question 343

An auditor needs to distinguish which AWS Network Firewall policy blocked a connection during a regulated traffic test.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. The sensor receives the expected authorized traffic sample and analysts can correlate packet timing with flow and host events
  2. A newly added in-scope resource appears as protected and previous noncompliant findings clear after enforced remediation
  3. A controlled security-group modification produces an accessible audit event with the expected principal, operation, resource and timestamp
  4. A test connection triggers the expected firewall decision and a retained log entry identifies the relevant rule or event

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A test connection triggers the expected firewall decision and a retained log entry identifies the relevant rule or event. That is relevant because managed firewall logging exposes inspected flow outcomes and alert events, while VPC Flow Logs alone do not explain stateful intrusion-rule matches.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This would validate vpc traffic mirroring security packet evidence. The case instead needs evidence for network firewall flow and alert log delivery: A test connection triggers the expected firewall decision and a retained log entry identifies the relevant rule or event.

B:

This would validate firewall manager organization compliance audit. The case instead needs evidence for network firewall flow and alert log delivery: A test connection triggers the expected firewall decision and a retained log entry identifies the relevant rule or event.

C:

This would validate cloudtrail network api audit. The case instead needs evidence for network firewall flow and alert log delivery: A test connection triggers the expected firewall decision and a retained log entry identifies the relevant rule or event.

Question 344

An inter-Region Transit Gateway peering attachment already carries IPv4 traffic. Two dual-stack VPCs must now communicate over IPv6, but the TGW peering route tables contain only remote IPv4 prefixes. Which validation proves IPv6 was correctly enabled without mistaking the healthy IPv4 path for evidence?

  1. Both VPCs have IPv6 CIDRs and IPv4 peering probes succeed, with no TGW IPv6 route review.
  2. Only Region A has the Region B IPv6 static route, and no Region B return-route test was run.
  3. The peering attachment is AVAILABLE and automatic IPv6 route propagation is enabled, with no static IPv6 routes.
  4. Each regional TGW table contains a static IPv6 route for the peer VPC prefix targeting the peering attachment, and a bidirectional IPv6 probe succeeds.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The existing IPv4 peering routes cannot forward IPv6. Inter-Region TGW peering supports IPv6 when corresponding peer-prefix static routes and return paths exist.

Incorrect Answers

A:

IPv6 addressing plus working IPv4 transport does not install the missing IPv6 routes.

B:

One-way forwarding is insufficient to prove usable bidirectional IPv6 connectivity.

C:

TGW peering does not propagate peer routes automatically, regardless of IPv6 attachment state.

Question 345

An EC2 batch cluster in a private subnet stopped reaching S3 after a route-table migration. The old subnet had an S3 gateway endpoint route; the new custom subnet table lacks the endpoint association and has no NAT path. What should be restored?

  1. Make all S3 buckets public without changing VPC routing.
  2. Associate the current route table with the appropriate S3 gateway endpoint and check its policy.
  3. Recreate every EC2 instance to clear DNS caches.
  4. Add a public ALB between EC2 and S3.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An S3 gateway endpoint provides the relevant service route only in route tables selected for the endpoint.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Public bucket access cannot replace a missing private service route and violates common security practice.

C:

Rebooting compute does not add an S3 endpoint target to the route table.

D:

An HTTP load balancer is not an S3 gateway endpoint route.

Question 346

A networking team wants to add new VPC routes in production without a manual cutover that could blackhole all private applications.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. Synthesized templates and resulting stacks match approved network boundaries and automated policy checks reject forbidden configurations
  2. A deliberately noncompliant test network resource is flagged and the approved remediation produces a compliant state with history retained
  3. The change set has no unintended replacement and controlled probes pass before and after deployment, with a viable rollback path
  4. Test and production stacks deploy equivalent intended topology with distinct CIDRs and tracked changes under version control

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The change set has no unintended replacement and controlled probes pass before and after deployment, with a viable rollback path. That is relevant because change sets show intended resource additions, replacements and deletions before execution; route changes can be tested against known connectivity intent.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This would validate aws cdk secure network constructs. The case instead needs evidence for route-table change set safe rollout: The change set has no unintended replacement and controlled probes pass before and after deployment, with a viable rollback path.

B:

This would validate aws config network compliance conformance. The case instead needs evidence for route-table change set safe rollout: The change set has no unintended replacement and controlled probes pass before and after deployment, with a viable rollback path.

D:

This would validate cloudformation parameterized vpc deployment. The case instead needs evidence for route-table change set safe rollout: The change set has no unintended replacement and controlled probes pass before and after deployment, with a viable rollback path.

Question 347

A security team wants an actionable notification when a network metric crosses an agreed threshold for a sustained interval.

Which AWS networking configuration best addresses this specific requirement?

