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AWS Certified DevOps Engineer - Professional DOP-C02 Practice Test 9

Question 80

A fast-growing organization creates AWS accounts by email and manually repeats inconsistent logging, identity and network configurations.

Which proposed implementation is best supported by the scenario?

  1. Configure an AWS Config aggregator with the required organization and Region coverage and centrally review aggregated compliance.
  2. Use service-managed CloudFormation StackSets with AWS Organizations targeting and automatic OU deployment where appropriate.
  3. Create an organization-level multi-Region CloudTrail trail with protected centralized log storage and appropriate ownership.
  4. Provision new workload accounts through AWS Control Tower Account Factory within approved organizational units and baseline guardrails.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Provision new workload accounts through AWS Control Tower Account Factory within approved organizational units and baseline guardrails. Account Factory standardizes account enrollment and foundational governance while AWS Organizations manages consolidated account relationships. The relevant operational proof is specific: A newly provisioned account automatically receives the expected OU placement, mandatory baseline controls and access configuration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Configure an AWS Config aggregator with the required organization and Region coverage and centrally review aggregated compliance. That would address multiaccount config aggregation, because an aggregator consolidates AWS Config resource and compliance views, but source accounts must have suitable recorders and rules. However, the stated situation instead concerns control tower account factory. Account Factory standardizes account enrollment and foundational governance while AWS Organizations manages consolidated account relationships.

B:

Use service-managed CloudFormation StackSets with AWS Organizations targeting and automatic OU deployment where appropriate. That would address stacksets ou deployment, because service-managed StackSets propagate approved infrastructure stacks into member accounts and can enroll new accounts when OU membership changes. However, the stated situation instead concerns control tower account factory. Account Factory standardizes account enrollment and foundational governance while AWS Organizations manages consolidated account relationships.

C:

Create an organization-level multi-Region CloudTrail trail with protected centralized log storage and appropriate ownership. That would address organization trail audit scope, because an organization trail expands management-event coverage to member accounts and supports consolidated immutable audit operations. However, the stated situation instead concerns control tower account factory. Account Factory standardizes account enrollment and foundational governance while AWS Organizations manages consolidated account relationships.

Question 81

Security responders suspect exfiltration through unusual EC2 DNS queries but only track static port rules and CPU alarms.

Which adverse outcome is the recommended change intended to prevent?

  1. Absent flow metadata makes it difficult to reconstruct suspicious egress paths during an incident.
  2. Duplicate incident records waste analyst time and conceal which remediation corresponds to the true affected resource.
  3. Broad unfiltered login alerts exhaust responders while a suspicious privileged session remains unidentified.
  4. Malicious network behavior can continue unnoticed when the organization monitors only uptime and CPU utilization.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Malicious network behavior can continue unnoticed when the organization monitors only uptime and CPU utilization. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: GuardDuty analyzes supported AWS signals for suspicious behavior that ordinary availability metrics do not reveal. The corresponding mitigation is: Review GuardDuty threat-detection findings and the supporting flow or DNS telemetry before selecting containment actions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Absent flow metadata makes it difficult to reconstruct suspicious egress paths during an incident. That is a credible concern for vpc flow logs detection, normally addressed by: Enable VPC Flow Logs on relevant VPCs or interfaces with protected destinations and an analysis approach. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Malicious network behavior can continue unnoticed when the organization monitors only uptime and CPU utilization.

B:

Duplicate incident records waste analyst time and conceal which remediation corresponds to the true affected resource. That is a credible concern for security finding deduplication, normally addressed by: Correlate findings by stable finding IDs and resource identifiers and update existing incident records rather than always opening new ones. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Malicious network behavior can continue unnoticed when the organization monitors only uptime and CPU utilization.

C:

Broad unfiltered login alerts exhaust responders while a suspicious privileged session remains unidentified. That is a credible concern for cloudtrail suspicious console login, normally addressed by: Create targeted CloudTrail-based detections for privileged console events with identity, outcome and MFA attributes. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Malicious network behavior can continue unnoticed when the organization monitors only uptime and CPU utilization.

Question 82

A replicated encrypted database snapshot exists in a recovery Region but no local key permission permits its restoration there.

Which proposed implementation is best supported by the scenario?

