Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate SAA-C03 Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part10 Q181-200

View Full Amazon AWS Certified Solutions Architect – Associate SAA-C03 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 181

Which AWS service is best suited for running SQL queries directly against data stored in Amazon S3 without loading the data into a database?

  1. Amazon RDS
  2. Amazon Redshift
  3. Amazon Athena
  4. Amazon DynamoDB

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

Amazon Athena is a serverless interactive query service that allows users to analyze data stored directly in Amazon S3 using standard SQL. It is particularly useful for ad hoc analysis, log analysis, and data lake workloads because organizations do not need to provision database servers. Athena can query various supported data formats and integrates with AWS Glue Data Catalog for metadata management. RDS and DynamoDB are databases, while Redshift is a managed data warehouse. Athena is therefore the best choice when SQL queries must run directly against S3 data.

Question 182

A company wants to automatically replace unhealthy EC2 instances while maintaining a desired number of instances. Which service should be configured?

  1. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling
  2. Amazon Route 53
  3. AWS Config
  4. Amazon CloudFront

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling can automatically monitor the health of instances in an Auto Scaling group and replace instances that become unhealthy. It can also maintain a configured minimum, maximum, and desired capacity. This capability helps applications remain available even when individual EC2 instances fail. Route 53 provides DNS and routing, AWS Config monitors resource configuration and compliance, and CloudFront provides content delivery. EC2 Auto Scaling is therefore the appropriate service when unhealthy instances must be automatically replaced while maintaining application capacity.

Question 183

Which storage option provides temporary block-level storage physically attached to the host running an EC2 instance?

  1. Amazon EFS
  2. Amazon S3
  3. Amazon EBS
  4. EC2 Instance Store

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation

EC2 Instance Store provides temporary block-level storage physically attached to the host computer running an EC2 instance. It offers very low-latency storage and can be useful for temporary data, caches, buffers, and workloads that can tolerate data loss. Instance Store data is generally lost when the associated instance is stopped, terminated, or when the underlying host fails. EBS provides persistent block storage, EFS provides shared file storage, and S3 provides object storage. Instance Store is therefore appropriate for temporary high-performance local storage.

Question 184

A company needs to encrypt data using customer-controlled encryption keys and wants centralized key management. Which AWS service should it use?

  1. AWS Secrets Manager
  2. AWS Key Management Service
  3. Amazon GuardDuty
  4. AWS CloudTrail

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

AWS Key Management Service (KMS) allows organizations to create and manage cryptographic keys used to protect data across AWS services and applications. Customer-managed KMS keys provide greater control over key policies, permissions, rotation settings, and usage. KMS integrates with services such as S3, EBS, RDS, and other AWS resources to support encryption at rest. Secrets Manager is designed for secrets, GuardDuty provides threat detection, and CloudTrail records API activity. KMS is therefore the appropriate service for centralized customer-controlled encryption key management.

Question 185

Which Route 53 routing policy distributes traffic across multiple resources according to assigned weights?

  1. Failover routing
  2. Geolocation routing
  3. Weighted routing
  4. Latency-based routing

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

Amazon Route 53 weighted routing allows DNS traffic to be distributed among multiple resources according to configured weights. For example, an organization could send 80 percent of traffic to one application endpoint and 20 percent to another. This capability is useful for gradual deployments, testing, and controlled traffic distribution. Failover routing is designed for primary and secondary endpoints, geolocation routing directs users based on geographic location, and latency-based routing selects resources based on network latency. Weighted routing is therefore the correct choice for proportional traffic distribution.

Question 186

A company needs a database that can automatically scale to handle unpredictable workloads without requiring database server management. Which option is most appropriate?

  1. Amazon DynamoDB
  2. Amazon EBS
  3. Amazon EFS
  4. Amazon Route 53

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Amazon DynamoDB is a fully managed NoSQL database designed for highly scalable applications requiring low-latency access. Its on-demand capacity mode can automatically handle changing traffic without requiring customers to provision capacity in advance. DynamoDB is suitable for key-value and document workloads and can scale horizontally as application demand changes. EBS and EFS are storage services, while Route 53 provides DNS capabilities. DynamoDB is therefore the most appropriate option when a managed database must handle unpredictable workloads with minimal infrastructure administration.

Question 187

Which AWS service provides a managed message broker compatible with protocols and technologies such as ActiveMQ and RabbitMQ?

