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AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 45

Question 440

Developers submit IaC with unencrypted storage and unrestricted security-group rules, which reviewers discover only after account provisioning.

What is the best automation decision for this workload?

  1. Provide versioned reusable CloudFormation modules or CDK constructs with validated network and security defaults.
  2. Synthesize the CDK app and scan the resulting CloudFormation template and asset manifests before deployment.
  3. Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets.
  4. Require infrastructure modifications through version-controlled approved IaC pipelines and reconcile emergency changes into source promptly.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets. Predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts. The relevant operational proof is specific: An insecure template fails the pipeline with the offending property and a compliant revision passes the same rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Provide versioned reusable CloudFormation modules or CDK constructs with validated network and security defaults. That would address reusable network modules, because reusable IaC components encode organizational patterns once and allow controlled adoption without copying divergent templates. However, the stated situation instead concerns template lint and policy checks. Predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts.

B:

Synthesize the CDK app and scan the resulting CloudFormation template and asset manifests before deployment. That would address cdk synthesis review, because cDK is an authoring abstraction that produces deployable CloudFormation templates; security review must consider the synthesized resources. However, the stated situation instead concerns template lint and policy checks. Predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts.

D:

Require infrastructure modifications through version-controlled approved IaC pipelines and reconcile emergency changes into source promptly. That would address iac environment promotion, because declarative source control provides a reviewable desired state; production console drift undermines repeatability and auditability. However, the stated situation instead concerns template lint and policy checks. Predeployment policy evaluation prevents disallowed infrastructure properties from becoming runtime resources in member accounts.

Question 441

A service transfers internal credentials between a Lambda client and a self-managed backend over plaintext HTTP inside a private VPC.

Which measured test outcome demonstrates the necessary behavior?

  1. Known malicious request patterns are blocked at the web ACL and valid business requests continue under acceptable false-positive rates.
  2. A packet capture shows encrypted application payloads and invalid server certificates are rejected by the client.
  3. A renewal exercise or certificate-status check confirms the ALB presents a valid trusted certificate before expiry.
  4. A controlled disallowed egress connection is blocked and logged while approved flows traverse the firewall path.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A packet capture shows encrypted application payloads and invalid server certificates are rejected by the client. It directly verifies the change: Require TLS for sensitive service connections with validated server identity and protected certificate/key management. The test matters because vPC isolation does not provide encryption or endpoint authentication for application traffic; TLS addresses transport exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Known malicious request patterns are blocked at the web ACL and valid business requests continue under acceptable false-positive rates. That result would help prove waf managed web rules, where the relevant action is: Associate AWS WAF web ACL rules with the supported application entry point and monitor rule actions and false positives. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For data transport encryption, the decisive verification is: A packet capture shows encrypted application payloads and invalid server certificates are rejected by the client.

C:

A renewal exercise or certificate-status check confirms the ALB presents a valid trusted certificate before expiry. That result would help prove acm certificate lifecycle, where the relevant action is: Use an eligible AWS Certificate Manager managed certificate and validate DNS ownership and listener association. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For data transport encryption, the decisive verification is: A packet capture shows encrypted application payloads and invalid server certificates are rejected by the client.

D:

A controlled disallowed egress connection is blocked and logged while approved flows traverse the firewall path. That result would help prove network firewall inspection, where the relevant action is: Deploy AWS Network Firewall with appropriate subnet placement, routing, stateless/stateful rules and logging for the inspected path. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For data transport encryption, the decisive verification is: A packet capture shows encrypted application payloads and invalid server certificates are rejected by the client.

Question 442

An EC2 API fleet has predictable CPU-bound work but fixed capacity causes long requests during peak hours and waste at night.

What is the most appropriate next step for this team?

