Pass Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam in First Attempt Easily
Real Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Verified by experts
2 products

You save $34.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle

  • Premium File 480 Questions & Answers
  • Last Update: Nov 4, 2026
  • Training Course 242 Lectures
$74.99 $109.98

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    480 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    242 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 39

Question 380

A daily Lambda remediation reruns after transient failures and repeatedly creates duplicate security-group rules and notification records.

Which adverse outcome is the recommended change intended to prevent?

  1. Automatic destructive remediation without a high-risk gate can disconnect live workloads during a false-positive alert.
  2. Manual inventory misses changed hosts and broad interactive access increases operational and security risk.
  3. Laptop-hosted cron jobs silently stop running when their owner disconnects or changes machines.
  4. Non-idempotent retries can accumulate duplicate resources, trigger rate limits or corrupt operational state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Non-idempotent retries can accumulate duplicate resources, trigger rate limits or corrupt operational state. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Event-driven systems can deliver retries and duplicate triggers, so actions must tolerate repeated execution without multiplying effects. The corresponding mitigation is: Make operational automation idempotent with resource-state checks, unique operation keys and safe retry behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Automatic destructive remediation without a high-risk gate can disconnect live workloads during a false-positive alert. That is a credible concern for ssm automation approval steps, normally addressed by: Use a Systems Manager Automation runbook with branching, prechecks and an explicit approval step for high-impact operations. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Non-idempotent retries can accumulate duplicate resources, trigger rate limits or corrupt operational state.

B:

Manual inventory misses changed hosts and broad interactive access increases operational and security risk. That is a credible concern for inventory without ssh, normally addressed by: Collect Systems Manager Inventory through SSM-managed nodes and aggregate the reported package and application metadata. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Non-idempotent retries can accumulate duplicate resources, trigger rate limits or corrupt operational state.

C:

Laptop-hosted cron jobs silently stop running when their owner disconnects or changes machines. That is a credible concern for eventbridge scheduling, normally addressed by: Use EventBridge Scheduler with an authorized target role and time-zone-aware schedule for the required shutdown automation. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Non-idempotent retries can accumulate duplicate resources, trigger rate limits or corrupt operational state.

Question 381

Security Hub sends duplicate findings through EventBridge and incident automation opens dozens of tickets for one vulnerable resource.

What observed outcome would establish that this remediation worked?

  1. A seeded high-severity violation creates an owned corrective action promptly and closure links to verified compliant resource state.
  2. Repeated finding updates produce one evolving ticket with accurate status and audit history.
  3. A validated threat simulation produces a relevant finding and the response record retains evidence of the implicated resource.
  4. A deliberately vulnerable test host creates an expected finding and the finding changes after supported remediation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Repeated finding updates produce one evolving ticket with accurate status and audit history. It directly verifies the change: Correlate findings by stable finding IDs and resource identifiers and update existing incident records rather than always opening new ones. The test matters because security integrations can reissue updates to the same finding; response tooling must distinguish state changes from new issues.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A seeded high-severity violation creates an owned corrective action promptly and closure links to verified compliant resource state. That result would help prove continuous security posture reviews, where the relevant action is: Automate finding aggregation, risk-based alerting and tracked corrective ownership with Security Hub and AWS Config where appropriate. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For security finding deduplication, the decisive verification is: Repeated finding updates produce one evolving ticket with accurate status and audit history.

C:

A validated threat simulation produces a relevant finding and the response record retains evidence of the implicated resource. That result would help prove guardduty compromise indicators, where the relevant action is: Review GuardDuty threat-detection findings and the supporting flow or DNS telemetry before selecting containment actions. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For security finding deduplication, the decisive verification is: Repeated finding updates produce one evolving ticket with accurate status and audit history.

D:

A deliberately vulnerable test host creates an expected finding and the finding changes after supported remediation. That result would help prove inspector ec2 vulnerabilities, where the relevant action is: Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For security finding deduplication, the decisive verification is: Repeated finding updates produce one evolving ticket with accurate status and audit history.

Question 382

A pipeline accidentally overwrites a critical S3 configuration object and the operations team needs to restore the previous valid content quickly.