  1. Enable organization-wide CloudTrail management event recording and aggregate relevant network API calls under a protected retention policy
  2. Enable VPC Flow Logs with appropriate fields, aggregation, scope and protected log delivery for the investigated resources
  3. Configure CloudWatch metric filters or native metrics, an appropriate alarm and a controlled notification or response target
  4. Enable the appropriate AWS Network Firewall flow or alert logging destination and correlate entries with firewall policy and routed packet path

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

CloudWatch alarms evaluate metric periods and thresholds while EventBridge and notification integrations can dispatch timely security response signals. The proposed change can be checked by whether a staged test exceeds the documented threshold and creates one actionable alert with contextual metric and resource information.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This configuration addresses cloudtrail network api audit, not the cloudwatch alarm and security response integration requirement. CloudTrail records supported AWS management API activity, including the identity and request parameters behind configuration changes, rather than packet payloads.

B:

This configuration addresses vpc flow logs for security investigations, not the cloudwatch alarm and security response integration requirement. Flow logs emit metadata such as IP addresses, ports, bytes and ACCEPT/REJECT action for supported network flows, not raw packet bodies.

D:

This configuration addresses network firewall flow and alert log delivery, not the cloudwatch alarm and security response integration requirement. Managed firewall logging exposes inspected flow outcomes and alert events, while VPC Flow Logs alone do not explain stateful intrusion-rule matches.

Question 348

An enterprise wants to expose a shared provider service to customers in other VPCs while keeping the provider CIDR private.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. Newly added in-scope accounts receive the intended baseline protections and audit findings show policy deviations resolved
  2. An approved endpoint consumer can use the service while scans of unrelated provider addresses fail from the consumer VPC
  3. Packet trace and appliance logs demonstrate bidirectional flow inspection with expected failover across healthy appliance targets
  4. A controlled resilience exercise and Shield telemetry demonstrate traffic mitigation and uninterrupted legitimate request handling under the approved plan

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An approved endpoint consumer can use the service while scans of unrelated provider addresses fail from the consumer VPC. That is relevant because privateLink allows authorized VPC consumers to access a published endpoint service without broad VPC peering or transitive network reachability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This would validate firewall manager centralized security policy. The case instead needs evidence for privatelink least-privilege service boundary: An approved endpoint consumer can use the service while scans of unrelated provider addresses fail from the consumer VPC.

C:

This would validate gateway load balancer third-party appliance insertion. The case instead needs evidence for privatelink least-privilege service boundary: An approved endpoint consumer can use the service while scans of unrelated provider addresses fail from the consumer VPC.

D:

This would validate aws shield and resilient ddos posture. The case instead needs evidence for privatelink least-privilege service boundary: An approved endpoint consumer can use the service while scans of unrelated provider addresses fail from the consumer VPC.

Question 349

A subnet has two overlapping destination CIDRs: a broad TGW route and a more-specific static route pointing at a retired interface. The firewall team sees permitted sessions and assumes security groups can force the intended next hop despite the more-specific route. What routing failure does that ignore?

  1. Using a NAT gateway as the only path to every AWS service raises cost and may violate private-access requirements
  2. Misdiagnosing a BGP reset as an EC2 firewall problem delays correction and can mask a broader network-edge failure
  3. An overly broad or more specific unintended route can silently divert private traffic even when the expected target is healthy
  4. Assuming interface endpoint presence guarantees provider acceptance and service health can leave clients stuck on unreachable private addresses

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The more-specific unintended static route wins destination selection over the broader approved route; security-group permission cannot force the correct next hop.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This is a risk in vpc endpoint private versus public service reachability: Gateway endpoints provide VPC route targets for supported services such as S3, while interface endpoints expose private service addresses through endpoint ENIs. It does not account for the aws gateway route-priority and static-route validation fault stated in this incident.

B:

That outcome depends on direct connect bgp session health maintenance, whose mechanism is different: Direct Connect private routing depends on stable BGP advertisements and allowed prefix policy in addition to the physical cross-connect. The reported defect concerns aws gateway route-priority and static-route validation.

D:

This is a risk in privatelink endpoint lifecycle restoration: PrivateLink connectivity depends on accepted service endpoints and healthy provider backends without granting consumer VPCs general routes. It does not account for the aws gateway route-priority and static-route validation fault stated in this incident.

Question 350

A VPC has an associated private hosted zone internal.example.com. The private zone does not contain api.internal.example.com, while a public zone publishes that hostname. How does the VPC Resolver handle this shadowed name?

  1. The matching associated private hosted zone can return a negative response rather than falling back to the public record for the missing name.
  2. The VPC Resolver always falls back to the public record whenever a name is absent from an associated private zone.
  3. Successful public resolution from an internet client guarantees the same answer inside every associated VPC.
  4. A private hosted-zone association synthesizes missing subdomain A records to the VPC DNS address.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Private hosted-zone selection for an associated namespace can shadow public DNS even when a particular record is absent.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Public fallback is not automatic for a negative response in a selected matching private zone.

C:

Split-horizon DNS may produce different public and private answers.

D:

Association does not create DNS records that do not exist.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    306 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    223 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    411 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF
This is ONE TIME OFFER

You save
10%

Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

You save
10%

Use Discount Code:

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.

Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examlabs.com and follow the directions.

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your email address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

  • Realistic exam simulation and exam editor with preview functions
  • Whole exam in a single file with several different question types
  • Customizable exam-taking mode & detailed score reports