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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 49

Question 480

Two Transit Gateways have an AVAILABLE inter-Region peering attachment. Both VPC subnet tables direct remote-CIDR traffic to the local TGW, yet the TGW route tables lack peer-prefix entries. Which architectural property accounts for the outage?

  1. VPC peering is transitive whenever each VPC subnet has a default route.
  2. Peered TGWs are separate routing domains: remote VPC prefixes do not propagate automatically across the peering attachment, so each TGW needs explicit matching static routes.
  3. The source VPC security group automatically inserts the remote prefix into the peer TGW route table.
  4. Route 53 Resolver forwards BGP prefixes between Regions and eliminates the need for static TGW routes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

An AVAILABLE peering connection is only the transport relationship. Its route tables must independently know the remote destination prefixes and peering target.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This case uses TGW peering, and VPC peering is not transitively routable.

C:

Security groups filter flows rather than populate TGW peering routes.

D:

DNS resolution and BGP route export do not install static TGW peer routes.

Question 481

An ALB listener forwards a fraction of /beta requests to two compatible target groups for canary testing. The web application uses local session memory, and users lose their session when subsequent requests bounce between groups. What load-balancer feature addresses this specific weighted-forward problem?

  1. Enable cross-zone load balancing alone.
  2. Decrease every target health-check threshold to one.
  3. Enable target-group stickiness on the weighted forward rule for the supported duration.
  4. Replace the HTTPS ALB with a GWLB target group.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Weighted target-group stickiness can keep a client bound to its selected target group during the experiment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cross-zone distribution does not preserve assignment to the same weighted target group.

B:

Health sensitivity does not maintain a user’s target-group choice.

D:

GWLB handles appliance insertion, not sticky HTTP canary forwarding.

Question 482

A Transit Gateway attachment is Available and its route table contains the correct propagated branch prefix. EC2 workloads in a newly created private subnet cannot reach the branch because that subnet’s VPC route table still sends the branch CIDR to a deleted virtual appliance. What risk does checking only the Transit Gateway tables overlook?

  1. Re-enable branch prefix propagation into the Transit Gateway table that already contains it.
  2. Accept the Transit Gateway attachment a second time because the resource looks Available.
  3. Change the VPC security group ingress rule without checking the subnet route’s next hop.
  4. Even a correct TGW route cannot restore connectivity while the source VPC subnet directs packets toward a stale next hop.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Effective packet forwarding requires the originating subnet route to target the Transit Gateway attachment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The TGW knows the branch route; the originating subnet is still targeting a deleted appliance.

B:

The attachment is already available and does not need a second acceptance.

C:

Access permissions do not repair the stale routing target.

Question 483

A centrally managed Firewall Manager policy targets only the `Engineering` organizational unit. A newly acquired account has been moved to the `Retail` OU and its public ALB is not protected, although the account is visible in the organization inventory. Which scope-related risk must the security administrator address?

  1. Add another managed WAF rule to the policy already scoped to the Engineering OU.
  2. Make the Retail account visible in an AWS Organizations inventory only.
  3. A correctly deployed organization policy can still leave resources exposed when its OU scope does not include the account that owns them.
  4. Review only the web ACLs on existing Engineering ALBs for rule correctness.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Firewall Manager policy scope determines which resources and accounts are assessed or remediated.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Stronger policy rules do not affect the Retail OU that the policy never includes.

B:

Visibility does not expand the Firewall Manager resource policy scope.

D:

The uncovered ALB belongs to a different OU, which remains outside the policy.

Question 484

An existing Application Load Balancer terminates HTTPS for api.example.net and login.example.net and uses host-based listener rules to select different target groups. The team must renew certificates without replacing the ALB or losing name validation. What TLS configuration is required?

  1. Install the certificates on EC2 instances but remove all certificates from the client-facing ALB HTTPS listener.
  2. Switch the ALB listener to HTTP port 80 and assume redirecting to the same listener preserves encrypted viewer traffic.
  3. Attach appropriately named ACM-issued or imported certificates to the ALB HTTPS listener, preserve host-based rules, configure a supported TLS security policy and verify certificate renewal.
  4. Issue a single wildcard certificate for *.example.net and assume it also covers an unrelated deeper name such as admin.dev.example.net.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An ALB HTTPS listener can select among certificates for multiple names while continuing to use its layer-seven host-routing rules. The deployed listener certificate and renewal validation must cover each hostname.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Backend certificates alone cannot satisfy TLS validation for clients terminating HTTPS at the ALB listener.

B:

An HTTP-only listener cannot itself terminate or validate the required client-to-load-balancer TLS session.

D:

A one-label wildcard certificate does not cover arbitrary nested hostnames; the deployed certificate must match each viewer name.

Question 485

An operator added a route in one VPC but forgot the reverse path in the peer VPC and now only sees one-way probes.

Which technical explanation best accounts for the network behavior described?

  1. PrivateLink interface endpoints expose private ENI addresses to approved service consumers; DNS and endpoint security policies determine usable connectivity
  2. VPC peering has no transitive routing and requires both VPCs to route toward the peering connection for successful bidirectional traffic
  3. Resource sharing and attachment authorization are separate from route-table configuration; each stage must be complete before transit is usable
  4. Transit Gateway inter-Region peering does not automatically propagate remote attachment prefixes; route-table entries identify the peering path

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

VPC peering has no transitive routing and requires both VPCs to route toward the peering connection for successful bidirectional traffic. A direct check is to add matching non-overlapping destination routes to both associated VPC subnet route tables and verify applicable security rules and observe the corresponding path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

PrivateLink interface endpoints expose private ENI addresses to approved service consumers; DNS and endpoint security policies determine usable connectivity. That is a valid account of interface vpc endpoint privatelink consumer configuration, but it does not explain the vpc peering bilateral route update behavior in the scenario.

