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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 56

Question 550

A company has a public CloudFront distribution serving private S3 documents. Auditors found users can bypass CloudFront and fetch objects from S3 endpoints, avoiding the edge access rules. What closes this bypass without disabling CloudFront?

  1. Make the S3 bucket publicly readable and enable CloudFront HTTPS
  2. Move the public DNS record to a different hosted zone
  3. Configure CloudFront Origin Access Control and restrict the bucket policy to the distribution
  4. Apply an ALB listener rule to the CloudFront domain

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Origin Access Control permits CloudFront to sign S3 requests while the bucket policy denies direct unauthorized reads.

Incorrect Answers

A:

HTTPS protects transport but public S3 reads still evade CloudFront controls.

B:

DNS placement does not change S3 object authorization.

D:

An ALB rule does not constrain access to the S3 origin.

Question 551

The datacenter's corporate DNS server can reach a private application over Direct Connect but cannot resolve its AWS private hosted-zone name. The team created only the private zone and no Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint for on-premises queries. What hybrid DNS assumption caused this?

  1. Using only a public hosted zone or forgetting inbound endpoint routing and security rules can leak internal names or break hybrid resolution
  2. Failing to associate the forwarding rule with the VPC leaves internal clients unable to resolve the corporate namespace
  3. Ignoring health-check associations or client DNS caching can leave users directed toward failed endpoints despite healthy alternatives
  4. Using a conventional CNAME at the zone apex violates DNS rules and can interfere with required SOA and NS records

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The private hosted zone does not accept on-premises DNS traffic without a reachable Route 53 Resolver inbound endpoint and correct forwarding setup.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Outbound Resolver rules forward matching VPC DNS queries through configured endpoints to designated corporate name servers. That explains the separate route 53 resolver outbound endpoint and rules issue, not this demonstrated route 53 resolver inbound endpoint for hybrid dns failure.

C:

This is a risk in route 53 weighted failover and health checks: Route 53 routing policies choose eligible DNS record answers according to their weights or failover order, while health checks exclude records marked unhealthy. It does not account for the route 53 resolver inbound endpoint for hybrid dns fault stated in this incident.

D:

That outcome depends on route 53 alias record for load balancer, whose mechanism is different: Route 53 alias records can target AWS resources while meeting zone-apex DNS constraints and tracking appropriate service target naming. The reported defect concerns route 53 resolver inbound endpoint for hybrid dns.

Question 552

Two teams import one shared CDK network construct, but it introduces a permissive security-group ingress rule. There is no construct validation or change review, and the next pipeline deploy will apply it to dozens of accounts at once. What automation blast radius is the main concern?

  1. Unreviewed reusable infrastructure constructs can spread a bad routing or security rule simultaneously across many accounts
  2. Sharing long-lived administrator credentials among infrastructure pipelines increases the blast radius of credential leakage
  3. An IaC template that was compliant at deployment does not automatically detect later manual network configuration drift
  4. Automatically deleting every security-group rule on a broad event pattern can cause unnecessary outages and erase legitimate exceptions

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A shared unvalidated construct spreads one permissive rule into every consuming deployment, multiplying the blast radius of a single code defect.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This is a risk in multi-account network automation role boundaries: STS role assumption grants temporary credentials limited by role trust and permissions, separating pipeline identity from persistent account-level root access. It does not account for the aws cdk secure network constructs fault stated in this incident.

C:

That outcome depends on aws config network compliance conformance, whose mechanism is different: AWS Config records supported resource configurations and evaluates them against rules, enabling continuous drift awareness across accounts. The reported defect concerns aws cdk secure network constructs.

D:

EventBridge can route management events to automation targets while CloudTrail records the underlying API activity and IAM restricts what automation may alter. That explains the separate eventbridge-driven network remediation issue, not this demonstrated aws cdk secure network constructs failure.

Question 553

A company wants its VPC Resolver DNS Firewall to block a high-risk hostname and respond with NXDOMAIN so client software treats it as an unknown domain. The existing block rule uses the NODATA response mode. What should be changed?

