Pass Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Exam in First Attempt Easily
Real Amazon AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Verified by experts
3 products

You save $69.98

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Premium Bundle

  • Premium File 306 Questions & Answers
  • Last Update: Nov 4, 2026
  • Training Course 223 Lectures
  • Study Guide 411 Pages
$79.99 $149.97

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    306 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    223 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    411 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 62

Question 610

AWS Network Firewall emits a stream of deny logs for a suspected credential-stuffing incident. The company has no CloudWatch alarm, notification destination or on-call owner and nobody responds until users complain. What monitoring gap allows the sustained event to go unnoticed?

  1. Using VPC Flow Logs alone to identify the IAM principal who changed an API configuration leaves the change attribution gap unresolved
  2. Collecting security logs without alarm ownership can allow a sustained network attack or outage to continue unnoticed
  3. Flow records alone do not reveal full application payloads, so assuming they reconstruct every attack packet can undermine forensic analysis
  4. Disabling inspection logs removes crucial evidence for validating compliance with network-layer security controls

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Stored firewall denies without a staffed alarm and notification channel can accumulate while the attack or service outage goes unaddressed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This is a risk in cloudtrail network api audit: CloudTrail records supported AWS management API activity, including the identity and request parameters behind configuration changes, rather than packet payloads. It does not account for the cloudwatch alarm and security response integration fault stated in this incident.

C:

Flow logs emit metadata such as IP addresses, ports, bytes and ACCEPT/REJECT action for supported network flows, not raw packet bodies. That explains the separate vpc flow logs for security investigations issue, not this demonstrated cloudwatch alarm and security response integration failure.

D:

This is a risk in network firewall flow and alert log delivery: Managed firewall logging exposes inspected flow outcomes and alert events, while VPC Flow Logs alone do not explain stateful intrusion-rule matches. It does not account for the cloudwatch alarm and security response integration fault stated in this incident.

Question 611

A VPN customer gateway currently advertises only one route to AWS over one of two established IPsec tunnels. When that tunnel is shut down for maintenance, BGP never converges on the second tunnel. What should be corrected before the next outage drill?

  1. Delete the second tunnel to force AWS to restart it.
  2. Change the application’s HTTP cookie lifetime.
  3. Configure and test BGP peers and approved prefix advertisements over both redundant VPN tunnels.
  4. Set all VPC routes to an internet gateway instead.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The second tunnel cannot provide routed failover unless its neighbor and route exchange are actually operational.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Removing redundancy worsens the maintenance failure and does not establish a healthy alternate peer.

B:

Session cookies do not restore hybrid routing on the backup tunnel.

D:

A public egress path is not the approved private branch-to-VPC connection.

Question 612

A production VPN forwards all AWS-to-datacenter traffic through one tunnel even though a second tunnel is available.

Which observation would most directly demonstrate the required network outcome?

  1. Large and small application requests both complete with acceptable latency and captures show no repeating black-holed oversized packets
  2. The transit VIF and gateway associations are active and approved hybrid prefixes reach multiple intended VPC attachments
  3. Route inspections and end-to-end tests show successful failover to encrypted VPN after disabling the private circuit and restoration afterward
  4. During a controlled primary-tunnel shutdown, approved traffic recovers over the alternate tunnel and BGP routing converges

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

During a controlled primary-tunnel shutdown, approved traffic recovers over the alternate tunnel and BGP routing converges. That is relevant because site-to-Site VPN supplies redundant tunnels, but failover depends on compatible dynamic routing and healthy peer sessions for both tunnel paths.

Incorrect Answers

A:

This would validate hybrid path mtu and fragmentation. The case instead needs evidence for redundant vpn tunnels with bgp failover: During a controlled primary-tunnel shutdown, approved traffic recovers over the alternate tunnel and BGP routing converges.

B:

This would validate transit virtual interface to transit gateway. The case instead needs evidence for redundant vpn tunnels with bgp failover: During a controlled primary-tunnel shutdown, approved traffic recovers over the alternate tunnel and BGP routing converges.

C:

This would validate direct connect failover to vpn route selection. The case instead needs evidence for redundant vpn tunnels with bgp failover: During a controlled primary-tunnel shutdown, approved traffic recovers over the alternate tunnel and BGP routing converges.

