View Full CompTIA Server+ SK0-005 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 201.

Which server component provides temporary working space for active programs and operating-system processes?

1. System RAM
2. Firmware ROM
3. Storage cache
4. Bootloader memory

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

System RAM provides temporary working space for the operating system and running applications. Unlike persistent storage, RAM is volatile, meaning its contents are normally lost when the server loses power. The amount of available RAM affects how many applications and workloads can operate efficiently at the same time. Insufficient memory may cause increased paging or swapping, which can significantly reduce performance. Server administrators should consider workload requirements, supported memory capacity, module compatibility, and memory-channel configuration when planning upgrades. Monitoring memory utilization and pressure can also help determine whether additional RAM is actually required rather than assuming every performance problem is caused by insufficient memory.

Question 202.

Which processor feature allows a server CPU to execute multiple instruction streams concurrently?

1. Hardware virtualization
2. Simultaneous multithreading
3. Dynamic frequency scaling
4. Turbo boost

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Simultaneous multithreading, or SMT, allows a physical processor core to maintain and execute multiple instruction streams concurrently. The operating system can see these logical processors as additional processing resources. SMT can improve processor utilization when workloads contain suitable parallel operations, although performance gains depend heavily on the application and workload characteristics. It does not create additional physical CPU cores. Administrators should also consider licensing, virtualization behavior, workload sensitivity, and security requirements when deciding how logical processors should be presented to workloads. Processor features such as frequency scaling and virtualization serve different purposes from SMT.

Question 203.

Which storage interface is specifically designed for high-speed solid-state drives using PCIe lanes?

1. PATA
2. SAS
3. NVMe
4. USB

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Non-Volatile Memory Express, or NVMe, is a storage protocol designed specifically for non-volatile memory devices such as modern solid-state drives. NVMe commonly communicates through PCI Express, allowing SSDs to take advantage of high-bandwidth, low-latency connections. Compared with older storage protocols designed around spinning disks, NVMe supports many parallel command queues and is optimized for solid-state media. Enterprise NVMe devices are frequently used for demanding database, virtualization, analytics, and high-performance application workloads. Administrators should still verify motherboard support, drive form factor, firmware compatibility, thermal requirements, and operating-system support before deploying NVMe hardware.

Question 204.

Which RAID level provides disk mirroring without requiring parity calculations?

1. RAID 0
2. RAID 1
3. RAID 5
4. RAID 6

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

RAID 1 uses mirroring to maintain duplicate copies of data across two or more drives. Because the data is copied rather than calculated using parity, RAID 1 does not require parity-generation processing. If one mirrored drive fails, the surviving copy can continue providing access to the data, assuming the remaining hardware is healthy. The tradeoff is storage efficiency because usable capacity is lower than the combined raw capacity of all participating drives. RAID 1 is therefore often selected when straightforward redundancy is more important than maximizing usable storage space. Administrators should still maintain backups because RAID protects availability rather than replacing backup protection.

Question 205.

What does RAID striping primarily accomplish?

1. Distributing data across multiple drives
2. Encrypting every storage block
3. Compressing duplicate files
4. Creating an isolated backup network

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Striping divides data into portions and distributes those portions across multiple storage devices. By allowing several drives to participate in storage operations, striping can improve throughput and parallelize I/O activity. However, striping by itself does not provide fault tolerance because the loss of a participating drive can make affected data inaccessible. RAID 0 is a common example of pure striping without redundancy. Other RAID implementations combine striping with mirroring or parity to provide additional protection. Administrators should select a RAID design according to workload requirements, performance expectations, usable capacity, and tolerance for hardware failure.

Question 206.

Which storage metric describes the time required for an I/O operation to complete?

1. Throughput
2. Latency
3. Capacity
4. Utilization

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Storage latency measures the delay associated with completing an input/output operation. Lower latency generally means that individual requests receive responses more quickly. Latency is particularly important for applications that perform many small or interactive storage operations, such as transactional databases and virtualization platforms. Throughput instead measures how much data can be transferred over a period, while capacity describes how much data the storage system can hold. A storage system can therefore have high throughput but still exhibit latency that is unsuitable for a particular workload. Administrators should evaluate several metrics together when diagnosing storage performance.

Question 207.

Which cache policy writes data to persistent storage before confirming the write to the application?