Why would the preferred design resolve the described failure?

  1. Object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls.
  2. Automated routing reduces operator error when the primary endpoint fails, but detection time and DNS cache behavior affect actual RTO.
  3. Pilot light reduces steady-state spend by leaving much of the application tier dormant, accepting a longer startup recovery time.
  4. Regional backup copies provide an independent recovery dataset when the original Region and its storage are unavailable.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls. This explains the implementation decision: Enable suitable S3 versioning and tightly controlled deletion and recovery procedures on critical configuration objects. Verification should show the following: A simulated overwrite is reversed by selecting the known-good object version without restoring an entire bucket.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Automated routing reduces operator error when the primary endpoint fails, but detection time and DNS cache behavior affect actual RTO. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of route 53 dr automation, for which the relevant intervention is: Define health-aware Route 53 routing and failover runbooks or controlled automation with realistic resolver caching expectations. The scenario requires understanding s3 versioned recovery, where object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls.

C:

Pilot light reduces steady-state spend by leaving much of the application tier dormant, accepting a longer startup recovery time. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of pilot light tradeoff, for which the relevant intervention is: Keep critical state and minimal core services replicated in a pilot-light Region and automate scale-out during a disaster. The scenario requires understanding s3 versioned recovery, where object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls.

D:

Regional backup copies provide an independent recovery dataset when the original Region and its storage are unavailable. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cross region backup vault, for which the relevant intervention is: Create AWS Backup plans with cross-Region copies to a protected destination vault and test restore from that Region. The scenario requires understanding s3 versioned recovery, where object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls.

Question 383

An Auto Scaling fleet launches new instances but only the original machines send logs and custom metrics to CloudWatch.

Which failure mode should the DevOps engineer prioritize?

  1. Unmonitored replacement instances hide outages after scale-out and make dashboards appear healthy while coverage disappears.
  2. Unrouted AWS service notifications leave dependent teams unaware of scheduled disruptions and remediation requirements.
  3. Daily manual ingestion delays suspicious-activity detection and duplicate delivery may corrupt the search inventory.
  4. Unbounded remediation can change legitimate exception rules or repeatedly act on a misclassified resource.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Unmonitored replacement instances hide outages after scale-out and make dashboards appear healthy while coverage disappears. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Autoscaled fleet observability depends on the launch path supplying telemetry, not just hand-configuring an existing host. The corresponding mitigation is: Install and configure required monitoring agents through the image or managed bootstrap and validate reporting on every new instance.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Unrouted AWS service notifications leave dependent teams unaware of scheduled disruptions and remediation requirements. That is a credible concern for health event operations, normally addressed by: Send relevant AWS Health events through EventBridge to owner-specific notification and operations workflows. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Unmonitored replacement instances hide outages after scale-out and make dashboards appear healthy while coverage disappears.

C:

Daily manual ingestion delays suspicious-activity detection and duplicate delivery may corrupt the search inventory. That is a credible concern for s3 log processing event, normally addressed by: Configure eligible S3 object-created events to trigger Lambda or an event processing workflow with deduplication and failure handling. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Unmonitored replacement instances hide outages after scale-out and make dashboards appear healthy while coverage disappears.

D:

Unbounded remediation can change legitimate exception rules or repeatedly act on a misclassified resource. That is a credible concern for config rule auto remediation, normally addressed by: Use a Config rule with scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation for the specific unauthorized ingress condition. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Unmonitored replacement instances hide outages after scale-out and make dashboards appear healthy while coverage disappears.

Question 384

A pipeline fails in CodeBuild with AccessDenied when uploading its output to an encrypted artifact bucket despite successful compilation.

Which consequence is most specific to the observed weakness?