Question 613

A software vendor deploys a corrected CSS bundle at /assets/site.css behind CloudFront, but clients keep receiving the cached old file until TTL expiry. Releases can change asset references in the generated HTML. Which rollout gives deterministic new-byte access without relying on widespread invalidation?

  1. Increase the existing object minimum TTL to one week.
  2. Set the origin response status to 304 for every new request.
  3. Publish the new bundle under a content-versioned pathname and update HTML references.
  4. Place another Route 53 A record at the zone apex.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A different object path produces a different cache key so subsequent requests fetch the new version without waiting for old TTLs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A longer TTL prolongs old content availability.

B:

A universal Not Modified response cannot make the cache retrieve the new bytes.

D:

DNS address changes do not differentiate two versions of the same cached object path.

Question 614

A Network Load Balancer has cross-zone load balancing disabled. Its targets are all healthy in Zone A, but the load balancer is enabled in Zones A and B. Clients sometimes connect through the Zone B entry address. Which availability risk is directly created by this placement?

  1. Zone B clients automatically obtain a new public S3 bucket to serve the unavailable network application.
  2. Zone B NLB nodes may have no eligible local targets and fail incoming connections despite healthy targets in Zone A.
  3. The NLB forces Zone A targets to terminate TLS even if the application uses raw TCP listeners.
  4. All Zone A targets become unhealthy solely because traffic enters through a Zone B IP.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

With cross-zone disabled, each enabled zone needs eligible targets to serve its local NLB entry path; healthy capacity in another zone does not necessarily substitute.

Incorrect Answers

A:

NLB target selection does not provision unrelated S3 origins.

C:

Cross-zone target eligibility does not alter the application listener's TLS configuration.

D:

A lack of eligible Zone B targets affects that entry path; it does not automatically mark healthy Zone A targets unhealthy.

Question 615

A CloudWatch alarm monitors firewall deny counts on an intermittently reported custom metric. The security team treats missing datapoints as `notBreaching`, so the alarm remains OK through long telemetry gaps that coincide with suspected blocked traffic. What monitoring-assurance risk does that choice introduce?

  1. Set the alarm to ignore missing data indefinitely, rather than inspect whether absent samples signal a lost telemetry feed.
  2. Increase the alarm threshold dramatically without addressing gaps in datapoint delivery.
  3. Treat the last nonbreaching datapoint as conclusive proof of current firewall health.
  4. An incorrectly selected missing-data treatment can conceal a sustained detection gap and prevent the intended security alert from entering ALARM.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

CloudWatch alarm state depends on real evaluated datapoints and the configured handling of missing metrics.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ignoring missing data can preserve the prior state without providing the desired alert assurance.

B:

A higher threshold makes alerts less likely and does not resolve missing telemetry.

C:

A historical metric value cannot establish the state during a later data gap.

Question 616

After a branch router maintenance, a corporate WAN application's branch-to-AWS Region latency rises. AWS Network Manager still lists the branch and TGW as connected, but operators suspect the dynamic path now traverses a secondary geographic site. What FIRST evidence plan distinguishes a topology/path change from normal application slowness?

  1. Assume the WAN route is unchanged because every topology node is green, and sample only the application's HTTP response time.
  2. Edit the VPC security-group ingress rules before checking source/destination routes and the branch link telemetry.
  3. Review only a successful VPC local-subnet traceroute that never enters the TGW or branch network.
  4. Compare Network Manager's supported global path and link topology against the baseline, correlate TGW routing and CloudWatch link/BGP telemetry, and trace the affected branch CIDR end to end.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The suspected change is a network path selection, not simply application response time. A baseline path comparison plus actual route and link measurements can expose the shifted branch-to-Region forwarding path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A connected inventory map does not guarantee that the same WAN path or BGP preference is currently selected.

B:

Security-group edits do not identify a changing dynamic WAN route or explain regional path latency.

C:

An intra-VPC probe cannot establish which intersite WAN route carries the affected branch prefix.

Question 617

A Direct Connect transit VIF and Direct Connect gateway association to a TGW are operational. The datacenter can reach VPC 10.80.0.0/16 but not newly attached VPC 10.81.0.0/16. The DX gateway association allowed-prefix list contains only 10.80.0.0/16. Which change addresses this advertisement gap?

