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AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Test 65

Question 640

A VPN BGP session is established and the Transit Gateway has learned the expected corporate prefix. One VPC's application subnet cannot send packets there because its subnet route table lacks a destination route to the TGW. What evidence verifies the final routing correction?

  1. The VPN tunnel remains UP and the TGW still learns the prefix, but the application subnet route is untouched.
  2. The customer gateway announces another unrelated prefix while the affected destination stays unrouted.
  3. A public DNS query returns a hostname without a data-plane test from the affected private subnet.
  4. The application subnet has the permitted corporate CIDR route toward the TGW, and end-to-end private probes succeed in both directions while the VPN route remains learned.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The subnet-to-TGW route and the TGW-to-VPN learned route are both required; tunnel health alone does not configure VPC subnet routing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That demonstrates control-plane health, not correction of the missing source route.

B:

An unrelated advertisement does not supply the subnet's intended next hop.

C:

Name resolution does not prove permitted packet routing over the hybrid path.

Question 641

A compliance team uses Route 53 Resolver query logs for a private DNS suffix. Repeated calls from the same instance generate only one log record until the name’s TTL expires. Which limitation should be explained in the monitoring design?

  1. Resolver logs typically record uncached recursive queries, not every application lookup served from the Resolver cache.
  2. Every name lookup becomes a separate Resolver log entry even if cached.
  3. Query logs capture application HTTPS payloads after the DNS answer.
  4. Only externally hosted domain queries can be logged.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Repeated requests may be answered from cached DNS entries and therefore never trigger another query log event.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Cache-served DNS responses do not necessarily produce a new logged query.

C:

Resolver telemetry is not web application content capture.

D:

Resolver query logging can cover specified private VPC and hybrid DNS workloads.

Question 642

A new Direct Connect transit VIF is configured to reach VPCs attached to a Transit Gateway. The operator assumes the VIF can attach directly to a VPC internet gateway. Which relationship is actually required?

  1. The transit VIF connects to a Direct Connect gateway that is associated with the eligible Transit Gateway, subject to supported CIDR and ASN policies.
  2. The transit VIF attaches to the VPC internet gateway and inherits its public default route.
  3. The transit VIF becomes a VPC peering connection that automatically discovers every spoke VPC.
  4. The transit VIF attaches to a Route 53 private hosted zone and exports DNS records as BGP prefixes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Transit virtual interfaces use a Direct Connect gateway as the intermediate association to the TGW rather than connecting directly to a VPC internet gateway.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Internet gateways do not provide a transit VIF association.

C:

VPC peering is a separate construct and does not replace DX gateway association.

D:

DNS records cannot supply the transit VIF's required network association.

Question 643

Two regional Transit Gateways have a working inter-Region peering attachment and matching static peer-prefix routes. However, the source EC2 subnet’s route table has no route for the remote VPC CIDR toward its regional Transit Gateway. The gateway team declares the peering configuration complete. What remains the immediate connectivity risk?

  1. Enable additional route propagation between the already configured regional gateway attachments only.
  2. VPC workloads still cannot send remote-Region packets into the transit path because their subnet route table lacks a Transit Gateway next hop.
  3. Open the EC2 security group for the remote CIDR but leave its VPC route table unchanged.
  4. Increase the allowed number of regional TGW peering attachments.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Transit Gateway peering routes and VPC subnet routes are separate forwarding decisions; both must be configured.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The TGW tables already have the remote routes; the originating VPC subnet still lacks its next hop.

C:

Permission rules cannot choose a missing subnet route.

D:

The peering link is Available and the failure is before traffic reaches it.

Question 644

An inspection VPC uses AWS Network Firewall for stateful east-west traffic. Request packets use the endpoint in Availability Zone A; the route for response traffic bypasses that firewall endpoint, and established connections fail. Which routing property must be enforced?

  1. Use a public Route 53 weighted record to distribute the response packets.
  2. Disable all endpoint health alarms and assume the firewall is symmetric.
  3. Place the application’s static images behind CloudFront.
  4. Configure supported symmetric forward and return paths through the stateful inspection endpoint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Stateful packet inspection depends on consistent flow state; an asymmetric return path can bypass or mismatch the state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

DNS weighting does not control routed return-packet symmetry within the inspection VPC.

B:

Monitoring settings do not change actual route paths.

C:

Caching static content does not repair east-west stateful inspection routing.

Question 645

An AWS WAF rate-based rule for POST /login was initially deployed in Count mode. The test log shows rate matches but users continue receiving HTTP 200 responses from the login service. Which observation confirms the rule now enforces the intended abusive-request limit?

  1. The Count-mode rule has more matching samples and the login service continues returning all requests normally.
  2. A subnet NACL permits TCP 443, so the WAF must be imposing per-path rate limits.
  3. Once the rule's terminating action is configured, controlled excess-rate login requests receive the expected WAF block/challenge outcome and corresponding WAF records, while normal requests continue.
  4. Only the WAF web ACL exists in the console; no requests are sent to test its rule action.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Count mode measures matches without stopping a request. The acceptance test must show the desired enforcement action on the sensitive path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Counting alone does not enforce an abusive-request block.

B:

NACL port rules cannot demonstrate HTTP rate enforcement.

D:

Resource configuration does not prove actual request handling.

Question 646

An NLB must pass original client connection metadata to a custom service running behind a supported cross-network IP target, but ordinary client-IP preservation is not available in that topology. The service can parse a binary prefix before its protocol frames. What should the team configure?