  1. Re-running builds without addressing encryption authorization can leave every release blocked or encourage unsafe blanket grants.
  2. Blindly adding worker nodes increases cost but does not resolve invalid image tags or inaccessible registries.
  3. Repeatedly deploying the same artifact without fixing the hook leaves the fleet partially updated and unavailable.
  4. Treating this as an application-code bug can delay recovery while the service lacks enough healthy tasks.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Re-running builds without addressing encryption authorization can leave every release blocked or encourage unsafe blanket grants. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation. The corresponding mitigation is: Inspect build service-role S3 and KMS permissions alongside the bucket and key policies, then correct only the missing access.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Blindly adding worker nodes increases cost but does not resolve invalid image tags or inaccessible registries. That is a credible concern for eks image pull errors, normally addressed by: Inspect pod events, image reference, registry access and pull credentials before changing cluster scaling. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Re-running builds without addressing encryption authorization can leave every release blocked or encourage unsafe blanket grants.

C:

Repeatedly deploying the same artifact without fixing the hook leaves the fleet partially updated and unavailable. That is a credible concern for codedeploy hooks failure, normally addressed by: Inspect CodeDeploy lifecycle event logs, deployment agent output and application start command permissions before retrying. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Re-running builds without addressing encryption authorization can leave every release blocked or encourage unsafe blanket grants.

D:

Treating this as an application-code bug can delay recovery while the service lacks enough healthy tasks. That is a credible concern for ecs task startup failure, normally addressed by: Inspect stopped-task reasons, ECR connectivity and the ECS task execution role's image-pull permissions. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Re-running builds without addressing encryption authorization can leave every release blocked or encourage unsafe blanket grants.

Question 385

An ecommerce workload handled baseline requests in staging but regularly saturates at the expected seasonal concurrency.

Which action best meets the technical requirement?

  1. Execute a post-deployment smoke test against the green endpoint and gate traffic cutover on the result.
  2. Run representative load and stress tests at pipeline readiness gates and compare latency and error rates with service SLOs.
  3. Run automated integration tests against a representative deployed test environment before permitting production promotion.
  4. Provision isolated, access-controlled synthetic or sanitized test data and use environment-specific credentials for integration tests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Run representative load and stress tests at pipeline readiness gates and compare latency and error rates with service SLOs. Performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe. The relevant operational proof is specific: Measured p95 latency, error rate and scaling response remain within agreed limits at expected and elevated load.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Execute a post-deployment smoke test against the green endpoint and gate traffic cutover on the result. That would address acceptance smoke validation, because smoke testing checks the running target version and essential business operation rather than relying only on successful infrastructure provisioning. However, the stated situation instead concerns load test before peak. Performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe.

C:

Run automated integration tests against a representative deployed test environment before permitting production promotion. That would address end-to-end integration gate, because integration validation verifies actual service contracts and IAM connectivity that isolated unit tests cannot establish. However, the stated situation instead concerns load test before peak. Performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe.

D:

Provision isolated, access-controlled synthetic or sanitized test data and use environment-specific credentials for integration tests. That would address test data isolation, because test data isolation protects customer information and prevents test mutations from changing production state while still exercising application behavior. However, the stated situation instead concerns load test before peak. Performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe.

Question 386

Automated operational findings create thousands of unlinked alerts and responders cannot tell which resources share the same recurring issue.

Why is the recommended approach appropriate to this scenario?

  1. OpsCenter centralizes operational issue context and enables responders to associate related signals with accountable actions.
  2. SSM Inventory enables programmatic fleet-level software visibility without distributing administrator SSH credentials.
  3. Automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence.
  4. AppConfig separates dynamic application configuration rollout from binary deployments and supports validators and controlled exposure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

OpsCenter centralizes operational issue context and enables responders to associate related signals with accountable actions. This explains the implementation decision: Route relevant findings into Systems Manager OpsCenter OpsItems with correlation, ownership and remediation runbook links. Verification should show the following: The repeated alarms are grouped with affected resource details and responders launch a suitable documented remediation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

SSM Inventory enables programmatic fleet-level software visibility without distributing administrator SSH credentials. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of inventory without ssh, for which the relevant intervention is: Collect Systems Manager Inventory through SSM-managed nodes and aggregate the reported package and application metadata. The scenario requires understanding ssm opscenter triage, where opsCenter centralizes operational issue context and enables responders to associate related signals with accountable actions.

C:

Automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of ssm automation approval steps, for which the relevant intervention is: Use a Systems Manager Automation runbook with branching, prechecks and an explicit approval step for high-impact operations. The scenario requires understanding ssm opscenter triage, where opsCenter centralizes operational issue context and enables responders to associate related signals with accountable actions.