  1. Amazon SNS
  2. Amazon SQS
  3. Amazon EventBridge
  4. Amazon MQ

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation

Amazon MQ is a managed message broker service designed for applications that depend on traditional messaging technologies such as Apache ActiveMQ and RabbitMQ. It can help organizations migrate existing messaging workloads to AWS without completely redesigning applications around cloud-native messaging services. SQS provides managed queues, SNS provides pub/sub messaging, and EventBridge routes events between applications and AWS services. Amazon MQ is therefore the best option when an application requires a managed broker compatible with established messaging protocols and technologies.

Question 188

Which AWS service can automatically detect configuration changes in AWS resources and evaluate them against compliance rules?

  1. AWS CloudTrail
  2. AWS Config
  3. Amazon CloudWatch
  4. AWS Organizations

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

AWS Config continuously records configuration details of supported AWS resources and can evaluate those configurations against compliance rules. Organizations can use Config to determine whether resources meet internal security or operational requirements and receive information when configurations change. CloudTrail focuses on API activity, CloudWatch provides monitoring and alarms, and AWS Organizations manages multiple AWS accounts. AWS Config is therefore the appropriate service when a company needs visibility into resource configurations and automated compliance evaluation.

Question 189

A web application requires a globally distributed content delivery network that caches static and dynamic content close to users. Which AWS service should be used?

  1. Amazon CloudFront
  2. AWS Direct Connect
  3. Amazon SQS
  4. Amazon RDS

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Amazon CloudFront is AWS’s content delivery network that distributes content through a global network of edge locations. It can cache static and dynamic content closer to users, reducing latency and improving application performance. CloudFront can integrate with origins such as S3 buckets, Application Load Balancers, and custom HTTP servers. Direct Connect provides private network connectivity, SQS provides message queuing, and RDS provides relational databases. CloudFront is therefore the appropriate solution for globally distributing cached application content to users with reduced network latency.

Question 190

Which AWS feature allows an application to access S3 privately from a VPC without routing traffic through an internet gateway or NAT Gateway?

  1. NAT Gateway
  2. Internet Gateway
  3. Gateway VPC Endpoint
  4. Transit Gateway

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

A Gateway VPC Endpoint allows resources in a VPC to privately access supported AWS services such as Amazon S3 and DynamoDB without requiring an Internet Gateway or NAT Gateway. Route table entries direct traffic to the endpoint, keeping communication within the AWS network. This can improve security and may reduce networking costs because internet-based NAT processing is not required for supported traffic. NAT Gateways provide outbound internet connectivity, Internet Gateways provide internet access, and Transit Gateway connects networks. A Gateway VPC Endpoint is therefore the correct choice.

Question 191

Which EC2 placement group is designed to distribute instances across separate underlying hardware to reduce the risk of simultaneous hardware failure?

  1. Cluster placement group
  2. Spread placement group
  3. Partition placement group
  4. Auto Scaling placement group

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

A spread placement group places instances on distinct underlying hardware to reduce the possibility that a single hardware failure affects multiple instances. It is useful for workloads where individual instances are critical and minimizing correlated hardware failures is important. Cluster placement groups place instances close together for low-latency networking, while partition placement groups distribute instances across logical partitions for large distributed workloads. Auto Scaling placement group is not a standard EC2 placement group type. Spread placement groups are therefore appropriate when hardware isolation is the primary requirement.

Question 192

Which AWS service provides a managed in-memory cache that can reduce database load and improve application response times?

  1. Amazon ElastiCache
  2. Amazon S3
  3. AWS CloudTrail
  4. Amazon Route 53

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Amazon ElastiCache provides managed in-memory caching using supported cache engines such as Redis and Memcached. Applications can store frequently accessed data in memory, allowing responses to be returned faster than repeatedly querying a database. Caching can reduce database workload and improve application scalability and latency. S3 provides object storage, CloudTrail records API activity, and Route 53 provides DNS services. ElastiCache is therefore the appropriate solution when an application needs a managed in-memory cache to improve performance and reduce database access.

Question 193

A company wants to receive notifications whenever an Amazon CloudWatch alarm enters an alarm state. Which service can deliver those notifications to multiple subscribers?

  1. Amazon S3
  2. Amazon SNS
  3. Amazon EBS
  4. AWS Config

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Amazon SNS is a managed publish/subscribe messaging service that can distribute notifications to multiple subscribers. A CloudWatch alarm can publish a message to an SNS topic when its state changes, and the topic can then deliver notifications through supported subscription methods. This enables organizations to notify operations teams or trigger downstream processing when monitored resources require attention. S3 provides object storage, EBS provides block storage, and Config evaluates resource configurations. SNS is therefore the appropriate service for distributing CloudWatch alarm notifications.