  1. Select appropriate on-demand capacity or autoscaled provisioned throughput and monitor throttling and cost boundaries.
  2. Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity.
  3. Set an Auto Scaling target-tracking policy on an appropriate utilization metric and maintain sensible minimum and maximum capacity.
  4. Configure an ECS capacity provider strategy with managed scaling for the underlying cluster where appropriate.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Set an Auto Scaling target-tracking policy on an appropriate utilization metric and maintain sensible minimum and maximum capacity. Target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries. The relevant operational proof is specific: A repeatable load test increases and decreases in-service instances while latency and instance health remain acceptable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Select appropriate on-demand capacity or autoscaled provisioned throughput and monitor throttling and cost boundaries. That would address dynamodb on demand capacity, because on-demand capacity adapts to varying request traffic without fixed provisioned settings while still requiring good partition-key design. However, the stated situation instead concerns target tracking cpu scaling. Target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries.

B:

Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity. That would address lambda concurrency protection, because concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems. However, the stated situation instead concerns target tracking cpu scaling. Target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries.

D:

Configure an ECS capacity provider strategy with managed scaling for the underlying cluster where appropriate. That would address ecs capacity providers, because an ECS capacity provider links task placement demand to the EC2 capacity required to run those tasks. However, the stated situation instead concerns target tracking cpu scaling. Target tracking adjusts capacity to keep a scalable workload metric near the desired threshold while respecting capacity boundaries.

Question 443

A busy Lambda application emits unstructured multiline logs that cannot be correlated reliably to requests after scaling.

What could most credibly go wrong under these conditions?

  1. Hourly polling delays incident visibility and may miss short-lived attack indicators during critical windows.
  2. Shared long-lived keys spread broad account access and create a difficult-to-audit monitoring dependency.
  3. Locally owned unprotected log buckets allow the same operator who changed a resource to alter or erase audit evidence.
  4. Unstructured logs and missing context make an intermittent distributed failure nearly impossible to reconstruct.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Unstructured logs and missing context make an intermittent distributed failure nearly impossible to reconstruct. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Structured records and correlation IDs improve distributed event reconstruction and allow effective field-based queries. The corresponding mitigation is: Emit consistent structured log records with request identifiers, relevant severity and bounded sensitive fields into CloudWatch Logs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hourly polling delays incident visibility and may miss short-lived attack indicators during critical windows. That is a credible concern for kinesis subscription processing, normally addressed by: Configure CloudWatch Logs subscription filters to a supported streaming destination with suitable IAM and backpressure handling. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Unstructured logs and missing context make an intermittent distributed failure nearly impossible to reconstruct.

B:

Shared long-lived keys spread broad account access and create a difficult-to-audit monitoring dependency. That is a credible concern for cross account observability, normally addressed by: Use CloudWatch cross-account observability with a central monitoring account and approved source-account links where applicable. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Unstructured logs and missing context make an intermittent distributed failure nearly impossible to reconstruct.

C:

Locally owned unprotected log buckets allow the same operator who changed a resource to alter or erase audit evidence. That is a credible concern for central encrypted log archive, normally addressed by: Aggregate required audit logs into an access-restricted central S3 archive with suitable SSE-KMS encryption and lifecycle controls. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Unstructured logs and missing context make an intermittent distributed failure nearly impossible to reconstruct.

Question 444

New EKS pods remain Pending or ImagePullBackOff after a chart update despite available worker-node CPU.

Which underlying service behavior is most important here?

  1. CloudFormation stack events expose failing resource operations; recovery must restore a valid stack lifecycle before further updates.
  2. SQS may redeliver messages after visibility timeout, so poison payloads must be handled separately from healthy work.
  3. Image pull failures occur before application readiness and are often unrelated to available compute capacity.
  4. A failed lifecycle hook is a specific deployment step failure; artifact transfer success does not establish successful process startup.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Image pull failures occur before application readiness and are often unrelated to available compute capacity. This explains the implementation decision: Inspect pod events, image reference, registry access and pull credentials before changing cluster scaling. Verification should show the following: After repairing the image or registry permissions, the pods pull successfully and pass readiness checks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CloudFormation stack events expose failing resource operations; recovery must restore a valid stack lifecycle before further updates. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cloudformation update rollback, for which the relevant intervention is: Inspect stack events and resource dependencies, repair the root cause, then use supported rollback continuation before a new change set. The scenario requires understanding eks image pull errors, where image pull failures occur before application readiness and are often unrelated to available compute capacity.