  1. Change the rule action to Alert while preserving NODATA.
  2. Publish a new public CNAME pointing to the blocked hostname.
  3. Replace the Route 53 Resolver endpoint with an internet gateway.
  4. Set the matching DNS Firewall Block rule response mode to NXDOMAIN and verify the logged policy decision.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The Block action supports configured response semantics; NXDOMAIN indicates that the queried domain does not exist.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Alert permits resolution instead of enforcing the requested denial.

B:

External DNS changes do not control the VPC DNS Firewall block response.

C:

Network egress routing does not set DNS Firewall response codes.

Question 554

An ALB marks every new container target unhealthy although users can connect directly to the application on port 8080. The target-group health check is still probing /health on port 80, which the containers do not listen on. What should be changed?

  1. Point the target-group health check to the application port and valid health path
  2. Increase the Route 53 record TTL
  3. Switch the ALB to UDP listeners
  4. Enable Transit Gateway appliance mode

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

ALB health checks must reach a port and path where the target answers with an expected healthy response.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DNS caching cannot make an incorrect target-group probe succeed.

C:

An Application Load Balancer does not use UDP listeners to test HTTP targets.

D:

Appliance mode affects routed flow symmetry and is unrelated to the ALB probe misconfiguration.

Question 555

After a branch router upgrade, its Direct Connect private VIF BGP session repeatedly resets while the physical circuit stays UP. Thousands of new /32s were advertised and the customer router logs a maximum-prefix breach. Which response addresses the routing cause?

  1. Inspect the BGP prefix-limit notification and route export, then aggregate or filter permitted advertisements and adjust supported policy limits carefully.
  2. Increase the VPC's EC2 instance quota while leaving the BGP prefix limit unchanged.
  3. Disable monitoring because ConnectionState=1 guarantees the BGP neighbor cannot reset.
  4. Change the domain's public DNS name-server delegation to accept more BGP routes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A configured prefix limit can reset an otherwise healthy BGP peer when the advertised count exceeds the accepted threshold.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Compute quota is unrelated to a peer's received-prefix policy.

C:

Physical link state and BGP session health are separate.

D:

DNS delegation does not control BGP prefix-limit policy.

Question 556

A data center migration requires dedicated fiber-based connectivity while maintaining an independent backup path during link maintenance.

Which AWS networking configuration best addresses this specific requirement?

  1. Design dedicated or hosted AWS Direct Connect connectivity with suitable private virtual interfaces, gateway associations and an independent secondary path
  2. Design Direct Connect gateway associations with transit virtual interfaces for approved Transit Gateway connectivity and non-overlapping prefixes
  3. Inventory and allocate non-overlapping address ranges or intentionally design supported translation boundaries before enabling hybrid routes
  4. Specify supported encryption such as IPsec VPN over Direct Connect or application TLS, validating routing and key exchange across the chosen architecture

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Direct Connect provides a dedicated physical network path for AWS resources, while its private VIF and gateway controls determine private VPC reachability. The proposed change can be checked by whether two independent path tests demonstrate private prefix reachability and routing continuity when the primary Direct Connect circuit is disabled.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This configuration addresses transit vif for multiple transit gateways, not the direct connect private connectivity and redundancy requirement. Transit VIFs connect a Direct Connect gateway to associated Transit Gateways, distinct from private VIF designs that access virtual private gateways.

C:

This configuration addresses hybrid cidr overlap prevention, not the direct connect private connectivity and redundancy requirement. Routing uses destination prefixes to choose paths; overlapping address spaces make private packets ambiguous without deliberate isolation or translation.

D:

This configuration addresses ipsec encryption over direct connect, not the direct connect private connectivity and redundancy requirement. Direct Connect provides a dedicated transport path but does not inherently encrypt all payloads, so confidentiality must be provided separately when policy requires it.

Question 557

A broad EventBridge rule triggers a Lambda function after every security-group management change. The function deletes all inbound rules, including specifically approved private database ports, without checking the change against policy. What is the direct operational risk?