1. Write-through caching
2. Write-back caching
3. Read-only caching
4. Predictive caching

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Write-through caching sends data to persistent storage before confirming the write operation to the requesting application. This approach provides a stronger consistency and durability model because the data is committed to the underlying storage before the operation is acknowledged. The tradeoff is that write performance may be lower than a properly protected write-back configuration. Write-back caching can acknowledge writes while they remain in cache and later flush them to storage, which can improve performance but introduces additional risk if the cache loses power. Administrators should select caching policies according to performance requirements and the protection available for cached data.

Question 208.

Which technology allows a storage volume to be presented to a server as a logical unit?

1. LUN
2. VLAN
3. NIC
4. VNIC

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A Logical Unit Number, or LUN, identifies a logical storage unit that can be presented to a server through a storage infrastructure. In SAN environments, administrators can provision storage and expose specific logical units to authorized hosts. The server operating system can then discover the presented storage and use it according to its configuration. LUNs are commonly associated with Fibre Channel and iSCSI environments. Administrators must carefully control which hosts can access each LUN because incorrect presentation or access configuration can expose data to unintended systems. Storage provisioning and host access policies should therefore be managed together.

Question 209.

What does SAN zoning primarily control?

1. Which storage-network endpoints can communicate
2. Which files applications can compress
3. Which processors can execute instructions
4. Which users can change desktop themes

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

SAN zoning controls communication relationships between devices or ports within a storage-area network fabric. By defining which initiators can communicate with which storage targets, zoning can improve isolation, reduce unnecessary traffic, and support controlled storage access. Zoning is generally configured at the fabric level, while LUN masking is commonly used to control which logical storage units are presented to particular hosts. These mechanisms serve related but distinct purposes. Proper SAN design often combines zoning and storage-level access controls to ensure that servers can reach only the storage resources they are intended to use.

Question 210.

Which backup property prevents stored backup data from being altered after creation?

1. Immutable retention
2. Temporary compression
3. Incremental indexing
4. Scheduled verification

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Immutable retention protects backup data from modification or deletion for a defined period. This feature can help defend backup copies against accidental changes, malicious activity, or ransomware that attempts to alter available recovery data. The exact implementation varies among backup platforms and storage systems. Some solutions use retention locks or object-storage controls that prevent modification until the retention period expires. Immutability does not eliminate the need for multiple backup copies, recovery testing, and appropriate access controls. Administrators should also ensure that retention policies meet organizational requirements and do not prevent legitimate recovery or lifecycle-management operations.

Question 211.

What is an air-gapped backup designed to achieve?

1. Physical or logical isolation from the production environment
2. Continuous synchronization with every production disk
3. Automatic expansion of server memory
4. Direct routing between storage networks

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

An air-gapped backup is isolated from the normal production environment so that it is not continuously accessible through ordinary network connections. This separation can help protect recovery data from threats that compromise connected production systems. Air gaps may involve removable media, disconnected storage, or specialized architectures that provide controlled access only when backup or recovery operations are performed. The objective is to maintain a recovery copy that cannot be easily reached by the same attack affecting production systems. Administrators must still manage the physical security, retention, integrity verification, and recovery procedures associated with isolated backups.

Question 212.

Which backup practice confirms that stored backup data can actually be recovered?

1. Restore testing
2. File renaming
3. Backup compression
4. Media labeling

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Restore testing verifies that backup data can be successfully recovered when needed. A backup job reporting successful completion does not automatically prove that the resulting data is usable. Restore tests can reveal problems such as corrupted backup sets, missing dependencies, incorrect permissions, incompatible software versions, or incomplete backup configurations. Organizations should perform tests appropriate to their recovery requirements and document the results. Testing can range from restoring individual files to rebuilding complete systems or applications. Regular validation gives administrators greater confidence that backup procedures will function during an actual recovery event.

Question 213.

Which recovery metric defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time?

1. RTO
2. RPO
3. MTTR
4. SLA

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Recovery Point Objective, or RPO, defines the maximum acceptable amount of data loss expressed as a period of time. For example, an RPO of one hour means the organization aims to recover data to a point no more than approximately one hour before the disruption, depending on the implementation. RPO influences backup frequency, replication design, and other data-protection mechanisms. Recovery Time Objective, or RTO, addresses a different requirement: how quickly a service should be restored. Administrators should consider both objectives when designing disaster-recovery strategies because minimizing data loss and minimizing downtime are separate operational goals.

Question 214.

Which recovery metric specifies how quickly a service should be restored after an outage?