D:

AppConfig separates dynamic application configuration rollout from binary deployments and supports validators and controlled exposure. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of appconfig progressive rollout, for which the relevant intervention is: Deploy validated configuration through AWS AppConfig with a gradual deployment strategy and CloudWatch alarm rollback. The scenario requires understanding ssm opscenter triage, where opsCenter centralizes operational issue context and enables responders to associate related signals with accountable actions.

Question 387

An internet-facing ALB-backed API sees repetitive malicious HTTP payloads despite correct security-group network port restrictions.

Which explanation best describes the technical mechanism at issue?

  1. VPC isolation does not provide encryption or endpoint authentication for application traffic; TLS addresses transport exposure.
  2. WAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules.
  3. Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility.
  4. Block Public Access controls override many accidental public policy or ACL settings, reducing exposure of private object stores.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

WAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules. This explains the implementation decision: Associate AWS WAF web ACL rules with the supported application entry point and monitor rule actions and false positives. Verification should show the following: Known malicious request patterns are blocked at the web ACL and valid business requests continue under acceptable false-positive rates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

VPC isolation does not provide encryption or endpoint authentication for application traffic; TLS addresses transport exposure. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of data transport encryption, for which the relevant intervention is: Require TLS for sensitive service connections with validated server identity and protected certificate/key management. The scenario requires understanding waf managed web rules, where wAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules.

C:

Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of security hub aggregated posture, for which the relevant intervention is: Aggregate and normalize findings through AWS Security Hub with delegated administration and clear response ownership. The scenario requires understanding waf managed web rules, where wAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules.

D:

Block Public Access controls override many accidental public policy or ACL settings, reducing exposure of private object stores. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of s3 public access guardrail, for which the relevant intervention is: Enable appropriate S3 Block Public Access settings at account or bucket scope and provide a separate approved public-content pattern. The scenario requires understanding waf managed web rules, where wAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules.

Question 388

An ALB serves a web application deployed to EC2 instances only in one Availability Zone despite unused subnet capacity in a second AZ.

Which measured test outcome demonstrates the necessary behavior?

  1. A controlled primary failure causes qualifying new DNS resolutions to use the healthy secondary Region within a measured recovery window.
  2. The application serves requests through a simulated AZ failure while a minimum healthy instance capacity remains.
  3. A failover exercise promotes a secondary Region and client connection logic reaches the new writer within the defined RTO.
  4. A regional loss leaves the other table accepting intended writes and tests confirm application tolerance of replication convergence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The application serves requests through a simulated AZ failure while a minimum healthy instance capacity remains. It directly verifies the change: Distribute Auto Scaling instances across multiple Availability Zones and register healthy targets with the ALB. The test matters because multi-AZ compute placement removes a single AZ as a shared failure point and load balancing routes around unhealthy targets.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A controlled primary failure causes qualifying new DNS resolutions to use the healthy secondary Region within a measured recovery window. That result would help prove route 53 regional failover, where the relevant action is: Configure health-check-aware Route 53 failover records and validate the actual application readiness signal and TTL effects. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For stateless application across zones, the decisive verification is: The application serves requests through a simulated AZ failure while a minimum healthy instance capacity remains.

C:

A failover exercise promotes a secondary Region and client connection logic reaches the new writer within the defined RTO. That result would help prove aurora regional disaster availability, where the relevant action is: Design a separate regional recovery capability such as Aurora Global Database with tested secondary promotion and application reconnection. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For stateless application across zones, the decisive verification is: The application serves requests through a simulated AZ failure while a minimum healthy instance capacity remains.

D:

A regional loss leaves the other table accepting intended writes and tests confirm application tolerance of replication convergence. That result would help prove dynamodb global tables, where the relevant action is: Use DynamoDB global tables where suitable and design conflict handling and application routing for replicated multi-Region writes. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For stateless application across zones, the decisive verification is: The application serves requests through a simulated AZ failure while a minimum healthy instance capacity remains.

