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AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 60

Question 590

A compliance team must deploy the same AWS Config rule to every current and newly created account in a protected organizational unit.

What outcome would best demonstrate the danger of retaining the current design?

  1. Manual per-account provisioning leaves newly added workloads without mandatory baseline governance controls.
  2. Routine use of management-account credentials increases the impact of one compromised operations session.
  3. Manually created accounts can launch workloads before central audit logging and baseline restrictions are in place.
  4. An overly broad deny can break global services; no guardrail permits data and compute placement outside approved jurisdictions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Manual per-account provisioning leaves newly added workloads without mandatory baseline governance controls. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Service-managed StackSets propagate approved infrastructure stacks into member accounts and can enroll new accounts when OU membership changes. The corresponding mitigation is: Use service-managed CloudFormation StackSets with AWS Organizations targeting and automatic OU deployment where appropriate.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Routine use of management-account credentials increases the impact of one compromised operations session. That is a credible concern for delegated administration control, normally addressed by: Register supported delegated administrator accounts for applicable organization-level security services and minimize management-account use. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual per-account provisioning leaves newly added workloads without mandatory baseline governance controls.

C:

Manually created accounts can launch workloads before central audit logging and baseline restrictions are in place. That is a credible concern for control tower account factory, normally addressed by: Provision new workload accounts through AWS Control Tower Account Factory within approved organizational units and baseline guardrails. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual per-account provisioning leaves newly added workloads without mandatory baseline governance controls.

D:

An overly broad deny can break global services; no guardrail permits data and compute placement outside approved jurisdictions. That is a credible concern for guardrail region restriction, normally addressed by: Apply a carefully scoped AWS Organizations SCP region-deny guardrail with required global-service exceptions. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual per-account provisioning leaves newly added workloads without mandatory baseline governance controls.

Question 591

A CI role encrypts release artifacts using KMS, but a broad key policy allows unrelated service roles to decrypt them.

Why would the preferred design resolve the described failure?

  1. KMS authorization combines key policies, grants and IAM as applicable; encryption is not meaningful access control if every role may decrypt.
  2. Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility.
  3. Network Firewall inspects traffic routed through its endpoints; rules provide no protection for flows that bypass the firewall route.
  4. ACM can automate supported public certificate renewals when domain validation and service integration remain valid.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

KMS authorization combines key policies, grants and IAM as applicable; encryption is not meaningful access control if every role may decrypt. This explains the implementation decision: Grant KMS use only to authorized artifact and deployment roles with appropriate key policy and identity permissions. Verification should show the following: Only the approved pipeline role can decrypt test artifacts while denied roles cannot call the needed KMS operations.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Security Hub unifies supported security findings and standards checks, improving cross-account triage and control visibility. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of security hub aggregated posture, for which the relevant intervention is: Aggregate and normalize findings through AWS Security Hub with delegated administration and clear response ownership. The scenario requires understanding kms key least privilege, where kMS authorization combines key policies, grants and IAM as applicable; encryption is not meaningful access control if every role may decrypt.

C:

Network Firewall inspects traffic routed through its endpoints; rules provide no protection for flows that bypass the firewall route. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of network firewall inspection, for which the relevant intervention is: Deploy AWS Network Firewall with appropriate subnet placement, routing, stateless/stateful rules and logging for the inspected path. The scenario requires understanding kms key least privilege, where kMS authorization combines key policies, grants and IAM as applicable; encryption is not meaningful access control if every role may decrypt.

D:

ACM can automate supported public certificate renewals when domain validation and service integration remain valid. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of acm certificate lifecycle, for which the relevant intervention is: Use an eligible AWS Certificate Manager managed certificate and validate DNS ownership and listener association. The scenario requires understanding kms key least privilege, where kMS authorization combines key policies, grants and IAM as applicable; encryption is not meaningful access control if every role may decrypt.

Question 592

An Aurora cluster provides high availability within one Region, yet a business continuity requirement also includes a complete regional outage.

Which measured test outcome demonstrates the necessary behavior?

