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AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 28

Question 270

AWS Config detects a prohibited 0.0.0.0/0 inbound SSH rule, but security staff repeatedly remove the same exposure by hand.

Which consequence is most specific to the observed weakness?

  1. Manual daily scaling allows important queued work to exceed its processing deadline during sudden load changes.
  2. Manual global configuration edits make it difficult to identify or reverse the exact setting that caused an outage.
  3. A lack of automatic correction allows easily reintroduced network exposure to persist between security reviews.
  4. Overbroad or slow isolation either leaves malicious traffic active or disconnects innocent production systems.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A lack of automatic correction allows easily reintroduced network exposure to persist between security reviews. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: A Config evaluation identifies the noncompliant resource state and an authorized automation can restore the expected ingress policy. The corresponding mitigation is: Attach a narrowly scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation to the relevant Config rule with controlled exception handling.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Manual daily scaling allows important queued work to exceed its processing deadline during sudden load changes. That is a credible concern for auto scale on sqs backlog, normally addressed by: Use suitable CloudWatch backlog metrics to drive an Auto Scaling policy for the processing fleet with bounded capacity. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A lack of automatic correction allows easily reintroduced network exposure to persist between security reviews.

B:

Manual global configuration edits make it difficult to identify or reverse the exact setting that caused an outage. That is a credible concern for parameter change rollback, normally addressed by: Associate the rollout with meaningful CloudWatch health alarms and automatic configuration rollback rather than restarting every service manually. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A lack of automatic correction allows easily reintroduced network exposure to persist between security reviews.

D:

Overbroad or slow isolation either leaves malicious traffic active or disconnects innocent production systems. That is a credible concern for automated isolation of compromised instance, normally addressed by: Trigger a guarded event workflow that applies a preapproved quarantine security group after checking finding type and resource identity. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A lack of automatic correction allows easily reintroduced network exposure to persist between security reviews.

Question 271

Every developer can overwrite internal release packages in CodeArtifact even though most users only need to install them.

Which validation result offers the strongest acceptance evidence?

  1. Package download succeeds for approved builds but a user without publishing rights receives an explicit denied write attempt.
  2. Image tests verify required agent and patch state, and a new launch template references the tested AMI version.
  3. Current and rollback digests stay pullable after retention cleanup, while older unreferenced images expire as intended.
  4. A scoped target role can decrypt only authorized release objects, while an unrelated workload role remains denied.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Package download succeeds for approved builds but a user without publishing rights receives an explicit denied write attempt. It directly verifies the change: Separate read-only consumer permissions from tightly scoped publisher rights for authorized build automation. The test matters because least-privilege publishing prevents consumers from changing package content or creating unauthorized versions in shared repositories.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Image tests verify required agent and patch state, and a new launch template references the tested AMI version. That result would help prove golden ami pipeline, where the relevant action is: Use EC2 Image Builder to create, test and distribute versioned patched AMIs for immutable instance replacement. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For private registry publishing rights, the decisive verification is: Package download succeeds for approved builds but a user without publishing rights receives an explicit denied write attempt.

C:

Current and rollback digests stay pullable after retention cleanup, while older unreferenced images expire as intended. That result would help prove artifact retention rules, where the relevant action is: Define lifecycle policies that prune unused image versions while retaining active and approved rollback digests. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For private registry publishing rights, the decisive verification is: Package download succeeds for approved builds but a user without publishing rights receives an explicit denied write attempt.

D:

A scoped target role can decrypt only authorized release objects, while an unrelated workload role remains denied. That result would help prove cross-account kms artifacts, where the relevant action is: Allow the target deployment role appropriate KMS decrypt access in the key policy and IAM permissions while keeping object access scoped. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For private registry publishing rights, the decisive verification is: Package download succeeds for approved builds but a user without publishing rights receives an explicit denied write attempt.

Question 272

A fast-growing organization creates AWS accounts by email and manually repeats inconsistent logging, identity and network configurations.

Which finding directly validates the selected implementation?