C:

Resource sharing and attachment authorization are separate from route-table configuration; each stage must be complete before transit is usable. That is a valid account of aws ram share and attachment acceptance, but it does not explain the vpc peering bilateral route update behavior in the scenario.

D:

Transit Gateway inter-Region peering does not automatically propagate remote attachment prefixes; route-table entries identify the peering path. That is a valid account of transit gateway cross-region static routing, but it does not explain the vpc peering bilateral route update behavior in the scenario.

Question 486

An origin serves customer manual PDFs that change only once per quarter. A CloudFront distribution forwards every random marketing tracking query parameter into the cache key, generating millions of cache misses for identical object bytes. What is the narrowest optimization?

  1. Include every HTTP User-Agent string as an additional key component.
  2. Turn off origin response caching completely.
  3. Exclude unrelated tracking query parameters from the cache key while preserving any query fields that actually change the PDF.
  4. Move the PDFs behind an internet-only NAT gateway and keep the cache key.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Equivalent object requests should share a cached representation rather than fragmenting on advertising identifiers.

Incorrect Answers

A:

User-Agent variation would further split identical PDF objects into separate cache entries.

B:

Disabling caching would increase origin load for unchanged manuals.

D:

NAT routing does not reduce the number of distinct CloudFront cached variants.

Question 487

An application works for tiny responses but stalls for large requests across a hybrid IPsec tunnel.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. A controlled blocked connection generates matching REJECT metadata and an allowed connection generates ACCEPT while app logs explain its higher-layer result
  2. The analyzer locates the unexpected blocking hop and a subsequent live connection passes after the precise route or rule correction
  3. A controlled capture identifies retransmission patterns, dropped packets or handshake behavior and is protected under the approved evidence policy
  4. Large response tests succeed after the targeted correction and packet captures show suitable segment sizes across the entire path

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Large response tests succeed after the targeted correction and packet captures show suitable segment sizes across the entire path. That is relevant because oversized packets may be discarded when encapsulation reduces effective MTU and Path MTU Discovery messages are blocked or misinterpreted.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This would validate flow log reject versus accept interpretation. The case instead needs evidence for path mtu discovery black-hole diagnosis: Large response tests succeed after the targeted correction and packet captures show suitable segment sizes across the entire path.

B:

This would validate reachability analyzer blocked security group diagnosis. The case instead needs evidence for path mtu discovery black-hole diagnosis: Large response tests succeed after the targeted correction and packet captures show suitable segment sizes across the entire path.

C:

This would validate vpc traffic mirroring tls retransmission investigation. The case instead needs evidence for path mtu discovery black-hole diagnosis: Large response tests succeed after the targeted correction and packet captures show suitable segment sizes across the entire path.

Question 488

A network administrator needs to identify why return traffic behaves differently across security group and network ACL policies.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. Controlled benign requests succeed while simulated matching malicious patterns are logged and blocked under the selected rules
  2. A known allowed protocol passes and a controlled denied destination is blocked with the expected rule identifier in logs
  3. Approved app-to-database sessions complete with return traffic and explicit unauthorized subnet access is rejected in tests
  4. Newly added in-scope accounts receive the intended baseline protections and audit findings show policy deviations resolved

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Approved app-to-database sessions complete with return traffic and explicit unauthorized subnet access is rejected in tests. That is relevant because security groups are stateful at resource interfaces, while network ACLs are stateless subnet filters evaluated separately for each traffic direction.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This would validate aws waf managed and rate-limiting rules. The case instead needs evidence for security groups versus network acl layers: Approved app-to-database sessions complete with return traffic and explicit unauthorized subnet access is rejected in tests.

B:

This would validate aws network firewall policy precedence. The case instead needs evidence for security groups versus network acl layers: Approved app-to-database sessions complete with return traffic and explicit unauthorized subnet access is rejected in tests.

D:

This would validate firewall manager centralized security policy. The case instead needs evidence for security groups versus network acl layers: Approved app-to-database sessions complete with return traffic and explicit unauthorized subnet access is rejected in tests.

Question 489

A networking account shares a Route 53 private hosted zone with two application VPCs. Both can resolve api.shared.internal to its 10.90.5.10 address, but one application VPC has no route or peering/transit attachment to the service VPC. What network change is still needed?

  1. Provide an approved private IP route and appropriate security controls between the consumer VPC and the service endpoint.
  2. Recreate the same DNS record in another associated private zone.
  3. Make the internal API public through the internet solely to validate DNS sharing.
  4. Increase DNS record TTLs until TCP connections begin working.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Private hosted-zone association supplies name resolution, not automatic packet forwarding between otherwise isolated VPC networks.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Repeated name resolution cannot add missing transport routing.

C:

Internet exposure violates the stated controlled private connectivity goal.

D:

TTL does not establish a VPC-to-VPC route.

Question 490

A CloudWatch alarm reliably enters ALARM during a simulated firewall-deny spike but sends no notification. Its SNS email subscription has never been confirmed. What should be corrected to make the incident alert usable?

  1. Raise the alarm threshold until it no longer enters ALARM during the same incident.
  2. Disable the metric filter while leaving the SNS confirmation pending.
  3. Create a public Route 53 A record for the alarm name and leave SNS unchanged.
  4. Confirm or replace the SNS subscription with an approved active delivery target and retest alarm notification after the threshold is crossed.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An ALARM state and a working subscriber delivery path are distinct; the pending subscription is the demonstrated blocker.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Suppressing the alarm hides the problem rather than correcting delivery.

B:

Removing the signal cannot make a pending subscriber receive alerts.

C:

DNS record names do not confirm SNS subscriptions.

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