  1. Replace the transit VIF with a public VIF so private VPC prefixes are publicly advertised.
  2. Add an application load balancer listener rule without modifying the DX gateway association.
  3. Expand only the already reachable first VPC while the new VPC's CIDR remains excluded.
  4. Add the approved 10.81.0.0/16 to the DX gateway TGW association's allowed-prefix list, then verify BGP advertisement and the VPC return routes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The DX gateway association's allowed prefixes determine which VPC address ranges can be advertised over the transit VIF.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A public VIF is not the private TGW transit path described.

B:

HTTP routing rules cannot authorize hybrid BGP prefix advertisement.

C:

Changing the old VPC does not add the new prefix to the association's permitted list.

Question 618

An international enterprise wants inter-Region backbone connectivity but must preserve independent Regional route control.

Which technical explanation best accounts for the network behavior described?

  1. AWS PrivateLink offers a private service endpoint across VPC boundaries without granting general layer-three routing to the provider network
  2. Private hosted zones and Resolver rules can make selected internal names resolvable in associated VPCs without implying blanket network reachability
  3. Transit Gateway can route between VPC attachments according to association and propagation rules, unlike non-transitive VPC peering
  4. Transit Gateway peering joins separate regional gateway routing domains, and the peering attachment does not automatically propagate all remote routes

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Transit Gateway peering joins separate regional gateway routing domains, and the peering attachment does not automatically propagate all remote routes. A direct check is to design Transit Gateway peering attachments with corresponding static routes and clear inter-Region traffic boundaries and observe the corresponding path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

AWS PrivateLink offers a private service endpoint across VPC boundaries without granting general layer-three routing to the provider network. That is a valid account of privatelink service-consumer pattern, but it does not explain the cross-region transit gateway peering behavior in the scenario.

B:

Private hosted zones and Resolver rules can make selected internal names resolvable in associated VPCs without implying blanket network reachability. That is a valid account of hybrid multi-account dns boundary, but it does not explain the cross-region transit gateway peering behavior in the scenario.

C:

Transit Gateway can route between VPC attachments according to association and propagation rules, unlike non-transitive VPC peering. That is a valid account of transit gateway hub and spoke versus peering mesh, but it does not explain the cross-region transit gateway peering behavior in the scenario.

Question 619

An application VPC requires forwarding for ad.corp.example. Its Route 53 Resolver outbound endpoint is healthy and corporate DNS is reachable, but the forwarding rule is associated only with a different VPC. What outage risk remains for this application?

  1. The outbound endpoint necessarily stops receiving queries from every other correctly associated VPC.
  2. The application VPC continues resolving without the intended forwarding rule and can fail to resolve the corporate-only namespace, even though the shared outbound endpoint itself is healthy.
  3. All ad.corp.example records are instantly published to public internet DNS as soon as a rule association is absent.
  4. The missing association changes the Direct Connect physical link speed while preserving corporate DNS resolution.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A rule association is required for an individual VPC to select its outbound forwarding behavior; other VPC associations do not imply this one.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Lack of association affects this VPC; it does not automatically disable use by other correctly associated VPCs.

C:

Missing a forwarding rule does not automatically publish private corporate records.

D:

Resolver rule association does not configure the dedicated circuit's bandwidth.

Question 620

A large organization charges workloads by AWS networking service. It notices that nightly analytic jobs pull same-Region DynamoDB items through NAT gateways from private EC2 subnets. The application supports DynamoDB gateway endpoints. Which design most directly removes this unnecessary NAT path?

  1. Add another NAT gateway with equal traffic shares.
  2. Deploy a DynamoDB gateway endpoint and associate the consuming private subnet route tables with a restrictive endpoint policy.
  3. Make DynamoDB tables publicly writable to avoid routing changes.
  4. Assign Elastic IPs directly to the private EC2 instances.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Eligible traffic to the supported service can use the gateway endpoint rather than the NAT data-processing path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

More NAT gateways do not eliminate per-byte processing of the eligible service traffic.

C:

Relaxing application authorization is unsafe and does not solve the network design objective.

D:

Giving workloads public addresses is unnecessary when a gateway endpoint can meet private access needs.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    306 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    223 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    411 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF
This is ONE TIME OFFER

You save
10%

Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

You save
10%

Use Discount Code:

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.

Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examlabs.com and follow the directions.

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your email address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

  • Realistic exam simulation and exam editor with preview functions
  • Whole exam in a single file with several different question types
  • Customizable exam-taking mode & detailed score reports