  1. A new account joining the target OU receives the expected rule stack without a separate manual deployment request.
  2. An API action in a newly enrolled account produces the expected centralized CloudTrail event with integrity controls.
  3. The central view reports compliant and noncompliant resources from all intended accounts and monitored Regions.
  4. A newly provisioned account automatically receives the expected OU placement, mandatory baseline controls and access configuration.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A newly provisioned account automatically receives the expected OU placement, mandatory baseline controls and access configuration. It directly verifies the change: Provision new workload accounts through AWS Control Tower Account Factory within approved organizational units and baseline guardrails. The test matters because account Factory standardizes account enrollment and foundational governance while AWS Organizations manages consolidated account relationships.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A new account joining the target OU receives the expected rule stack without a separate manual deployment request. That result would help prove stacksets ou deployment, where the relevant action is: Use service-managed CloudFormation StackSets with AWS Organizations targeting and automatic OU deployment where appropriate. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For control tower account factory, the decisive verification is: A newly provisioned account automatically receives the expected OU placement, mandatory baseline controls and access configuration.

B:

An API action in a newly enrolled account produces the expected centralized CloudTrail event with integrity controls. That result would help prove organization trail audit scope, where the relevant action is: Create an organization-level multi-Region CloudTrail trail with protected centralized log storage and appropriate ownership. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For control tower account factory, the decisive verification is: A newly provisioned account automatically receives the expected OU placement, mandatory baseline controls and access configuration.

C:

The central view reports compliant and noncompliant resources from all intended accounts and monitored Regions. That result would help prove multiaccount config aggregation, where the relevant action is: Configure an AWS Config aggregator with the required organization and Region coverage and centrally review aggregated compliance. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For control tower account factory, the decisive verification is: A newly provisioned account automatically receives the expected OU placement, mandatory baseline controls and access configuration.

Question 273

Operations patches Amazon Linux manually but has no continuous evidence of which managed EC2 workloads still contain known vulnerabilities.

What is the main operational consequence of the stated design gap?

  1. An unmeasured patch campaign can leave critical exposed instances vulnerable while the team assumes completion.
  2. Broad unfiltered login alerts exhaust responders while a suspicious privileged session remains unidentified.
  3. Mutable local audit trails allow an attacker to modify resources and then remove evidence of the changes.
  4. Duplicate incident records waste analyst time and conceal which remediation corresponds to the true affected resource.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An unmeasured patch campaign can leave critical exposed instances vulnerable while the team assumes completion. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Inspector identifies supported software vulnerabilities by resource and package; remediation should confirm the affected package version changes. The corresponding mitigation is: Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Broad unfiltered login alerts exhaust responders while a suspicious privileged session remains unidentified. That is a credible concern for cloudtrail suspicious console login, normally addressed by: Create targeted CloudTrail-based detections for privileged console events with identity, outcome and MFA attributes. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: An unmeasured patch campaign can leave critical exposed instances vulnerable while the team assumes completion.

C:

Mutable local audit trails allow an attacker to modify resources and then remove evidence of the changes. That is a credible concern for security trail integrity, normally addressed by: Centralize organization CloudTrail logs under independent security ownership with log-file validation and appropriate object retention protections. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: An unmeasured patch campaign can leave critical exposed instances vulnerable while the team assumes completion.

D:

Duplicate incident records waste analyst time and conceal which remediation corresponds to the true affected resource. That is a credible concern for security finding deduplication, normally addressed by: Correlate findings by stable finding IDs and resource identifiers and update existing incident records rather than always opening new ones. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: An unmeasured patch campaign can leave critical exposed instances vulnerable while the team assumes completion.

Question 274

A pipeline accidentally overwrites a critical S3 configuration object and the operations team needs to restore the previous valid content quickly.

What is the best automation decision for this workload?