B:

SQS may redeliver messages after visibility timeout, so poison payloads must be handled separately from healthy work. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of sqs poison message triage, for which the relevant intervention is: Inspect message processing errors and visibility timeout behavior, then isolate repeated failures in a DLQ for analysis. The scenario requires understanding eks image pull errors, where image pull failures occur before application readiness and are often unrelated to available compute capacity.

D:

A failed lifecycle hook is a specific deployment step failure; artifact transfer success does not establish successful process startup. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of codedeploy hooks failure, for which the relevant intervention is: Inspect CodeDeploy lifecycle event logs, deployment agent output and application start command permissions before retrying. The scenario requires understanding eks image pull errors, where image pull failures occur before application readiness and are often unrelated to available compute capacity.

Question 445

A release pipeline orchestrates actions in two AWS Regions but the second Region cannot access the expected artifact store.

What could most credibly go wrong under these conditions?

  1. Incorrect branch filters can deploy unreviewed development code or bypass quality gates in production.
  2. A missing regional artifact store or key permission stops deployment after approval, leaving Regions on inconsistent releases.
  3. Removing the approval boundary allows a developer to introduce unapproved high-impact changes to a regulated payment service.
  4. A monolithic deployment pipeline turns one small defect into unnecessary organization-wide service disruption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A missing regional artifact store or key permission stops deployment after approval, leaving Regions on inconsistent releases. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: CodePipeline cross-Region actions require regional artifact stores because pipeline outputs must be transferred to resources near the action. The corresponding mitigation is: Configure a separate encrypted pipeline artifact bucket in each action Region and grant the required cross-Region access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Incorrect branch filters can deploy unreviewed development code or bypass quality gates in production. That is a credible concern for branch-aware ci triggers, normally addressed by: Filter pipeline source events to the approved integration branch and require test-stage success before production deployment. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A missing regional artifact store or key permission stops deployment after approval, leaving Regions on inconsistent releases.

C:

Removing the approval boundary allows a developer to introduce unapproved high-impact changes to a regulated payment service. That is a credible concern for release approval segregation, normally addressed by: Insert a manual approval stage in the production promotion path, with reviewers separate from the code authors. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A missing regional artifact store or key permission stops deployment after approval, leaving Regions on inconsistent releases.

D:

A monolithic deployment pipeline turns one small defect into unnecessary organization-wide service disruption. That is a credible concern for release pipeline fault isolation, normally addressed by: Split independently deployable services into appropriately isolated pipelines with explicit dependency checks at integration boundaries. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: A missing regional artifact store or key permission stops deployment after approval, leaving Regions on inconsistent releases.

Question 446

Many application teams independently define network subnets and security groups, causing inconsistent baseline controls across environments.

What observed outcome would establish that this remediation worked?

  1. The template contains no actual password and the stack resolves the secret only under authorized deployment credentials.
  2. An insecure template fails the pipeline with the offending property and a compliant revision passes the same rules.
  3. A rehearsal update retains the protected object storage resource when the template resource is removed or replaced.
  4. Separate projects provision consistent subnet and ingress patterns from an approved module version and can track updates.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Separate projects provision consistent subnet and ingress patterns from an approved module version and can track updates. It directly verifies the change: Provide versioned reusable CloudFormation modules or CDK constructs with validated network and security defaults. The test matters because reusable IaC components encode organizational patterns once and allow controlled adoption without copying divergent templates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The template contains no actual password and the stack resolves the secret only under authorized deployment credentials. That result would help prove stack parameters and secrets, where the relevant action is: Use Secrets Manager or supported dynamic references with tightly controlled permissions instead of hardcoded secret defaults. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For reusable network modules, the decisive verification is: Separate projects provision consistent subnet and ingress patterns from an approved module version and can track updates.

B:

An insecure template fails the pipeline with the offending property and a compliant revision passes the same rules. That result would help prove template lint and policy checks, where the relevant action is: Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For reusable network modules, the decisive verification is: Separate projects provision consistent subnet and ingress patterns from an approved module version and can track updates.