  1. Use RDS automated backups and point-in-time recovery to create a new instance from an eligible timestamp, then plan controlled cutover.
  2. Enable suitable S3 versioning and tightly controlled deletion and recovery procedures on critical configuration objects.
  3. Define health-aware Route 53 routing and failover runbooks or controlled automation with realistic resolver caching expectations.
  4. Provision or select suitable recovery-Region KMS key policies and copy or re-encrypt recovery artifacts as required.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Provision or select suitable recovery-Region KMS key policies and copy or re-encrypt recovery artifacts as required. KMS keys are regional resources, and decryption of a recovery artifact requires authorized key usage in its destination context. The relevant operational proof is specific: A recovery role successfully restores and opens the encrypted backup in the secondary Region without relying on primary access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use RDS automated backups and point-in-time recovery to create a new instance from an eligible timestamp, then plan controlled cutover. That would address rds point in time recovery, because pITR uses managed backups and transaction logs to recover to a chosen time in the retention window rather than only to fixed snapshot times. However, the stated situation instead concerns kms keys in dr region. KMS keys are regional resources, and decryption of a recovery artifact requires authorized key usage in its destination context.

B:

Enable suitable S3 versioning and tightly controlled deletion and recovery procedures on critical configuration objects. That would address s3 versioned recovery, because object versioning preserves prior object generations that can be retrieved after accidental replacement, subject to retention controls. However, the stated situation instead concerns kms keys in dr region. KMS keys are regional resources, and decryption of a recovery artifact requires authorized key usage in its destination context.

C:

Define health-aware Route 53 routing and failover runbooks or controlled automation with realistic resolver caching expectations. That would address route 53 dr automation, because automated routing reduces operator error when the primary endpoint fails, but detection time and DNS cache behavior affect actual RTO. However, the stated situation instead concerns kms keys in dr region. KMS keys are regional resources, and decryption of a recovery artifact requires authorized key usage in its destination context.

Question 83

A single supported EC2 instance occasionally fails an underlying system status check while its application data resides on durable EBS volumes.

What risk best explains the need for a different approach?

  1. Unrouted AWS service notifications leave dependent teams unaware of scheduled disruptions and remediation requirements.
  2. Manual rebooting cannot repair all underlying host problems and extends service downtime unnecessarily.
  3. A catch-all event rule floods responders with irrelevant alerts and hides actual production outages.
  4. Passive dashboards without alarm actions delay intervention until an outage is already visible to customers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Manual rebooting cannot repair all underlying host problems and extends service downtime unnecessarily. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: EC2 recover actions can restore an impaired underlying host for supported instances while retaining attached EBS storage and instance identity semantics. The corresponding mitigation is: Configure a CloudWatch system status-check alarm with supported EC2 recovery action after validating instance eligibility.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unrouted AWS service notifications leave dependent teams unaware of scheduled disruptions and remediation requirements. That is a credible concern for health event operations, normally addressed by: Send relevant AWS Health events through EventBridge to owner-specific notification and operations workflows. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual rebooting cannot repair all underlying host problems and extends service downtime unnecessarily.

C:

A catch-all event rule floods responders with irrelevant alerts and hides actual production outages. That is a credible concern for eventbridge event patterns, normally addressed by: Use an EventBridge rule with event-pattern filtering by source, event detail, account or tags and route matches to a controlled target. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual rebooting cannot repair all underlying host problems and extends service downtime unnecessarily.

D:

Passive dashboards without alarm actions delay intervention until an outage is already visible to customers. That is a credible concern for cloudwatch alarm actions, normally addressed by: Create a CloudWatch alarm on a meaningful error-rate metric and connect its ALARM state to an SNS notification or approved response workflow. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual rebooting cannot repair all underlying host problems and extends service downtime unnecessarily.

Question 84

A CodeDeploy EC2 deployment stops at ApplicationStart, but package download and file installation completed successfully.

Why would the preferred design resolve the described failure?