  1. A failed primary node is replaced through failover and active sessions recover within the expected service threshold.
  2. Read-only requests reach intended replica endpoints and the Multi-AZ failover test remains independent of reporting scale.
  3. A controlled primary failure causes qualifying new DNS resolutions to use the healthy secondary Region within a measured recovery window.
  4. A failover exercise promotes a secondary Region and client connection logic reaches the new writer within the defined RTO.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A failover exercise promotes a secondary Region and client connection logic reaches the new writer within the defined RTO. It directly verifies the change: Design a separate regional recovery capability such as Aurora Global Database with tested secondary promotion and application reconnection. The test matters because intra-Region cluster failover does not automatically protect against region-wide loss, whereas cross-Region replication supports a regional recovery path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A failed primary node is replaced through failover and active sessions recover within the expected service threshold. That result would help prove availability on shared cache, where the relevant action is: Use an appropriate replicated Multi-AZ ElastiCache deployment with automatic failover and confirm client recovery behavior. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For aurora regional disaster availability, the decisive verification is: A failover exercise promotes a secondary Region and client connection logic reaches the new writer within the defined RTO.

B:

Read-only requests reach intended replica endpoints and the Multi-AZ failover test remains independent of reporting scale. That result would help prove rds reader scaling distinction, where the relevant action is: Add read replicas or another suitable read-scaling path and direct read-only workloads to them, retaining Multi-AZ for failover. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For aurora regional disaster availability, the decisive verification is: A failover exercise promotes a secondary Region and client connection logic reaches the new writer within the defined RTO.

C:

A controlled primary failure causes qualifying new DNS resolutions to use the healthy secondary Region within a measured recovery window. That result would help prove route 53 regional failover, where the relevant action is: Configure health-check-aware Route 53 failover records and validate the actual application readiness signal and TTL effects. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For aurora regional disaster availability, the decisive verification is: A failover exercise promotes a secondary Region and client connection logic reaches the new writer within the defined RTO.

Question 593

The ALB reports rising target-side 5xx errors while aggregate EC2 CPU and network metrics appear normal.

Which explanation best describes the technical mechanism at issue?

  1. Target 5xx metrics distinguish backend response failures from load balancer-generated errors, providing a more direct application signal.
  2. CloudTrail records AWS API management activity and identity context, connecting resource configuration changes to actor sessions.
  3. Logs Insights supports interactive server-side queries that correlate large log sets without manual stream-by-stream exports.
  4. Object-level data events are separately configurable from management events and require intentional scope selection.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Target 5xx metrics distinguish backend response failures from load balancer-generated errors, providing a more direct application signal. This explains the implementation decision: Monitor ALB HTTPCode_Target_5XX_Count or rate with request volume context and correlate errors to target-group health. Verification should show the following: A synthetic backend fault raises target-error metrics and an alarm correlates with the failing target group's request path.

Incorrect Answers

B:

CloudTrail records AWS API management activity and identity context, connecting resource configuration changes to actor sessions. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cloudtrail management audit, for which the relevant intervention is: Search CloudTrail management events with time, account, event name and user identity, preserving an appropriate audit trail. The scenario requires understanding alb error signal, where target 5xx metrics distinguish backend response failures from load balancer-generated errors, providing a more direct application signal.

C:

Logs Insights supports interactive server-side queries that correlate large log sets without manual stream-by-stream exports. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cloudwatch logs insights, for which the relevant intervention is: Use CloudWatch Logs Insights queries to aggregate and filter relevant log fields across selected log groups and time ranges. The scenario requires understanding alb error signal, where target 5xx metrics distinguish backend response failures from load balancer-generated errors, providing a more direct application signal.

D:

Object-level data events are separately configurable from management events and require intentional scope selection. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cloudtrail data events, for which the relevant intervention is: Enable appropriately scoped CloudTrail S3 data event recording for the required buckets while managing cost and data sensitivity. The scenario requires understanding alb error signal, where target 5xx metrics distinguish backend response failures from load balancer-generated errors, providing a more direct application signal.

Question 594

An ECS service needs a safe release while existing tasks continue serving traffic during the new task-set validation period.

Which proposed implementation is best supported by the scenario?

  1. Create a new launch template version referencing the tested AMI and perform a managed instance refresh with health thresholds.
  2. Use CodeDeploy blue/green with distinct ECS task sets and ALB target groups, then switch the listener to the healthy replacement.
  3. Use an expand-and-contract schema migration that preserves backward compatibility throughout mixed-version deployment.
  4. Use readiness probes and rolling-update maxUnavailable/maxSurge settings that preserve service capacity during replacement.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Use CodeDeploy blue/green with distinct ECS task sets and ALB target groups, then switch the listener to the healthy replacement. Two task sets allow controlled validation and traffic movement while preserving the prior task set for rollback during the deployment window. The relevant operational proof is specific: The green target group passes readiness and smoke checks before the production listener sends requests to it.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Create a new launch template version referencing the tested AMI and perform a managed instance refresh with health thresholds. That would address immutable auto scaling replacement, because instance refresh reconciles the fleet to a declared immutable template while preserving a minimum healthy percentage. However, the stated situation instead concerns ecs traffic shifted releases. Two task sets allow controlled validation and traffic movement while preserving the prior task set for rollback during the deployment window.