  1. Enable an ALB fixed-response action on port 9000.
  2. Enable Proxy Protocol v2 on the target group and update the service to parse its header.
  3. Use a Route 53 TXT record containing each connecting user’s IP.
  4. Enable stickiness and assume the target learns the client’s original IP.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The binary Proxy Protocol v2 header carries connection metadata independently of the packet source address seen by the target.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A fixed HTTP response neither forwards the proprietary protocol nor conveys client metadata.

C:

DNS records cannot convey per-connection client identity to a target.

D:

Session stickiness affects selection, not metadata representation.

Question 647

An EC2 client in a VPC reaches S3 through its subnet's S3 gateway endpoint. A datacenter client connected via Direct Connect tries to use that same gateway endpoint transitively and fails. What observation explains the difference without implying S3 itself is down?

  1. Both clients resolve the regional S3 public DNS name, which proves both must traverse the gateway endpoint.
  2. The EC2 client's subnet route selects the local S3 gateway endpoint; the on-premises client has no supported transitive route through that VPC endpoint and needs a suitable hybrid S3 access design.
  3. Direct Connect's physical link is UP, so VPC gateway endpoints automatically become routable from on-premises.
  4. The S3 bucket exists, therefore its gateway endpoint must be accessible from any private CIDR over VPN or Direct Connect.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

S3 gateway endpoints are VPC route targets, not generally usable from an on-premises network as a transit hop.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Name resolution alone does not determine endpoint routing across the hybrid connection.

C:

Transport connectivity does not make a gateway endpoint transitively accessible.

D:

Resource existence does not change VPC endpoint routing scope.

Question 648

Two regional Transit Gateways have an active peering attachment. A VPC attachment on one gateway propagates its CIDR locally but the remote gateway has no route for that CIDR. Which deployment step is missing?

  1. Enable automatic BGP on the TGW peering as if it were a customer VPN.
  2. Add a public NAT gateway to every source VPC solely to carry private peering traffic.
  3. Turn on ALB HTTP access logs at the destination.
  4. Install an explicit static route to the remote CIDR via the peering attachment in the appropriate remote TGW route table.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Transit Gateway peering attachments do not automatically propagate the other side’s attachment routes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inter-Region TGW peering is not a dynamic BGP relationship of that type.

B:

Internet NAT is not the required inter-Region transit route.

C:

Application telemetry cannot supply the missing remote gateway route.

Question 649

A network administrator shares a Transit Gateway and requests a consumer VPC attachment. The central account has not accepted the pending attachment, and neither gateway route tables nor VPC subnet routes were configured. The project owner counts the invitation as deployed connectivity. What readiness failure is being made?

  1. Treating an invitation or attachment request as automatically configured routing can strand consumers or weaken transit governance
  2. Creating an endpoint without a suitable DNS or security-group path can leave the application using public routes or failing silently
  3. An active peering attachment without explicit peer-prefix routes can create a false impression of connectivity readiness
  4. A single-AZ NAT dependency may introduce cross-zone charges and a zone-failure outage for otherwise healthy private workloads

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The attachment remains pending and no route policy exists; a share invitation is not evidence of an accepted, routed and governed network connection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

That outcome depends on interface vpc endpoint privatelink consumer configuration, whose mechanism is different: PrivateLink interface endpoints expose private ENI addresses to approved service consumers; DNS and endpoint security policies determine usable connectivity. The reported defect concerns aws ram share and attachment acceptance.

C:

Transit Gateway inter-Region peering does not automatically propagate remote attachment prefixes; route-table entries identify the peering path. That explains the separate transit gateway cross-region static routing issue, not this demonstrated aws ram share and attachment acceptance failure.

D:

This is a risk in nat gateway route and az resilience: A public NAT gateway translates outbound private IPv4 flows using public subnet connectivity but does not make private instances directly internet-addressable. It does not account for the aws ram share and attachment acceptance fault stated in this incident.

Question 650

An application requires the zone-apex hostname corp.example to resolve to its ALB. An engineer tries to publish a conventional CNAME at the apex despite the SOA and NS records already living there. What DNS rule makes this arrangement unsafe?

  1. Using only a public hosted zone or forgetting inbound endpoint routing and security rules can leak internal names or break hybrid resolution
  2. Using a conventional CNAME at the zone apex violates DNS rules and can interfere with required SOA and NS records
  3. Publishing records inside an undelegated hosted zone does not cause internet clients to use them
  4. Ignoring health-check associations or client DNS caching can leave users directed toward failed endpoints despite healthy alternatives

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A conventional zone-apex CNAME conflicts with the required apex NS/SOA records; an eligible Route 53 alias record is the appropriate alternative.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That outcome depends on route 53 resolver inbound endpoint for hybrid dns, whose mechanism is different: Inbound Resolver endpoints receive DNS requests from reachable external DNS servers and resolve eligible AWS private namespace records in the associated VPC. The reported defect concerns route 53 alias record for load balancer.

C:

This is a risk in route 53 public hosted zone delegation: A public hosted zone becomes authoritative to external recursive resolvers only when the domain's parent delegation points to its name servers. It does not account for the route 53 alias record for load balancer fault stated in this incident.

D:

That outcome depends on route 53 weighted failover and health checks, whose mechanism is different: Route 53 routing policies choose eligible DNS record answers according to their weights or failover order, while health checks exclude records marked unhealthy. The reported defect concerns route 53 alias record for load balancer.

AWS Certified Advanced Networking - Specialty ANS-C01 Practice Tests

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