Pass Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam in First Attempt Easily
Real Amazon AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Verified by experts
2 products

You save $34.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Premium Bundle

  • Premium File 480 Questions & Answers
  • Last Update: Nov 4, 2026
  • Training Course 242 Lectures
$74.99 $109.98

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    480 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    242 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 63

Question 620

Operations runs a local cron script on a single administrator laptop to shut down nonproduction EC2 workloads every night.

Which measured test outcome demonstrates the necessary behavior?

  1. Compliance reports show the intended patch baseline and successful installs on tagged hosts during the authorized window.
  2. The intended operator can start a logged session under IAM authorization while the instance has no public SSH ingress.
  3. Nonproduction instances stop at the expected local schedule even when the engineer's laptop is offline.
  4. Only valid configuration versions reach clients and an alarm-driven rollback reverts a harmful rollout.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Nonproduction instances stop at the expected local schedule even when the engineer's laptop is offline. It directly verifies the change: Use EventBridge Scheduler with an authorized target role and time-zone-aware schedule for the required shutdown automation. The test matters because managed scheduling removes reliance on a user's workstation and invokes targets under scoped AWS permissions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compliance reports show the intended patch baseline and successful installs on tagged hosts during the authorized window. That result would help prove patch manager maintenance windows, where the relevant action is: Use Systems Manager Patch Manager and Maintenance Windows with tagged targets, approved baselines and staged execution settings. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For eventbridge scheduling, the decisive verification is: Nonproduction instances stop at the expected local schedule even when the engineer's laptop is offline.

B:

The intended operator can start a logged session under IAM authorization while the instance has no public SSH ingress. That result would help prove session manager access, where the relevant action is: Use Systems Manager Session Manager with least-privilege IAM, managed nodes and audit logging instead of permanent inbound SSH access. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For eventbridge scheduling, the decisive verification is: Nonproduction instances stop at the expected local schedule even when the engineer's laptop is offline.

D:

Only valid configuration versions reach clients and an alarm-driven rollback reverts a harmful rollout. That result would help prove appconfig progressive rollout, where the relevant action is: Deploy validated configuration through AWS AppConfig with a gradual deployment strategy and CloudWatch alarm rollback. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For eventbridge scheduling, the decisive verification is: Nonproduction instances stop at the expected local schedule even when the engineer's laptop is offline.

Question 621

A protected S3 dataset is altered unexpectedly, but organization trails capture only management APIs and no object-level writes.

Which finding directly validates the selected implementation?

  1. A deliberately vulnerable test host creates an expected finding and the finding changes after supported remediation.
  2. A controlled object deletion records the writer principal, bucket/key and event time for the configured scope.
  3. A prohibited encryption change generates a Config noncompliant evaluation and triggers owner remediation evidence.
  4. An approved test connection creates the expected flow metadata for the source interface and time window.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A controlled object deletion records the writer principal, bucket/key and event time for the configured scope. It directly verifies the change: Enable appropriately scoped S3 CloudTrail data events for the protected resources and correlate PutObject or DeleteObject actors with alerts. The test matters because s3 object operations require data-event coverage rather than assuming general management trails capture every object write.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A deliberately vulnerable test host creates an expected finding and the finding changes after supported remediation. That result would help prove inspector ec2 vulnerabilities, where the relevant action is: Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For s3 change audit data events, the decisive verification is: A controlled object deletion records the writer principal, bucket/key and event time for the configured scope.

C:

A prohibited encryption change generates a Config noncompliant evaluation and triggers owner remediation evidence. That result would help prove config drift compliance, where the relevant action is: Use AWS Config resource recording and appropriate compliance rules, complementing CloudFormation drift detection for stack-managed resources. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For s3 change audit data events, the decisive verification is: A controlled object deletion records the writer principal, bucket/key and event time for the configured scope.

D:

An approved test connection creates the expected flow metadata for the source interface and time window. That result would help prove vpc flow logs detection, where the relevant action is: Enable VPC Flow Logs on relevant VPCs or interfaces with protected destinations and an analysis approach. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For s3 change audit data events, the decisive verification is: A controlled object deletion records the writer principal, bucket/key and event time for the configured scope.

Question 622

A company can tolerate several hours of recovery and wants lower idle costs than maintaining a fully operating second environment.

What observed outcome would establish that this remediation worked?