C:

A rehearsal update retains the protected object storage resource when the template resource is removed or replaced. That result would help prove cloudformation deletion protections, where the relevant action is: Set appropriate DeletionPolicy or UpdateReplacePolicy attributes on critical stateful resources and validate replacement behavior. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For reusable network modules, the decisive verification is: Separate projects provision consistent subnet and ingress patterns from an approved module version and can track updates.

Question 447

An organization cannot identify which KMS keys or S3 buckets grant access to principals outside its intended account or organization boundary.

Which operational observation best confirms the intended design?

  1. An approved test connection creates the expected flow metadata for the source interface and time window.
  2. A seeded overly broad bucket policy produces an analyzer finding and a corrected policy clears the issue.
  3. Repeated finding updates produce one evolving ticket with accurate status and audit history.
  4. A prohibited encryption change generates a Config noncompliant evaluation and triggers owner remediation evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A seeded overly broad bucket policy produces an analyzer finding and a corrected policy clears the issue. It directly verifies the change: Enable IAM Access Analyzer for a suitable zone of trust and review supported external-access findings regularly. The test matters because access Analyzer applies policy analysis to detect external principals reachable through resource-based policies beyond the defined trust boundary.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An approved test connection creates the expected flow metadata for the source interface and time window. That result would help prove vpc flow logs detection, where the relevant action is: Enable VPC Flow Logs on relevant VPCs or interfaces with protected destinations and an analysis approach. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For iam access analyzer external access, the decisive verification is: A seeded overly broad bucket policy produces an analyzer finding and a corrected policy clears the issue.

C:

Repeated finding updates produce one evolving ticket with accurate status and audit history. That result would help prove security finding deduplication, where the relevant action is: Correlate findings by stable finding IDs and resource identifiers and update existing incident records rather than always opening new ones. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For iam access analyzer external access, the decisive verification is: A seeded overly broad bucket policy produces an analyzer finding and a corrected policy clears the issue.

D:

A prohibited encryption change generates a Config noncompliant evaluation and triggers owner remediation evidence. That result would help prove config drift compliance, where the relevant action is: Use AWS Config resource recording and appropriate compliance rules, complementing CloudFormation drift detection for stack-managed resources. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For iam access analyzer external access, the decisive verification is: A seeded overly broad bucket policy produces an analyzer finding and a corrected policy clears the issue.

Question 448

An RDS-backed dashboard executes large read-only aggregations and increases write transaction latency on the primary database.

What is the best automation decision for this workload?

  1. Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity.
  2. Configure Horizontal Pod Autoscaler against suitable resource or custom metrics and ensure node capacity can support the desired replicas.
  3. Select appropriate on-demand capacity or autoscaled provisioned throughput and monitor throttling and cost boundaries.
  4. Introduce appropriately sized RDS read replicas and route eligible read queries to replica endpoints with lag-aware behavior.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Introduce appropriately sized RDS read replicas and route eligible read queries to replica endpoints with lag-aware behavior. Read replicas offload read traffic but use asynchronous replication, so applications must distinguish eventual consistency from primary reads. The relevant operational proof is specific: Read-heavy workload load tests show lower primary utilization and accepted replica-lag behavior for dashboards.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Set an appropriate maximum event-source concurrency or reserved concurrency and coordinate queue retries with database capacity. That would address lambda concurrency protection, because concurrency limits bound parallel downstream pressure, trading processing time for predictable protection of dependent systems. However, the stated situation instead concerns rds read replicas. Read replicas offload read traffic but use asynchronous replication, so applications must distinguish eventual consistency from primary reads.

B:

Configure Horizontal Pod Autoscaler against suitable resource or custom metrics and ensure node capacity can support the desired replicas. That would address eks horizontal pod autoscaling, because hPA increases workload replicas, while node autoscaling provides scheduling capacity; these control different levels of scaling. However, the stated situation instead concerns rds read replicas. Read replicas offload read traffic but use asynchronous replication, so applications must distinguish eventual consistency from primary reads.