  1. Keep critical state and minimal core services replicated in a pilot-light Region and automate scale-out during a disaster.
  2. Create AWS Backup plans with cross-Region copies to a protected destination vault and test restore from that Region.
  3. Enable suitable S3 versioning and tightly controlled deletion and recovery procedures on critical configuration objects.
  4. Define health-aware Route 53 routing and failover runbooks or controlled automation with realistic resolver caching expectations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Enable suitable S3 versioning and tightly controlled deletion and recovery procedures on critical configuration objects. Object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls. The relevant operational proof is specific: A simulated overwrite is reversed by selecting the known-good object version without restoring an entire bucket.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Keep critical state and minimal core services replicated in a pilot-light Region and automate scale-out during a disaster. That would address pilot light tradeoff, because pilot light reduces steady-state spend by leaving much of the application tier dormant, accepting a longer startup recovery time. However, the stated situation instead concerns s3 versioned recovery. Object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls.

B:

Create AWS Backup plans with cross-Region copies to a protected destination vault and test restore from that Region. That would address cross region backup vault, because regional backup copies provide an independent recovery dataset when the original Region and its storage are unavailable. However, the stated situation instead concerns s3 versioned recovery. Object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls.

D:

Define health-aware Route 53 routing and failover runbooks or controlled automation with realistic resolver caching expectations. That would address route 53 dr automation, because automated routing reduces operator error when the primary endpoint fails, but detection time and DNS cache behavior affect actual RTO. However, the stated situation instead concerns s3 versioned recovery. Object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls.

Question 275

Operations needs to prioritize newly discovered container image vulnerabilities by affected running workloads rather than scan a generic package list.

Which adverse outcome is the recommended change intended to prevent?

  1. Manual retrieval delays triage and leads responders to overlook related errors in other instances.
  2. Without data events, investigators cannot reliably determine who accessed or changed sensitive S3 objects.
  3. A detached package scan may drive low-priority fixes while an exploited image remains deployed in production.
  4. Lack of management-event audit records prevents attribution of unauthorized resource changes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A detached package scan may drive low-priority fixes while an exploited image remains deployed in production. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Inspector discovers supported software vulnerabilities and exposure findings; prioritization requires matching findings to real workload use. The corresponding mitigation is: Review Amazon Inspector findings with severity, affected resource and exposure context, linking results to deployed artifact versions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Manual retrieval delays triage and leads responders to overlook related errors in other instances. That is a credible concern for cloudwatch logs insights, normally addressed by: Use CloudWatch Logs Insights queries to aggregate and filter relevant log fields across selected log groups and time ranges. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A detached package scan may drive low-priority fixes while an exploited image remains deployed in production.

B:

Without data events, investigators cannot reliably determine who accessed or changed sensitive S3 objects. That is a credible concern for cloudtrail data events, normally addressed by: Enable appropriately scoped CloudTrail S3 data event recording for the required buckets while managing cost and data sensitivity. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A detached package scan may drive low-priority fixes while an exploited image remains deployed in production.

D:

Lack of management-event audit records prevents attribution of unauthorized resource changes. That is a credible concern for cloudtrail management audit, normally addressed by: Search CloudTrail management events with time, account, event name and user identity, preserving an appropriate audit trail. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A detached package scan may drive low-priority fixes while an exploited image remains deployed in production.

Question 276

A downstream incident consumer fails for an hour, and the team needs a controlled way to reprocess captured EventBridge events after repair.

Which action best meets the technical requirement?

  1. Configure an appropriate SQS redrive policy to a dead-letter queue and investigate messages that exceed the retry threshold.
  2. Use an EventBridge archive and replay strategy on the intended event bus with idempotent processing and scope controls.
  3. Use a Step Functions workflow with explicit branches, task-level retries and approval-dependent transitions.
  4. Configure permitted cross-account EventBridge event-bus routing with resource policies and carefully scoped matching rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use an EventBridge archive and replay strategy on the intended event bus with idempotent processing and scope controls. Archived events can be replayed later, but downstream actions must tolerate repeated event delivery and original event timestamps. The relevant operational proof is specific: A selected outage-window replay restores missing incident records without duplicating previously completed remediation actions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configure an appropriate SQS redrive policy to a dead-letter queue and investigate messages that exceed the retry threshold. That would address sqs dead letter handling, because dead-letter queues isolate repeatedly failing messages, allowing a controlled diagnostic path without losing the original payload. However, the stated situation instead concerns eventbridge archive replay. Archived events can be replayed later, but downstream actions must tolerate repeated event delivery and original event timestamps.