C:

Use an expand-and-contract schema migration that preserves backward compatibility throughout mixed-version deployment. That would address database expand contract migration, because schema changes must support both application revisions while blue/green or canary traffic overlaps; destructive changes belong after consumers migrate. However, the stated situation instead concerns ecs traffic shifted releases. Two task sets allow controlled validation and traffic movement while preserving the prior task set for rollback during the deployment window.

D:

Use readiness probes and rolling-update maxUnavailable/maxSurge settings that preserve service capacity during replacement. That would address kubernetes rolling readiness, because kubernetes readiness controls endpoint participation while rollout parameters bound simultaneous pod unavailability. However, the stated situation instead concerns ecs traffic shifted releases. Two task sets allow controlled validation and traffic movement while preserving the prior task set for rollback during the deployment window.

Question 595

The audit team asks for installed package versions across thousands of EC2 instances, but technicians propose logging in to each server manually.

Which approach best meets the reliability and security constraints?

  1. Collect Systems Manager Inventory through SSM-managed nodes and aggregate the reported package and application metadata.
  2. Make operational automation idempotent with resource-state checks, unique operation keys and safe retry behavior.
  3. Orchestrate recovery through AWS Step Functions with explicit state transitions, retries, timeouts and approval integration.
  4. Create Systems Manager State Manager associations that periodically enforce the expected agent and configuration document on managed nodes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Collect Systems Manager Inventory through SSM-managed nodes and aggregate the reported package and application metadata. SSM Inventory enables programmatic fleet-level software visibility without distributing administrator SSH credentials. The relevant operational proof is specific: A central report identifies installed package versions on managed nodes and reports nodes lacking the required agent or permissions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Make operational automation idempotent with resource-state checks, unique operation keys and safe retry behavior. That would address automation idempotency, because event-driven systems can deliver retries and duplicate triggers, so actions must tolerate repeated execution without multiplying effects. However, the stated situation instead concerns inventory without ssh. SSM Inventory enables programmatic fleet-level software visibility without distributing administrator SSH credentials.

C:

Orchestrate recovery through AWS Step Functions with explicit state transitions, retries, timeouts and approval integration. That would address step functions long workflows, because step Functions coordinates multi-step asynchronous work beyond a single Lambda execution and makes failure states observable. However, the stated situation instead concerns inventory without ssh. SSM Inventory enables programmatic fleet-level software visibility without distributing administrator SSH credentials.

D:

Create Systems Manager State Manager associations that periodically enforce the expected agent and configuration document on managed nodes. That would address state manager desired configurations, because state Manager maintains a declared configuration over time and reduces post-launch configuration drift in fleets. However, the stated situation instead concerns inventory without ssh. SSM Inventory enables programmatic fleet-level software visibility without distributing administrator SSH credentials.

Question 596

A service transfers internal credentials between a Lambda client and a self-managed backend over plaintext HTTP inside a private VPC.

Which proposed implementation is best supported by the scenario?

  1. Use an eligible AWS Certificate Manager managed certificate and validate DNS ownership and listener association.
  2. Associate AWS WAF web ACL rules with the supported application entry point and monitor rule actions and false positives.
  3. Require TLS for sensitive service connections with validated server identity and protected certificate/key management.
  4. Deploy AWS Network Firewall with appropriate subnet placement, routing, stateless/stateful rules and logging for the inspected path.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Require TLS for sensitive service connections with validated server identity and protected certificate/key management. VPC isolation does not provide encryption or endpoint authentication for application traffic; TLS addresses transport exposure. The relevant operational proof is specific: A packet capture shows encrypted application payloads and invalid server certificates are rejected by the client.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use an eligible AWS Certificate Manager managed certificate and validate DNS ownership and listener association. That would address acm certificate lifecycle, because aCM can automate supported public certificate renewals when domain validation and service integration remain valid. However, the stated situation instead concerns data transport encryption. VPC isolation does not provide encryption or endpoint authentication for application traffic; TLS addresses transport exposure.