  1. A DR exercise provisions remaining capacity and restores the service within the declared longer RTO.
  2. Recovery drills restore functionality within two hours and prove recovered records are no older than the agreed fifteen-minute boundary.
  3. A recovery rehearsal restores pre-error records to an isolated instance and a reconciled cutover procedure is documented.
  4. A simulated overwrite is reversed by selecting the known-good object version without restoring an entire bucket.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A DR exercise provisions remaining capacity and restores the service within the declared longer RTO. It directly verifies the change: Keep critical state and minimal core services replicated in a pilot-light Region and automate scale-out during a disaster. The test matters because pilot light reduces steady-state spend by leaving much of the application tier dormant, accepting a longer startup recovery time.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Recovery drills restore functionality within two hours and prove recovered records are no older than the agreed fifteen-minute boundary. That result would help prove rto and rpo translation, where the relevant action is: Translate the business RTO and RPO into tested recovery orchestration and sufficiently frequent replication or backup objectives. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For pilot light tradeoff, the decisive verification is: A DR exercise provisions remaining capacity and restores the service within the declared longer RTO.

C:

A recovery rehearsal restores pre-error records to an isolated instance and a reconciled cutover procedure is documented. That result would help prove rds point in time recovery, where the relevant action is: Use RDS automated backups and point-in-time recovery to create a new instance from an eligible timestamp, then plan controlled cutover. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For pilot light tradeoff, the decisive verification is: A DR exercise provisions remaining capacity and restores the service within the declared longer RTO.

D:

A simulated overwrite is reversed by selecting the known-good object version without restoring an entire bucket. That result would help prove s3 versioned recovery, where the relevant action is: Enable suitable S3 versioning and tightly controlled deletion and recovery procedures on critical configuration objects. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For pilot light tradeoff, the decisive verification is: A DR exercise provisions remaining capacity and restores the service within the declared longer RTO.

Question 623

A custom EC2 worker exposes business queue-lag counters in local files, but operations see only basic EC2 CPU metrics.

What result would most credibly prove that the control is effective?

  1. New matching log records appear at the downstream consumer with expected latency and nonmatching content is filtered as configured.
  2. New account logs arrive in the archive, can be read by authorized responders and are denied to workload administrators.
  3. A test error entry increments the metric and the alarm transitions when the specified failure threshold is exceeded.
  4. A CloudWatch dashboard shows queue lag by worker group and the expected log stream appears after a managed-node restart.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A CloudWatch dashboard shows queue lag by worker group and the expected log stream appears after a managed-node restart. It directly verifies the change: Install and configure the CloudWatch agent or application instrumentation to publish needed custom metrics and log events with useful dimensions. The test matters because basic EC2 metrics do not automatically expose application-specific counters or custom log content; agents and instrumentation provide those signals.

Incorrect Answers

A:

New matching log records appear at the downstream consumer with expected latency and nonmatching content is filtered as configured. That result would help prove kinesis subscription processing, where the relevant action is: Configure CloudWatch Logs subscription filters to a supported streaming destination with suitable IAM and backpressure handling. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudwatch agent custom telemetry, the decisive verification is: A CloudWatch dashboard shows queue lag by worker group and the expected log stream appears after a managed-node restart.

B:

New account logs arrive in the archive, can be read by authorized responders and are denied to workload administrators. That result would help prove central encrypted log archive, where the relevant action is: Aggregate required audit logs into an access-restricted central S3 archive with suitable SSE-KMS encryption and lifecycle controls. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudwatch agent custom telemetry, the decisive verification is: A CloudWatch dashboard shows queue lag by worker group and the expected log stream appears after a managed-node restart.

C:

A test error entry increments the metric and the alarm transitions when the specified failure threshold is exceeded. That result would help prove metric filter error counts, where the relevant action is: Create a CloudWatch Logs metric filter using the error pattern, then alarm on the emitted custom metric. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudwatch agent custom telemetry, the decisive verification is: A CloudWatch dashboard shows queue lag by worker group and the expected log stream appears after a managed-node restart.

Question 624

Operations teams patch EC2 production servers by hand and repeatedly find inconsistent OS libraries after deployments.

What observed outcome would establish that this remediation worked?