Question 194

Which AWS service provides a private, dedicated connection from an on-premises network to AWS without using the public internet?

  1. AWS Direct Connect
  2. Amazon CloudFront
  3. AWS WAF
  4. Amazon EventBridge

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

AWS Direct Connect establishes a dedicated network connection between an organization’s on-premises environment and AWS. It provides private connectivity and can offer more consistent network performance than internet-based connections. Direct Connect is commonly used for hybrid architectures, large data transfers, and workloads requiring predictable connectivity. CloudFront is a content delivery service, WAF protects web applications, and EventBridge provides event routing. Direct Connect is therefore the appropriate service when an organization requires dedicated private connectivity between its data center and AWS.

Question 195

Which AWS service allows applications to execute code in response to events without provisioning or managing servers?

  1. Amazon EC2
  2. Amazon ECS
  3. AWS Lambda
  4. Amazon RDS

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

AWS Lambda is a serverless compute service that runs code in response to events without requiring customers to provision or manage servers. Lambda automatically handles the underlying compute infrastructure and can scale execution based on incoming requests. It integrates with many AWS services, including S3, API Gateway, EventBridge, and DynamoDB. EC2 requires management of virtual servers, ECS provides container orchestration, and RDS provides managed relational databases. Lambda is therefore the appropriate choice for event-driven workloads requiring serverless execution.

Question 196

Which AWS service can protect an application from distributed denial-of-service attacks at the AWS edge and network layers?

  1. Amazon Macie
  2. AWS Shield
  3. AWS Config
  4. Amazon Inspector

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

AWS Shield is a managed DDoS protection service designed to help protect applications against distributed denial-of-service attacks. AWS Shield Standard provides automatic protection for many AWS services, while Shield Advanced provides enhanced protection, visibility, and additional capabilities for eligible resources. Macie focuses on sensitive data discovery, Config evaluates resource configurations, and Inspector identifies software vulnerabilities. AWS Shield is therefore the appropriate service when the primary requirement is protection against DDoS attacks targeting applications and network resources.

Question 197

Which database capability allows read-only copies of a database to handle additional read traffic?

  1. Multi-AZ failover
  2. Database encryption
  3. Read replicas
  4. Automated backups

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

Read replicas create additional read-only copies of a database that can serve read traffic independently from the primary database. This can improve application scalability when workloads contain a large number of read operations. Applications can direct suitable read queries to replicas while write operations continue using the primary database. Multi-AZ deployments primarily support high availability and failover, encryption protects data, and automated backups support recovery. Read replicas are therefore the appropriate database capability when the primary goal is to scale read-heavy workloads.

Question 198

A company needs to trigger different AWS services when specific application events occur, using rules based on event patterns. Which service should be used?

  1. Amazon EventBridge
  2. Amazon EBS
  3. Amazon EFS
  4. AWS Direct Connect

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Amazon EventBridge is a serverless event bus service that routes events from AWS services, applications, and supported external sources to targets based on configured rules. Rules can match specific event patterns and automatically invoke targets such as Lambda functions, Step Functions workflows, or other services. This supports loosely coupled event-driven architectures. EBS provides block storage, EFS provides shared file storage, and Direct Connect provides private network connectivity. EventBridge is therefore the appropriate service when applications need automated routing and processing based on specific events.

Question 199

Which disaster recovery approach maintains a fully operational environment in another AWS Region so traffic can be redirected quickly during a failure?

  1. Backup and restore
  2. Pilot light
  3. Warm standby
  4. Multi-site active-active

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation

A multi-site active-active disaster recovery architecture maintains fully operational application environments in multiple locations and allows traffic to be served from more than one site. This approach can provide very low recovery time because the secondary environment is already serving or ready to serve production traffic. It generally has higher operating costs than backup and restore, pilot light, or warm standby approaches. Warm standby maintains a scaled-down environment, while pilot light keeps only essential components active. Multi-site active-active is therefore suitable when very fast recovery is required.

Question 200

A company wants to grant an EC2 instance permissions to access an S3 bucket without storing long-term AWS access keys on the instance. Which solution should be used?

  1. IAM role attached to the EC2 instance
  2. AWS account root credentials
  3. Hard-coded IAM access keys
  4. S3 public access

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

An IAM role attached to an EC2 instance provides temporary security credentials that applications running on the instance can use to access authorized AWS resources. This eliminates the need to store long-term access keys in application code or configuration files and follows AWS security best practices. The role’s permissions should follow the principle of least privilege so the instance receives only the access it requires. Root credentials and hard-coded access keys create significant security risks, while public S3 access is inappropriate for controlled application access.