  1. A failed lifecycle hook is a specific deployment step failure; artifact transfer success does not establish successful process startup.
  2. Function timeouts can reflect external service latency, insufficient timeout configuration or resource pressure, requiring evidence rather than guesswork.
  3. Image pull failures occur before application readiness and are often unrelated to available compute capacity.
  4. Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A failed lifecycle hook is a specific deployment step failure; artifact transfer success does not establish successful process startup. This explains the implementation decision: Inspect CodeDeploy lifecycle event logs, deployment agent output and application start command permissions before retrying. Verification should show the following: The corrected hook starts the application and lifecycle validation passes with application logs confirming readiness.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Function timeouts can reflect external service latency, insufficient timeout configuration or resource pressure, requiring evidence rather than guesswork. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of lambda timeout dependencies, for which the relevant intervention is: Correlate Lambda duration, timeout and downstream trace segments to identify whether the new code or dependency is responsible. The scenario requires understanding codedeploy hooks failure, where a failed lifecycle hook is a specific deployment step failure; artifact transfer success does not establish successful process startup.

C:

Image pull failures occur before application readiness and are often unrelated to available compute capacity. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of eks image pull errors, for which the relevant intervention is: Inspect pod events, image reference, registry access and pull credentials before changing cluster scaling. The scenario requires understanding codedeploy hooks failure, where a failed lifecycle hook is a specific deployment step failure; artifact transfer success does not establish successful process startup.

D:

Artifact upload can require both S3 write authorization and KMS key use when using SSE-KMS, regardless of successful compilation. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of codebuild role denied artifact, for which the relevant intervention is: Inspect build service-role S3 and KMS permissions alongside the bucket and key policies, then correct only the missing access. The scenario requires understanding codedeploy hooks failure, where a failed lifecycle hook is a specific deployment step failure; artifact transfer success does not establish successful process startup.

Question 85

An ecommerce workload handled baseline requests in staging but regularly saturates at the expected seasonal concurrency.

What observed outcome would establish that this remediation worked?

  1. The integration suite completes authenticated cross-service transactions and intentionally fails when a queue policy blocks the expected request.
  2. A test suite operates only in the staging account and no production row or personal record can be modified or read.
  3. Measured p95 latency, error rate and scaling response remain within agreed limits at expected and elevated load.
  4. The green target completes a representative API transaction before any production traffic is shifted to it.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Measured p95 latency, error rate and scaling response remain within agreed limits at expected and elevated load. It directly verifies the change: Run representative load and stress tests at pipeline readiness gates and compare latency and error rates with service SLOs. The test matters because performance testing exposes bottlenecks and threshold failures that correctness tests at low concurrency cannot observe.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The integration suite completes authenticated cross-service transactions and intentionally fails when a queue policy blocks the expected request. That result would help prove end-to-end integration gate, where the relevant action is: Run automated integration tests against a representative deployed test environment before permitting production promotion. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For load test before peak, the decisive verification is: Measured p95 latency, error rate and scaling response remain within agreed limits at expected and elevated load.

B:

A test suite operates only in the staging account and no production row or personal record can be modified or read. That result would help prove test data isolation, where the relevant action is: Provision isolated, access-controlled synthetic or sanitized test data and use environment-specific credentials for integration tests. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For load test before peak, the decisive verification is: Measured p95 latency, error rate and scaling response remain within agreed limits at expected and elevated load.

D:

The green target completes a representative API transaction before any production traffic is shifted to it. That result would help prove acceptance smoke validation, where the relevant action is: Execute a post-deployment smoke test against the green endpoint and gate traffic cutover on the result. It does not establish this case's required outcome. For load test before peak, the decisive verification is: Measured p95 latency, error rate and scaling response remain within agreed limits at expected and elevated load.

Question 86

A remediation runbook can detach a security-sensitive network interface, but the team needs accountable approval before executing the destructive action.

Which AWS-specific principle most directly explains the desired solution?

  1. State Manager maintains a declared configuration over time and reduces post-launch configuration drift in fleets.
  2. Automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence.
  3. Patch Manager automates scan/install operations according to patch baselines, while maintenance windows constrain execution timing.
  4. Session Manager permits controlled interactive management without exposing an inbound SSH port or distributing persistent keys.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence. This explains the implementation decision: Use a Systems Manager Automation runbook with branching, prechecks and an explicit approval step for high-impact operations. Verification should show the following: Without the approval token the destructive step remains blocked, and approved execution records its approver and results.

Incorrect Answers

A:

State Manager maintains a declared configuration over time and reduces post-launch configuration drift in fleets. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of state manager desired configurations, for which the relevant intervention is: Create Systems Manager State Manager associations that periodically enforce the expected agent and configuration document on managed nodes. The scenario requires understanding ssm automation approval steps, where automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence.