B:

Associate AWS WAF web ACL rules with the supported application entry point and monitor rule actions and false positives. That would address waf managed web rules, because wAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules. However, the stated situation instead concerns data transport encryption. VPC isolation does not provide encryption or endpoint authentication for application traffic; TLS addresses transport exposure.

D:

Deploy AWS Network Firewall with appropriate subnet placement, routing, stateless/stateful rules and logging for the inspected path. That would address network firewall inspection, because network Firewall inspects traffic routed through its endpoints; rules provide no protection for flows that bypass the firewall route. However, the stated situation instead concerns data transport encryption. VPC isolation does not provide encryption or endpoint authentication for application traffic; TLS addresses transport exposure.

Question 597

An administrator executes a destructive SQL operation at noon and needs a database restored to the last safe point before the mistake.

What should operators verify before closing the issue?

  1. A DR exercise provisions remaining capacity and restores the service within the declared longer RTO.
  2. A failover drill scales standby services and redirects traffic with observed restoration and data loss inside approved targets.
  3. A recovery rehearsal restores pre-error records to an isolated instance and a reconciled cutover procedure is documented.
  4. Recorded exercises demonstrate repeatable recovery steps, observed RTO/RPO and corrected shortcomings from failed tests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A recovery rehearsal restores pre-error records to an isolated instance and a reconciled cutover procedure is documented. It directly verifies the change: Use RDS automated backups and point-in-time recovery to create a new instance from an eligible timestamp, then plan controlled cutover. The test matters because pITR uses managed backups and transaction logs to recover to a chosen time in the retention window rather than only to fixed snapshot times.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A DR exercise provisions remaining capacity and restores the service within the declared longer RTO. That result would help prove pilot light tradeoff, where the relevant action is: Keep critical state and minimal core services replicated in a pilot-light Region and automate scale-out during a disaster. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For rds point in time recovery, the decisive verification is: A recovery rehearsal restores pre-error records to an isolated instance and a reconciled cutover procedure is documented.

B:

A failover drill scales standby services and redirects traffic with observed restoration and data loss inside approved targets. That result would help prove warm standby recovery, where the relevant action is: Maintain a reduced-capacity warm standby with replicated data and automation to scale it during failover. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For rds point in time recovery, the decisive verification is: A recovery rehearsal restores pre-error records to an isolated instance and a reconciled cutover procedure is documented.

D:

Recorded exercises demonstrate repeatable recovery steps, observed RTO/RPO and corrected shortcomings from failed tests. That result would help prove recovery runbook validation, where the relevant action is: Automate and regularly perform recovery game days that verify resource, data and application restoration against business targets. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For rds point in time recovery, the decisive verification is: A recovery rehearsal restores pre-error records to an isolated instance and a reconciled cutover procedure is documented.

Question 598

A central operations team needs continuous CloudWatch metrics for an external analytics platform, not occasional manually exported dashboard screenshots.

What risk best explains the need for a different approach?

  1. Manual exports obscure time-sensitive capacity changes and produce gaps in fleet-level trend analysis.
  2. Locally owned unprotected log buckets allow the same operator who changed a resource to alter or erase audit evidence.
  3. Hourly polling delays incident visibility and may miss short-lived attack indicators during critical windows.
  4. Unpartitioned log archives drive unnecessary scan cost and make incident investigation unacceptably slow.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Manual exports obscure time-sensitive capacity changes and produce gaps in fleet-level trend analysis. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Metric streams continuously export selected metric updates to an analytics sink, reducing custom polling and manual report collection. The corresponding mitigation is: Configure CloudWatch Metric Streams to a supported delivery pipeline such as Kinesis Data Firehose and its destination.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Locally owned unprotected log buckets allow the same operator who changed a resource to alter or erase audit evidence. That is a credible concern for central encrypted log archive, normally addressed by: Aggregate required audit logs into an access-restricted central S3 archive with suitable SSE-KMS encryption and lifecycle controls. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual exports obscure time-sensitive capacity changes and produce gaps in fleet-level trend analysis.

C:

Hourly polling delays incident visibility and may miss short-lived attack indicators during critical windows. That is a credible concern for kinesis subscription processing, normally addressed by: Configure CloudWatch Logs subscription filters to a supported streaming destination with suitable IAM and backpressure handling. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual exports obscure time-sensitive capacity changes and produce gaps in fleet-level trend analysis.