  1. Image tests verify required agent and patch state, and a new launch template references the tested AMI version.
  2. Image findings identify bundled OS packages and the pipeline blocks promotion of disallowed runtime vulnerabilities.
  3. The deployed digest is identical across staging and production and a second push cannot silently replace the promoted tag.
  4. CodeBuild resolves an explicit dependency version from CodeArtifact and unauthorized principals cannot publish replacement packages.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Image tests verify required agent and patch state, and a new launch template references the tested AMI version. It directly verifies the change: Use EC2 Image Builder to create, test and distribute versioned patched AMIs for immutable instance replacement. The test matters because a repeatable image pipeline moves OS/package changes into a verifiable artifact instead of modifying live instances unpredictably.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Image findings identify bundled OS packages and the pipeline blocks promotion of disallowed runtime vulnerabilities. That result would help prove artifact scanning after build, where the relevant action is: Scan the final built container or machine image in addition to source dependencies before release approval. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For golden ami pipeline, the decisive verification is: Image tests verify required agent and patch state, and a new launch template references the tested AMI version.

C:

The deployed digest is identical across staging and production and a second push cannot silently replace the promoted tag. That result would help prove immutable container tags, where the relevant action is: Enable immutable image tags or promote by image digest so a release references a fixed container image version. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For golden ami pipeline, the decisive verification is: Image tests verify required agent and patch state, and a new launch template references the tested AMI version.

D:

CodeBuild resolves an explicit dependency version from CodeArtifact and unauthorized principals cannot publish replacement packages. That result would help prove private package registry, where the relevant action is: Publish versioned internal packages to a private AWS CodeArtifact repository with scoped read/write access for build roles. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For golden ami pipeline, the decisive verification is: Image tests verify required agent and patch state, and a new launch template references the tested AMI version.

Question 625

A serverless team repeats custom Lambda, API Gateway and event permission definitions by hand in multiple applications.

What is the main operational consequence of the stated design gap?

  1. Ad hoc copy-and-paste infrastructure may omit event permissions and cause environment-specific function failures.
  2. Applying a template blindly could replace a database resource and interrupt service or destroy unprotected data.
  3. Unrecorded console edits persist beyond code review and can expose services to broader network access.
  4. Hardcoded secrets in IaC remain discoverable through repository history even after application code is updated.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Ad hoc copy-and-paste infrastructure may omit event permissions and cause environment-specific function failures. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: SAM provides shorthand definitions for supported serverless workloads while the generated resources follow normal stack lifecycle controls. The corresponding mitigation is: Use an AWS SAM template and supported transforms to define reusable serverless resources and events through CloudFormation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Applying a template blindly could replace a database resource and interrupt service or destroy unprotected data. That is a credible concern for cloudformation change sets, normally addressed by: Create and inspect a CloudFormation change set with replacement details and require approval before executing it. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Ad hoc copy-and-paste infrastructure may omit event permissions and cause environment-specific function failures.

C:

Unrecorded console edits persist beyond code review and can expose services to broader network access. That is a credible concern for cloudformation drift detection, normally addressed by: Run CloudFormation drift detection on supported resources and reconcile unauthorized differences back into the declared template state. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Ad hoc copy-and-paste infrastructure may omit event permissions and cause environment-specific function failures.

D:

Hardcoded secrets in IaC remain discoverable through repository history even after application code is updated. That is a credible concern for stack parameters and secrets, normally addressed by: Use Secrets Manager or supported dynamic references with tightly controlled permissions instead of hardcoded secret defaults. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Ad hoc copy-and-paste infrastructure may omit event permissions and cause environment-specific function failures.

Question 626

Operations patches Amazon Linux manually but has no continuous evidence of which managed EC2 workloads still contain known vulnerabilities.

What is the best automation decision for this workload?

  1. Create targeted CloudTrail-based detections for privileged console events with identity, outcome and MFA attributes.
  2. Centralize organization CloudTrail logs under independent security ownership with log-file validation and appropriate object retention protections.
  3. Correlate findings by stable finding IDs and resource identifiers and update existing incident records rather than always opening new ones.
  4. Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes. Inspector identifies supported software vulnerabilities by resource and package; remediation should confirm the affected package version changes. The relevant operational proof is specific: A deliberately vulnerable test host creates an expected finding and the finding changes after supported remediation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Create targeted CloudTrail-based detections for privileged console events with identity, outcome and MFA attributes. That would address cloudtrail suspicious console login, because cloudTrail management events contain context to distinguish risky access signals; detection logic needs meaningful predicates rather than every login. However, the stated situation instead concerns inspector ec2 vulnerabilities. Inspector identifies supported software vulnerabilities by resource and package; remediation should confirm the affected package version changes.