Question 389

An Auto Scaling fleet launches new instances but only the original machines send logs and custom metrics to CloudWatch.

Which underlying service behavior is most important here?

  1. Autoscaled fleet observability depends on the launch path supplying telemetry, not just hand-configuring an existing host.
  2. Object event notifications support near-real-time ingestion of new log files, but processing must tolerate retries and duplicate events.
  3. AWS Health reports account-relevant service events; EventBridge enables filtered operational responses instead of relying on manual console review.
  4. Config detects resource compliance and supported remediation integrates a controlled automation runbook to restore an approved state.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Autoscaled fleet observability depends on the launch path supplying telemetry, not just hand-configuring an existing host. This explains the implementation decision: Install and configure required monitoring agents through the image or managed bootstrap and validate reporting on every new instance. Verification should show the following: A new scale-out instance appears in expected metric dimensions and log groups without manual administrator access.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Object event notifications support near-real-time ingestion of new log files, but processing must tolerate retries and duplicate events. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of s3 log processing event, for which the relevant intervention is: Configure eligible S3 object-created events to trigger Lambda or an event processing workflow with deduplication and failure handling. The scenario requires understanding monitoring fleet agents, where autoscaled fleet observability depends on the launch path supplying telemetry, not just hand-configuring an existing host.

C:

AWS Health reports account-relevant service events; EventBridge enables filtered operational responses instead of relying on manual console review. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of health event operations, for which the relevant intervention is: Send relevant AWS Health events through EventBridge to owner-specific notification and operations workflows. The scenario requires understanding monitoring fleet agents, where autoscaled fleet observability depends on the launch path supplying telemetry, not just hand-configuring an existing host.

D:

Config detects resource compliance and supported remediation integrates a controlled automation runbook to restore an approved state. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of config rule auto remediation, for which the relevant intervention is: Use a Config rule with scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation for the specific unauthorized ingress condition. The scenario requires understanding monitoring fleet agents, where autoscaled fleet observability depends on the launch path supplying telemetry, not just hand-configuring an existing host.

Question 390

An AppConfig release increases a payment timeout and application error rates rise soon after the configuration rollout.

What risk best explains the need for a different approach?

  1. Manual daily scaling allows important queued work to exceed its processing deadline during sudden load changes.
  2. Allowing unhealthy deployment stages to complete can amplify a canary regression to the full user population.
  3. A lack of automatic correction allows easily reintroduced network exposure to persist between security reviews.
  4. Manual global configuration edits make it difficult to identify or reverse the exact setting that caused an outage.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Manual global configuration edits make it difficult to identify or reverse the exact setting that caused an outage. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: AppConfig controlled deployment strategies can monitor alarms and roll back configuration versions when customer health degrades. The corresponding mitigation is: Associate the rollout with meaningful CloudWatch health alarms and automatic configuration rollback rather than restarting every service manually.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Manual daily scaling allows important queued work to exceed its processing deadline during sudden load changes. That is a credible concern for auto scale on sqs backlog, normally addressed by: Use suitable CloudWatch backlog metrics to drive an Auto Scaling policy for the processing fleet with bounded capacity. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual global configuration edits make it difficult to identify or reverse the exact setting that caused an outage.

B:

Allowing unhealthy deployment stages to complete can amplify a canary regression to the full user population. That is a credible concern for failed deployment reversion, normally addressed by: Enable deployment alarms and automatic rollback to the last successful revision after a measurable failure threshold. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual global configuration edits make it difficult to identify or reverse the exact setting that caused an outage.

C:

A lack of automatic correction allows easily reintroduced network exposure to persist between security reviews. That is a credible concern for config rule network remediation, normally addressed by: Attach a narrowly scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation to the relevant Config rule with controlled exception handling. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual global configuration edits make it difficult to identify or reverse the exact setting that caused an outage.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    480 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    242 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF
This is ONE TIME OFFER

You save
10%

Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

You save
10%

Use Discount Code:

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.

Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examlabs.com and follow the directions.

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your email address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

  • Realistic exam simulation and exam editor with preview functions
  • Whole exam in a single file with several different question types
  • Customizable exam-taking mode & detailed score reports