C:

Select appropriate on-demand capacity or autoscaled provisioned throughput and monitor throttling and cost boundaries. That would address dynamodb on demand capacity, because on-demand capacity adapts to varying request traffic without fixed provisioned settings while still requiring good partition-key design. However, the stated situation instead concerns rds read replicas. Read replicas offload read traffic but use asynchronous replication, so applications must distinguish eventual consistency from primary reads.

Question 449

A central event bus receives many account events, but only production EC2 instance termination events should create an urgent incident ticket.

What observed outcome would establish that this remediation worked?

  1. The same fault raises component alarms but produces only the intended consolidated escalation.
  2. A noncompliant test rule is corrected automatically, while required business exceptions remain governed and auditable.
  3. A test or eligible failure invokes the recovery path and the instance returns to passing system status checks.
  4. An eligible production termination triggers one ticket and a nonmatching development event triggers none.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An eligible production termination triggers one ticket and a nonmatching development event triggers none. It directly verifies the change: Use an EventBridge rule with event-pattern filtering by source, event detail, account or tags and route matches to a controlled target. The test matters because eventBridge patterns select structured events before invoking targets, avoiding a broad notification for every API activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The same fault raises component alarms but produces only the intended consolidated escalation. That result would help prove composite alarm noise, where the relevant action is: Use CloudWatch composite alarms to combine related alarm states and page on actionable combined conditions. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For eventbridge event patterns, the decisive verification is: An eligible production termination triggers one ticket and a nonmatching development event triggers none.

B:

A noncompliant test rule is corrected automatically, while required business exceptions remain governed and auditable. That result would help prove config rule auto remediation, where the relevant action is: Use a Config rule with scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation for the specific unauthorized ingress condition. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For eventbridge event patterns, the decisive verification is: An eligible production termination triggers one ticket and a nonmatching development event triggers none.

C:

A test or eligible failure invokes the recovery path and the instance returns to passing system status checks. That result would help prove auto recovery ec2 status, where the relevant action is: Configure a CloudWatch system status-check alarm with supported EC2 recovery action after validating instance eligibility. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For eventbridge event patterns, the decisive verification is: An eligible production termination triggers one ticket and a nonmatching development event triggers none.

Question 450

An object-created event triggers a resource-cleanup Lambda twice and the second invocation deletes an asset created by the first.

Which consequence is most specific to the observed weakness?

  1. Manual event recreation can omit context while careless replay can execute disruptive remediation multiple times.
  2. Broad event-bus publish permissions permit untrusted accounts to inject misleading incident signals into central operations.
  3. Non-idempotent processing turns a harmless event retry into repeated destructive changes.
  4. Undelivered recovery events can disappear unnoticed, preventing required response during major outages.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Non-idempotent processing turns a harmless event retry into repeated destructive changes. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Event-driven integrations may deliver duplicate events or retry after uncertain completion; handlers cannot assume exactly-once invocation. The corresponding mitigation is: Make event handlers idempotent with event identifiers, conditional state transitions and safely repeatable operations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Manual event recreation can omit context while careless replay can execute disruptive remediation multiple times. That is a credible concern for eventbridge archive replay, normally addressed by: Use an EventBridge archive and replay strategy on the intended event bus with idempotent processing and scope controls. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Non-idempotent processing turns a harmless event retry into repeated destructive changes.

B:

Broad event-bus publish permissions permit untrusted accounts to inject misleading incident signals into central operations. That is a credible concern for cross account event routing, normally addressed by: Configure permitted cross-account EventBridge event-bus routing with resource policies and carefully scoped matching rules. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Non-idempotent processing turns a harmless event retry into repeated destructive changes.

D:

Undelivered recovery events can disappear unnoticed, preventing required response during major outages. That is a credible concern for event target failure dlq, normally addressed by: Configure EventBridge target retry behavior and a supported dead-letter queue with monitored failure metrics. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Non-idempotent processing turns a harmless event retry into repeated destructive changes.

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