B:

Centralize organization CloudTrail logs under independent security ownership with log-file validation and appropriate object retention protections. That would address security trail integrity, because protected, integrity-verifiable audit evidence reduces the ability of a compromised workload administrator to erase traces of API activity. However, the stated situation instead concerns inspector ec2 vulnerabilities. Inspector identifies supported software vulnerabilities by resource and package; remediation should confirm the affected package version changes.

C:

Correlate findings by stable finding IDs and resource identifiers and update existing incident records rather than always opening new ones. That would address security finding deduplication, because security integrations can reissue updates to the same finding; response tooling must distinguish state changes from new issues. However, the stated situation instead concerns inspector ec2 vulnerabilities. Inspector identifies supported software vulnerabilities by resource and package; remediation should confirm the affected package version changes.

Question 627

An application pipeline stores its database password in plain-text buildspec environment variables committed to the repository.

Which action best meets the technical requirement?

  1. Build the release once in CodeBuild and promote the same immutable, versioned artifact through all approved environments.
  2. Reference Secrets Manager or encrypted Systems Manager Parameter Store values at runtime under a scoped build role rather than embedding secret values in source.
  3. Filter pipeline source events to the approved integration branch and require test-stage success before production deployment.
  4. Keep environment-specific settings in deployment-time configuration such as Parameter Store or AppConfig while preserving the immutable build.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Reference Secrets Manager or encrypted Systems Manager Parameter Store values at runtime under a scoped build role rather than embedding secret values in source. Managed secrets enable controlled retrieval and rotation while IAM determines which build execution may access a credential. The relevant operational proof is specific: The build reads a current credential without printing it in logs or storing it in repository history, and access is traceable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Build the release once in CodeBuild and promote the same immutable, versioned artifact through all approved environments. That would address promotion using one build, because reusing an identical artifact separates verification of application bytes from environment-specific configuration and prevents unreviewed changes during promotion. However, the stated situation instead concerns pipeline secret retrieval. Managed secrets enable controlled retrieval and rotation while IAM determines which build execution may access a credential.

C:

Filter pipeline source events to the approved integration branch and require test-stage success before production deployment. That would address branch-aware ci triggers, because source-event filters control which commits enter the deployment path, while stage ordering ensures testing produces an explicit success signal. However, the stated situation instead concerns pipeline secret retrieval. Managed secrets enable controlled retrieval and rotation while IAM determines which build execution may access a credential.

D:

Keep environment-specific settings in deployment-time configuration such as Parameter Store or AppConfig while preserving the immutable build. That would address environment configuration separation, because externalized configuration allows one vetted package to run in multiple environments without changing its code or build provenance. However, the stated situation instead concerns pipeline secret retrieval. Managed secrets enable controlled retrieval and rotation while IAM determines which build execution may access a credential.

Question 628

Operators change production security-group ingress rules directly while the repository template continues to show a narrower port policy.

Which operational observation best confirms the intended design?

  1. A validated SAM build and deployment creates expected functions, event sources and permissions consistently in test and production.
  2. A rehearsal update retains the protected object storage resource when the template resource is removed or replaced.
  3. A drift report flags the changed ingress property and an approved deployment restores the intended restricted rule.
  4. An insecure template fails the pipeline with the offending property and a compliant revision passes the same rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A drift report flags the changed ingress property and an approved deployment restores the intended restricted rule. It directly verifies the change: Run CloudFormation drift detection on supported resources and reconcile unauthorized differences back into the declared template state. The test matters because drift detection compares actual supported resource properties with expected stack values, exposing out-of-band configuration changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A validated SAM build and deployment creates expected functions, event sources and permissions consistently in test and production. That result would help prove sam serverless templates, where the relevant action is: Use an AWS SAM template and supported transforms to define reusable serverless resources and events through CloudFormation. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudformation drift detection, the decisive verification is: A drift report flags the changed ingress property and an approved deployment restores the intended restricted rule.

B:

A rehearsal update retains the protected object storage resource when the template resource is removed or replaced. That result would help prove cloudformation deletion protections, where the relevant action is: Set appropriate DeletionPolicy or UpdateReplacePolicy attributes on critical stateful resources and validate replacement behavior. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudformation drift detection, the decisive verification is: A drift report flags the changed ingress property and an approved deployment restores the intended restricted rule.