C:

Patch Manager automates scan/install operations according to patch baselines, while maintenance windows constrain execution timing. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of patch manager maintenance windows, for which the relevant intervention is: Use Systems Manager Patch Manager and Maintenance Windows with tagged targets, approved baselines and staged execution settings. The scenario requires understanding ssm automation approval steps, where automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence.

D:

Session Manager permits controlled interactive management without exposing an inbound SSH port or distributing persistent keys. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of session manager access, for which the relevant intervention is: Use Systems Manager Session Manager with least-privilege IAM, managed nodes and audit logging instead of permanent inbound SSH access. The scenario requires understanding ssm automation approval steps, where automation documents support controlled multistep execution and manual approvals while preserving step-by-step execution evidence.

Question 87

Application teams repeatedly make sensitive S3 buckets public while correcting website delivery settings for unrelated static assets.

Which explanation best describes the technical mechanism at issue?

  1. Network Firewall inspects traffic routed through its endpoints; rules provide no protection for flows that bypass the firewall route.
  2. KMS key locality and key policies govern decryption; transferring ciphertext alone does not guarantee usable recovery data.
  3. WAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules.
  4. Block Public Access controls override many accidental public policy or ACL settings, reducing exposure of private object stores.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Block Public Access controls override many accidental public policy or ACL settings, reducing exposure of private object stores. This explains the implementation decision: Enable appropriate S3 Block Public Access settings at account or bucket scope and provide a separate approved public-content pattern. Verification should show the following: Attempts to make protected data buckets public fail, while approved public assets use a separately controlled distribution path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Network Firewall inspects traffic routed through its endpoints; rules provide no protection for flows that bypass the firewall route. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of network firewall inspection, for which the relevant intervention is: Deploy AWS Network Firewall with appropriate subnet placement, routing, stateless/stateful rules and logging for the inspected path. The scenario requires understanding s3 public access guardrail, where block Public Access controls override many accidental public policy or ACL settings, reducing exposure of private object stores.

B:

KMS key locality and key policies govern decryption; transferring ciphertext alone does not guarantee usable recovery data. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of cross account encryption keys, for which the relevant intervention is: Plan destination-region KMS key access and supported re-encryption or key replication patterns in the recovery workflow. The scenario requires understanding s3 public access guardrail, where block Public Access controls override many accidental public policy or ACL settings, reducing exposure of private object stores.

C:

WAF inspects supported HTTP requests at the application layer, whereas security groups enforce network access rules. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of waf managed web rules, for which the relevant intervention is: Associate AWS WAF web ACL rules with the supported application entry point and monitor rule actions and false positives. The scenario requires understanding s3 public access guardrail, where block Public Access controls override many accidental public policy or ACL settings, reducing exposure of private object stores.

Question 88

A multi-AZ application uses one single-node ElastiCache Redis instance as a critical session store without any failover capability.

Which solution should the DevOps engineer implement?

  1. Use DynamoDB global tables where suitable and design conflict handling and application routing for replicated multi-Region writes.
  2. Configure health-check-aware Route 53 failover records and validate the actual application readiness signal and TTL effects.
  3. Use an appropriate replicated Multi-AZ ElastiCache deployment with automatic failover and confirm client recovery behavior.
  4. Design a separate regional recovery capability such as Aurora Global Database with tested secondary promotion and application reconnection.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Use an appropriate replicated Multi-AZ ElastiCache deployment with automatic failover and confirm client recovery behavior. A replicated cache with failover reduces availability impact of a node or AZ failure when the application can reconnect. The relevant operational proof is specific: A failed primary node is replaced through failover and active sessions recover within the expected service threshold.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Use DynamoDB global tables where suitable and design conflict handling and application routing for replicated multi-Region writes. That would address dynamodb global tables, because global tables replicate writes across participating Regions and support local read/write access, but cross-Region convergence is asynchronous. However, the stated situation instead concerns availability on shared cache. A replicated cache with failover reduces availability impact of a node or AZ failure when the application can reconnect.

B:

Configure health-check-aware Route 53 failover records and validate the actual application readiness signal and TTL effects. That would address route 53 regional failover, because dNS health-based routing can redirect new resolutions after unhealthy status is detected, but client caching can delay convergence. However, the stated situation instead concerns availability on shared cache. A replicated cache with failover reduces availability impact of a node or AZ failure when the application can reconnect.