D:

Unpartitioned log archives drive unnecessary scan cost and make incident investigation unacceptably slow. That is a credible concern for s3 delivery partitioning, normally addressed by: Organize logs in time and source-oriented prefixes or partitions and apply appropriate object lifecycle and access controls. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual exports obscure time-sensitive capacity changes and produce gaps in fleet-level trend analysis.

Question 599

A regulated application passes tests in staging but its team rebuilds source again during the production promotion, making artifacts differ.

What result would most credibly prove that the control is effective?

  1. Actions in both Regions retrieve the exact versioned release artifact and execute using properly scoped KMS and S3 permissions.
  2. Repeated builds of a fixed source revision resolve declared dependencies and emit consistent manifest and package checksums.
  3. Checksums of the staged and production artifact are identical and a release record traces both deployments to the same commit.
  4. The build reads a current credential without printing it in logs or storing it in repository history, and access is traceable.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Checksums of the staged and production artifact are identical and a release record traces both deployments to the same commit. It directly verifies the change: Build the release once in CodeBuild and promote the same immutable, versioned artifact through all approved environments. The test matters because reusing an identical artifact separates verification of application bytes from environment-specific configuration and prevents unreviewed changes during promotion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Actions in both Regions retrieve the exact versioned release artifact and execute using properly scoped KMS and S3 permissions. That result would help prove multi-region pipeline artifacts, where the relevant action is: Configure a separate encrypted pipeline artifact bucket in each action Region and grant the required cross-Region access. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For promotion using one build, the decisive verification is: Checksums of the staged and production artifact are identical and a release record traces both deployments to the same commit.

B:

Repeated builds of a fixed source revision resolve declared dependencies and emit consistent manifest and package checksums. That result would help prove build isolation and reproducibility, where the relevant action is: Run CodeBuild jobs in defined ephemeral build environments with pinned dependency versions and protected service-role permissions. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For promotion using one build, the decisive verification is: Checksums of the staged and production artifact are identical and a release record traces both deployments to the same commit.

D:

The build reads a current credential without printing it in logs or storing it in repository history, and access is traceable. That result would help prove pipeline secret retrieval, where the relevant action is: Reference Secrets Manager or encrypted Systems Manager Parameter Store values at runtime under a scoped build role rather than embedding secret values in source. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For promotion using one build, the decisive verification is: Checksums of the staged and production artifact are identical and a release record traces both deployments to the same commit.

Question 600

Hundreds of EC2 instances must receive approved operating-system patches outside critical transaction hours with traceable success rates.

Which underlying service behavior is most important here?

  1. Patch Manager automates scan/install operations according to patch baselines, while maintenance windows constrain execution timing.
  2. Automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence.
  3. SSM Inventory enables programmatic fleet-level software visibility without distributing administrator SSH credentials.
  4. Managed scheduling removes reliance on a user's workstation and invokes targets under scoped AWS permissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Patch Manager automates scan/install operations according to patch baselines, while maintenance windows constrain execution timing. This explains the implementation decision: Use Systems Manager Patch Manager and Maintenance Windows with tagged targets, approved baselines and staged execution settings. Verification should show the following: Compliance reports show the intended patch baseline and successful installs on tagged hosts during the authorized window.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of ssm automation approval steps, for which the relevant intervention is: Use a Systems Manager Automation runbook with branching, prechecks and an explicit approval step for high-impact operations. The scenario requires understanding patch manager maintenance windows, where patch Manager automates scan/install operations according to patch baselines, while maintenance windows constrain execution timing.

C:

SSM Inventory enables programmatic fleet-level software visibility without distributing administrator SSH credentials. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of inventory without ssh, for which the relevant intervention is: Collect Systems Manager Inventory through SSM-managed nodes and aggregate the reported package and application metadata. The scenario requires understanding patch manager maintenance windows, where patch Manager automates scan/install operations according to patch baselines, while maintenance windows constrain execution timing.

D:

Managed scheduling removes reliance on a user's workstation and invokes targets under scoped AWS permissions. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of eventbridge scheduling, for which the relevant intervention is: Use EventBridge Scheduler with an authorized target role and time-zone-aware schedule for the required shutdown automation. The scenario requires understanding patch manager maintenance windows, where patch Manager automates scan/install operations according to patch baselines, while maintenance windows constrain execution timing.

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