D:

An insecure template fails the pipeline with the offending property and a compliant revision passes the same rules. That result would help prove template lint and policy checks, where the relevant action is: Run CloudFormation validation and policy-as-code checks such as cfn-guard in CI before executing change sets. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For cloudformation drift detection, the decisive verification is: A drift report flags the changed ingress property and an approved deployment restores the intended restricted rule.

Question 629

A protected S3 dataset is altered unexpectedly, but organization trails capture only management APIs and no object-level writes.

Why would the preferred design resolve the described failure?

  1. Flow logs capture network-flow metadata such as source, destination, ports and action for supported traffic, not full application payloads.
  2. S3 object operations require data-event coverage rather than assuming general management trails capture every object write.
  3. Inspector identifies supported software vulnerabilities by resource and package; remediation should confirm the affected package version changes.
  4. Config evaluates supported resource state against rules, while CloudFormation drift compares actual properties with declared stack templates.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

S3 object operations require data-event coverage rather than assuming general management trails capture every object write. This explains the implementation decision: Enable appropriately scoped S3 CloudTrail data events for the protected resources and correlate PutObject or DeleteObject actors with alerts. Verification should show the following: A controlled object deletion records the writer principal, bucket/key and event time for the configured scope.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Flow logs capture network-flow metadata such as source, destination, ports and action for supported traffic, not full application payloads. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of vpc flow logs detection, for which the relevant intervention is: Enable VPC Flow Logs on relevant VPCs or interfaces with protected destinations and an analysis approach. The scenario requires understanding s3 change audit data events, where s3 object operations require data-event coverage rather than assuming general management trails capture every object write.

C:

Inspector identifies supported software vulnerabilities by resource and package; remediation should confirm the affected package version changes. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of inspector ec2 vulnerabilities, for which the relevant intervention is: Enable an appropriate Amazon Inspector scanning coverage and track vulnerability findings against running workloads and patch outcomes. The scenario requires understanding s3 change audit data events, where s3 object operations require data-event coverage rather than assuming general management trails capture every object write.

D:

Config evaluates supported resource state against rules, while CloudFormation drift compares actual properties with declared stack templates. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of config drift compliance, for which the relevant intervention is: Use AWS Config resource recording and appropriate compliance rules, complementing CloudFormation drift detection for stack-managed resources. The scenario requires understanding s3 change audit data events, where s3 object operations require data-event coverage rather than assuming general management trails capture every object write.

Question 630

A blue/green release switches traffic before verifying that newly deployed application tasks can complete their primary business workflow.

Which failure is most directly exposed by leaving the problem unresolved?

  1. A swallowed process exit lets the pipeline promote artifacts even though mandatory tests reported failures.
  2. Deploying without realistic load tests can trigger throttling, retry storms or database connection exhaustion during peak sales.
  3. Undetected schema drift causes valid events to be rejected by downstream consumers after an otherwise successful deployment.
  4. Deployment infrastructure can report success even when application requests fail after a misconfigured environment variable.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Deployment infrastructure can report success even when application requests fail after a misconfigured environment variable. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Smoke testing checks the running target version and essential business operation rather than relying only on successful infrastructure provisioning. The corresponding mitigation is: Execute a post-deployment smoke test against the green endpoint and gate traffic cutover on the result.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A swallowed process exit lets the pipeline promote artifacts even though mandatory tests reported failures. That is a credible concern for exit code and failure propagation, normally addressed by: Configure scripts to propagate nonzero process exits and fail the build phase whenever a required validation command fails. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Deployment infrastructure can report success even when application requests fail after a misconfigured environment variable.

B:

Deploying without realistic load tests can trigger throttling, retry storms or database connection exhaustion during peak sales. That is a credible concern for load test before peak, normally addressed by: Run representative load and stress tests at pipeline readiness gates and compare latency and error rates with service SLOs. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Deployment infrastructure can report success even when application requests fail after a misconfigured environment variable.

C:

Undetected schema drift causes valid events to be rejected by downstream consumers after an otherwise successful deployment. That is a credible concern for contract test across services, normally addressed by: Introduce versioned producer-consumer contract tests in the CI stages of both services and gate changes on compatibility. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Deployment infrastructure can report success even when application requests fail after a misconfigured environment variable.

AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    480 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Nov 4, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    242 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF
This is ONE TIME OFFER

You save
10%

Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

You save
10%

Use Discount Code:

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.

Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examlabs.com and follow the directions.

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your email address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

  • Realistic exam simulation and exam editor with preview functions
  • Whole exam in a single file with several different question types
  • Customizable exam-taking mode & detailed score reports