D:

Design a separate regional recovery capability such as Aurora Global Database with tested secondary promotion and application reconnection. That would address aurora regional disaster availability, because intra-Region cluster failover does not automatically protect against region-wide loss, whereas cross-Region replication supports a regional recovery path. However, the stated situation instead concerns availability on shared cache. A replicated cache with failover reduces availability impact of a node or AZ failure when the application can reconnect.

Question 89

A fleet emits JSON application logs, but responders download every log stream individually to find the error path common to a major outage.

Which consequence is most specific to the observed weakness?

  1. Without trace propagation, teams optimize the wrong service because latency is misattributed to the entry API.
  2. Manual retrieval delays triage and leads responders to overlook related errors in other instances.
  3. Lack of management-event audit records prevents attribution of unauthorized resource changes.
  4. A detached package scan may drive low-priority fixes while an exploited image remains deployed in production.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Manual retrieval delays triage and leads responders to overlook related errors in other instances. This outcome arises from the mechanism in the situation: Logs Insights supports interactive server-side queries that correlate large log sets without manual stream-by-stream exports. The corresponding mitigation is: Use CloudWatch Logs Insights queries to aggregate and filter relevant log fields across selected log groups and time ranges.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Without trace propagation, teams optimize the wrong service because latency is misattributed to the entry API. That is a credible concern for x ray trace latency, normally addressed by: Instrument supported request paths for AWS X-Ray traces and inspect segments to isolate high-latency dependencies. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual retrieval delays triage and leads responders to overlook related errors in other instances.

C:

Lack of management-event audit records prevents attribution of unauthorized resource changes. That is a credible concern for cloudtrail management audit, normally addressed by: Search CloudTrail management events with time, account, event name and user identity, preserving an appropriate audit trail. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual retrieval delays triage and leads responders to overlook related errors in other instances.

D:

A detached package scan may drive low-priority fixes while an exploited image remains deployed in production. That is a credible concern for inspector vulnerability context, normally addressed by: Review Amazon Inspector findings with severity, affected resource and exposure context, linking results to deployed artifact versions. It is not the primary failure mechanism described here. The relevant exposure is: Manual retrieval delays triage and leads responders to overlook related errors in other instances.

Question 90

CodeDeploy reports successful artifact transfer but production application errors spike during the canary exposure window.

Why would the preferred design resolve the described failure?

  1. A Config evaluation identifies the noncompliant resource state and an authorized automation can restore the expected ingress policy.
  2. Compliance events can trigger automated patch scheduling, but patch impact and business windows still determine safe execution.
  3. CodeDeploy can use deployment health signals to reverse a release before expanded exposure, avoiding open-ended operator monitoring.
  4. AppConfig controlled deployment strategies can monitor alarms and roll back configuration versions when customer health degrades.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

CodeDeploy can use deployment health signals to reverse a release before expanded exposure, avoiding open-ended operator monitoring. This explains the implementation decision: Enable deployment alarms and automatic rollback to the last successful revision after a measurable failure threshold. Verification should show the following: A simulated bad release triggers the alarm and returns the fleet or alias to its previously verified revision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A Config evaluation identifies the noncompliant resource state and an authorized automation can restore the expected ingress policy. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of config rule network remediation, for which the relevant intervention is: Attach a narrowly scoped Systems Manager Automation remediation to the relevant Config rule with controlled exception handling. The scenario requires understanding failed deployment reversion, where codeDeploy can use deployment health signals to reverse a release before expanded exposure, avoiding open-ended operator monitoring.

B:

Compliance events can trigger automated patch scheduling, but patch impact and business windows still determine safe execution. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of patch compliance event action, for which the relevant intervention is: Drive an approved patch remediation workflow from compliance findings with maintenance windows, staged rollout and exclusions. The scenario requires understanding failed deployment reversion, where codeDeploy can use deployment health signals to reverse a release before expanded exposure, avoiding open-ended operator monitoring.

D:

AppConfig controlled deployment strategies can monitor alarms and roll back configuration versions when customer health degrades. This reasoning supports the alternative topic of parameter change rollback, for which the relevant intervention is: Associate the rollout with meaningful CloudWatch health alarms and automatic configuration rollback rather than restarting every service manually. The scenario requires understanding failed deployment reversion, where codeDeploy can use deployment health signals to reverse a release before expanded exposure, avoiding open-ended operator monitoring.

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