C:

Use a Step Functions workflow with explicit branches, task-level retries and approval-dependent transitions. That would address step functions incident orchestration, because a state machine makes multistep event response visible and handles human or service dependencies more reliably than one opaque handler. However, the stated situation instead concerns eventbridge archive replay. Archived events can be replayed later, but downstream actions must tolerate repeated event delivery and original event timestamps.

D:

Configure permitted cross-account EventBridge event-bus routing with resource policies and carefully scoped matching rules. That would address cross account event routing, because cross-account event buses can centralize structured events while resource policies control which source accounts may publish. However, the stated situation instead concerns eventbridge archive replay. Archived events can be replayed later, but downstream actions must tolerate repeated event delivery and original event timestamps.

Question 277

A stateful web application pins sessions to a single EC2 server, preventing safe traffic shifting between old and new fleets.

Which AWS operational change most directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Require healthy load-balancer target status and suitable readiness checks before shifting client traffic to replacement capacity.
  2. Configure the appropriate AppSpec lifecycle hooks to stop, install and start the application, then validate the service after installation.
  3. Move session state into a shared appropriate store or design stateless sessions before using blue/green traffic switching.
  4. Use readiness probes and rolling-update maxUnavailable/maxSurge settings that preserve service capacity during replacement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Move session state into a shared appropriate store or design stateless sessions before using blue/green traffic switching. Decoupling user session state from instances allows new targets to receive requests without losing authenticated transaction continuity. The relevant operational proof is specific: A user completes an active session after switching between blue and green targets without unauthorized session reset.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Require healthy load-balancer target status and suitable readiness checks before shifting client traffic to replacement capacity. That would address alb target group health, because load balancer health checks determine whether an instance or task should receive requests; instance launch does not mean application readiness. However, the stated situation instead concerns sticky session removal. Decoupling user session state from instances allows new targets to receive requests without losing authenticated transaction continuity.

B:

Configure the appropriate AppSpec lifecycle hooks to stop, install and start the application, then validate the service after installation. That would address codedeploy lifecycle hooks, because deployment hooks coordinate application lifecycle actions; successful file copying alone does not prove readiness to serve requests. However, the stated situation instead concerns sticky session removal. Decoupling user session state from instances allows new targets to receive requests without losing authenticated transaction continuity.

D:

Use readiness probes and rolling-update maxUnavailable/maxSurge settings that preserve service capacity during replacement. That would address kubernetes rolling readiness, because kubernetes readiness controls endpoint participation while rollout parameters bound simultaneous pod unavailability. However, the stated situation instead concerns sticky session removal. Decoupling user session state from instances allows new targets to receive requests without losing authenticated transaction continuity.

Question 278

Many application teams independently define network subnets and security groups, causing inconsistent baseline controls across environments.

Which explanation best describes the technical mechanism at issue?

  1. External secret references reduce persistence of plaintext credentials in source and parameters while keeping authorization in managed secret policies.
  2. Reusable IaC components encode organizational patterns once and allow controlled adoption without copying divergent templates.
  3. Predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts.
  4. CloudFormation resource policies can retain or snapshot supported resources when stack deletion or replacement occurs, reducing accidental loss.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Reusable IaC components encode organizational patterns once and allow controlled adoption without copying divergent templates. This explains the implementation decision: Provide versioned reusable CloudFormation modules or CDK constructs with validated network and security defaults. Verification should show the following: Separate projects provision consistent subnet and ingress patterns from an approved module version and can track updates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

External secret references reduce persistence of plaintext credentials in source and parameters while keeping authorization in managed secret policies. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of stack parameters and secrets, for which the relevant intervention is: Use Secrets Manager or supported dynamic references with tightly controlled permissions instead of hardcoded secret defaults. The scenario requires understanding reusable network modules, where reusable IaC components encode organizational patterns once and allow controlled adoption without copying divergent templates.

C:

Predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of template lint and policy checks, for which the relevant intervention is: Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets. The scenario requires understanding reusable network modules, where reusable IaC components encode organizational patterns once and allow controlled adoption without copying divergent templates.