1. RTO
2. RPO
3. IOPS
4. MTBF

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Recovery Time Objective, or RTO, specifies the targeted maximum time required to restore a service after a disruption. It is an important factor in determining the appropriate recovery architecture. Services with strict RTO requirements may need technologies such as clustering, redundant infrastructure, automated failover, or rapidly restorable backup systems. RTO should be defined according to business requirements rather than based solely on technical convenience. It differs from RPO, which addresses acceptable data loss. A service could have a very short RTO while still allowing a larger RPO, or it could require both rapid restoration and minimal data loss.

Question 215.

Which high-availability architecture keeps two service nodes actively processing workloads?

1. Active-active
2. Active-passive
3. Cold standby
4. Manual failover

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

An active-active architecture allows multiple nodes to actively provide service at the same time. Workloads may be distributed across the nodes using load balancing or another coordination mechanism. This can improve resource utilization while also providing redundancy if one node becomes unavailable. Active-passive designs differ because one node normally handles the workload while another remains available to take over when required. The correct architecture depends on application capabilities, licensing, synchronization requirements, and recovery objectives. Administrators must also ensure that shared data, session handling, and failover behavior are correctly designed rather than assuming that multiple active nodes automatically provide seamless availability.

Question 216.

What is a failover mechanism intended to do?

1. Move service operation to an available alternate resource
2. Permanently delete failed server records
3. Increase the physical size of a storage drive
4. Replace all network addressing schemes

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Failover transfers service operation from a failed or unavailable resource to another resource capable of providing the required function. The alternate resource may be another cluster node, network path, server, or infrastructure component. Effective failover depends on health detection, synchronization, configuration, and application support. Administrators should test failover procedures because theoretical redundancy does not guarantee that recovery will work correctly during an actual incident. Testing can identify problems such as stale configuration, unavailable dependencies, incorrect network settings, or data synchronization issues. Failover is therefore both a technical capability and an operational process that requires preparation.

Question 217.

Which network feature combines several physical links into one logical connection?

1. Link aggregation
2. Address translation
3. Packet inspection
4. Route filtering

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Link aggregation combines multiple physical network connections into a logical interface. Depending on the implementation, aggregation can increase available bandwidth and provide resilience if one physical link fails. The participating interfaces normally connect to compatible network devices and follow a supported aggregation protocol or configuration. Administrators should verify switch compatibility, hashing behavior, interface speeds, and failure handling before deployment. Link aggregation does not necessarily make one individual network flow use every physical link simultaneously; traffic distribution depends on the technology and hashing method. Its benefits are therefore best understood at the overall connection and workload level.

Question 218.

What does a DHCP reservation associate with a specific client?

1. A predictable IP address based on its hardware identifier
2. A permanent DNS root-server assignment
3. A fixed storage-controller queue
4. A unique processor frequency

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

A DHCP reservation associates a particular client identifier, commonly a MAC address, with a specific IP address in the DHCP server configuration. When the recognized client requests an address, the DHCP service can consistently provide the reserved address. This is useful for servers, printers, appliances, and other systems that benefit from predictable addressing while still using DHCP for configuration management. A reservation differs from manually configuring a static address because the DHCP server remains responsible for providing the network configuration. Administrators should document reservations carefully to avoid duplicate addresses and conflicting network assignments.

Question 219.

Which DNS tool is commonly used to query records directly from a DNS server?

1. dig
2. arp
3. netstat
4. route

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The dig utility is commonly used to perform DNS queries and inspect responses from DNS servers. Administrators can use it to examine record types, authoritative responses, TTL values, name-server information, and other DNS details. This makes it useful for troubleshooting issues involving name resolution, delegation, record changes, and DNS propagation. Unlike general network tools that inspect routes or local interfaces, dig focuses specifically on DNS behavior. Administrators can query particular record types or specify a DNS server directly, making the tool valuable when determining whether a problem originates from the client, resolver, or authoritative DNS infrastructure.

Question 220.

What is the primary purpose of a server capacity plan?

1. Forecasting future resource requirements
2. Recording employee vacation schedules
3. Replacing application authentication
4. Measuring rack screw torque

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Capacity planning evaluates current resource usage and forecasts future requirements so that infrastructure can be expanded before performance or availability becomes a problem. Administrators may analyze processor utilization, memory consumption, storage growth, network traffic, and workload trends. Good capacity planning considers expected business growth, seasonal demand, hardware procurement lead times, and available budget. Historical performance data can help identify patterns and establish realistic forecasts. Capacity planning is different from troubleshooting an immediate failure because its purpose is proactive preparation. Regular reviews help organizations avoid both resource shortages and unnecessary infrastructure purchases.