  1. The automation can remove legitimate application access controls and cause outages unrelated to the originally unsafe rule, while erasing approved exceptions.
  2. EventBridge automatically restores every deleted security-group rule after the Lambda execution completes.
  3. A security-group delete action guarantees VPN BGP prefix advertisement becomes more specific.
  4. The automated deletion converts all instance network interfaces into publicly accessible NAT gateways.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Event-driven remediation must target the actual unauthorized change with an allowlist, scoped IAM permissions and evidence of the original rule, not indiscriminate deletion.

Incorrect Answers

B:

No automatic rollback is implied by a broad EventBridge event or Lambda invocation.

C:

Security-group management does not configure hybrid BGP route prefixes.

D:

Changing security-group rules cannot change the underlying network interface or NAT gateway type.

Question 558

A Site-to-Site VPN requires a scheduled pre-shared key rotation after a supplier offboarding. The operations team updates the AWS tunnel option, but the customer router still uses the previous key and the next IKE rekey fails. What change is missing?

  1. Coordinate matching PSK and compatible IKE settings on the customer gateway and validate both tunnels during the rotation.
  2. Increase a DNS TTL on the application’s public name.
  3. Make a VPC gateway endpoint policy public.
  4. Disable packet capture retention on the ALB.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Both peers need compatible authentication material; changing only one side breaks the tunnel during negotiation or rekey.

Incorrect Answers

B:

DNS cache behavior does not reconcile peer authentication secrets.

C:

Endpoint authorization cannot replace a VPN tunnel’s negotiated PSK.

D:

Application logging retention does not repair mismatched IKE credentials.

Question 559

A Route 53 public hosted zone has query logging enabled. Its CloudWatch log group shows far fewer queries than the website receives from repeat customers. A recursive resolver’s cache hit ratio is high. Why do the counts differ?

  1. Route 53 public query logs record every HTTP page request after DNS resolution.
  2. Route 53 logs the queries its authoritative servers receive; recursive cache hits need not reach them.
  3. A VPC Flow Log is required before Route 53 accepts public queries.
  4. The DNS zone is necessarily missing NS records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A resolver can answer many clients from its cached record during the TTL without generating a new authoritative query.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Authoritative DNS logs are not web request access logs.

C:

Public authoritative DNS query logging does not depend on the website VPC flow log configuration.

D:

The high resolver cache hit ratio already explains low authoritative query volume.

Question 560

A platform team must allow selected organization accounts to join a hub network while requiring resource-owner attachment governance.

Which technical explanation best accounts for the network behavior described?

  1. Transit Gateway forwards packets based on the attachment's associated route table, while propagation adds routes to selected tables rather than all tables
  2. Resource sharing and attachment authorization are separate from route-table configuration; each stage must be complete before transit is usable
  3. PrivateLink interface endpoints expose private ENI addresses to approved service consumers; DNS and endpoint security policies determine usable connectivity
  4. Transit Gateway inter-Region peering does not automatically propagate remote attachment prefixes; route-table entries identify the peering path

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Resource sharing and attachment authorization are separate from route-table configuration; each stage must be complete before transit is usable. A direct check is to share the eligible Transit Gateway through AWS RAM, process required resource-owner acceptance and finish controlled association/propagation and observe the corresponding path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transit Gateway forwards packets based on the attachment's associated route table, while propagation adds routes to selected tables rather than all tables. That is a valid account of transit gateway association and propagation tables, but it does not explain the aws ram share and attachment acceptance behavior in the scenario.

C:

PrivateLink interface endpoints expose private ENI addresses to approved service consumers; DNS and endpoint security policies determine usable connectivity. That is a valid account of interface vpc endpoint privatelink consumer configuration, but it does not explain the aws ram share and attachment acceptance behavior in the scenario.

D:

Transit Gateway inter-Region peering does not automatically propagate remote attachment prefixes; route-table entries identify the peering path. That is a valid account of transit gateway cross-region static routing, but it does not explain the aws ram share and attachment acceptance behavior in the scenario.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

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