D:

CloudFormation resource policies can retain or snapshot supported resources when stack deletion or replacement occurs, reducing accidental loss. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cloudformation deletion protections, for which the relevant intervention is: Set appropriate DeletionPolicy or UpdateReplacePolicy attributes on critical stateful resources and validate replacement behavior. The scenario requires understanding reusable network modules, where reusable IaC components encode organizational patterns once and allow controlled adoption without copying divergent templates.

Question 279

An organization operates GuardDuty, Config and other security services in many accounts, yet has no central view to prioritize findings.

Which AWS operational change most directly resolves the stated problem?

  1. Use Amazon Macie sensitive-data discovery jobs with appropriate scope and permissions and investigate findings.
  2. Aggregate and normalize findings through AWS Security Hub with delegated administration and clear response ownership.
  3. Use a severity- and evidence-aware EventBridge response flow that enriches findings and requires approval for high-impact credential or role changes.
  4. Associate AWS WAF web ACL rules with the supported application entry point and monitor rule actions and false positives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Aggregate and normalize findings through AWS Security Hub with delegated administration and clear response ownership. Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility. The relevant operational proof is specific: The designated security account sees expected member-account findings with severity, resource identifiers and assigned disposition.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use Amazon Macie sensitive-data discovery jobs with appropriate scope and permissions and investigate findings. That would address macie sensitive data discovery, because macie analyzes selected S3 data to detect classes of sensitive content and highlights unexpected storage locations. However, the stated situation instead concerns security hub aggregated posture. Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility.

C:

Use a severity- and evidence-aware EventBridge response flow that enriches findings and requires approval for high-impact credential or role changes. That would address guardduty response automation, because threat findings guide automated containment, but unsafe destructive actions should distinguish true incidents from legitimate operational anomalies. However, the stated situation instead concerns security hub aggregated posture. Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility.

D:

Associate AWS WAF web ACL rules with the supported application entry point and monitor rule actions and false positives. That would address waf managed web rules, because wAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules. However, the stated situation instead concerns security hub aggregated posture. Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility.

Question 280

A company can tolerate several hours of recovery and wants lower idle costs than maintaining a fully operating second environment.

Which proposed implementation is best supported by the scenario?

  1. Enable suitable S3 versioning and tightly controlled deletion and recovery procedures on critical configuration objects.
  2. Use RDS automated backups and point-in-time recovery to create a new instance from an eligible timestamp, then plan controlled cutover.
  3. Translate the business RTO and RPO into tested recovery orchestration and sufficiently frequent replication or backup objectives.
  4. Keep critical state and minimal core services replicated in a pilot-light Region and automate scale-out during a disaster.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Keep critical state and minimal core services replicated in a pilot-light Region and automate scale-out during a disaster. Pilot light reduces steady-state spend by leaving much of the application tier dormant, accepting a longer startup recovery time. The relevant operational proof is specific: A DR exercise provisions remaining capacity and restores the service within the declared longer RTO.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Enable suitable S3 versioning and tightly controlled deletion and recovery procedures on critical configuration objects. That would address s3 versioned recovery, because object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls. However, the stated situation instead concerns pilot light tradeoff. Pilot light reduces steady-state spend by leaving much of the application tier dormant, accepting a longer startup recovery time.

B:

Use RDS automated backups and point-in-time recovery to create a new instance from an eligible timestamp, then plan controlled cutover. That would address rds point in time recovery, because pITR uses managed backups and transaction logs to recover to a chosen time in the retention window rather than only to fixed snapshot times. However, the stated situation instead concerns pilot light tradeoff. Pilot light reduces steady-state spend by leaving much of the application tier dormant, accepting a longer startup recovery time.

C:

Translate the business RTO and RPO into tested recovery orchestration and sufficiently frequent replication or backup objectives. That would address rto and rpo translation, because rTO constrains elapsed service-restoration time and RPO constrains recoverable data age; one nightly backup alone cannot meet a short RPO. However, the stated situation instead concerns pilot light tradeoff. Pilot light reduces steady-state spend by leaving much of the application tier dormant, accepting a longer startup recovery time.

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