View Full CompTIA Tech+ FC0-U71 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 181.

Which type of software license generally allows users to inspect, modify, and redistribute source code according to the license terms?

1. Open-source license
   2. Proprietary license only
   3. Trialware license only
   4. Subscription license only

Correct Answer: 1. Open-source license

Explanation:

Open-source software licenses generally make source code available and permit users to inspect, modify, and redistribute the software according to specific license conditions. Different open-source licenses impose different obligations, so users should review the exact terms before redistributing modified software. Proprietary software typically restricts access to source code and modification rights. Trialware and subscription licensing describe usage or payment models rather than open-source rights. Understanding licensing helps organizations use software legally and choose technologies that fit their operational and development needs.

Question 182.

Which licensing model requires recurring payment to continue using a software product or service?

1. Public domain
   2. Subscription
   3. Open-source only
   4. Perpetual license only

Correct Answer: 2. Subscription

Explanation:

A subscription license typically requires recurring payment, such as monthly or annually, to maintain access to software or a service. Subscription products may include continuous updates, cloud storage, support, or other services. A perpetual license generally allows continued use of a purchased version without recurring licensing payments, although upgrades or support may cost extra. Open-source and public-domain software follow different licensing models. Understanding subscription licensing is important when estimating long-term software costs and planning renewals.

Question 183.

Which software development term describes a publicly documented set of rules that allows applications to communicate with one another?

1. BIOS
   2. RAID
   3. API
   4. UPS

Correct Answer: 3. API

Explanation:

An API, or Application Programming Interface, defines methods and rules that allow software components or applications to communicate. APIs can expose functions, data, or services while hiding internal implementation details. Web APIs are commonly used to connect applications with cloud services, payment systems, databases, and other platforms. BIOS, RAID, and UPS are unrelated technologies. APIs support software integration because developers can build functionality on top of existing services without needing direct access to their internal source code.

Question 184.

Which file format is commonly used to represent structured data in web APIs using name-and-value pairs?

1. JPEG
   2. MP3
   3. EXE
   4. JSON**

Correct Answer: 4. JSON

Explanation:

JSON, or JavaScript Object Notation, is a lightweight text format commonly used to exchange structured data between applications and web services. It represents information using objects, arrays, names, values, and other simple structures. JPEG is an image format, MP3 is an audio format, and EXE identifies executable files on Windows. JSON is popular because it is human-readable, relatively compact, and supported by many programming languages and platforms.

Question 185.

Which markup language is primarily used to structure the content of web pages?

1. HTML
   2. SQL
   3. SMTP
   4. DHCP

Correct Answer: 1. HTML

Explanation:

HTML, or Hypertext Markup Language, defines the structure and content of web pages. It uses elements to describe headings, paragraphs, links, images, lists, tables, forms, and other page components. CSS is commonly used for presentation and styling, while JavaScript can add interactive behavior. SQL is used with databases, SMTP handles email transmission, and DHCP provides network configuration. Understanding the roles of HTML, CSS, and JavaScript helps explain how modern websites are built.

Question 186.

Which web technology is primarily used to control the visual appearance and layout of HTML content?

1. SQL
   2. CSS
   3. DNS
   4. SMTP

Correct Answer: 2. CSS

Explanation:

CSS, or Cascading Style Sheets, controls the visual presentation of web content. It can define fonts, colors, spacing, alignment, responsive layouts, borders, and other design characteristics. HTML provides the page structure, while JavaScript is often used for interactive behavior. DNS and SMTP are networking services unrelated to web-page styling. Separating structure from presentation makes websites easier to maintain because one stylesheet can control the appearance of many pages.

Question 187.

Which language is commonly used in web browsers to add interactive behavior to websites?

1. CSS
   2. HTML only
   3. JavaScript
   4. RAID

Correct Answer: 3. JavaScript

Explanation:

JavaScript is widely used to add interactive and dynamic behavior to web pages. It can respond to user input, update content without reloading a page, validate forms, communicate with APIs, and control many browser-based application features. HTML defines page structure and CSS controls presentation. RAID is a storage technology. Modern web applications often combine HTML, CSS, and JavaScript so that structure, presentation, and interactive behavior can be developed separately.

Question 188.

Which term describes a software development process in which small changes are built, tested, and delivered repeatedly?

1. Static addressing
   2. Defragmentation
   3. Disk imaging
   4. Iterative development**

Correct Answer: 4. Iterative development

Explanation:

Iterative development builds software through repeated cycles in which features are planned, implemented, tested, reviewed, and improved. Instead of attempting to produce the entire final system in one step, teams deliver smaller pieces and use feedback to guide later work. This can reduce risk and make changes easier to manage. Static addressing, disk imaging, and defragmentation are unrelated technical concepts. Iterative approaches are common in modern software development because requirements and user needs often evolve over time.

Question 189.

Which term describes a copy of source code created so a developer can work on changes separately from the main version?

1. Branch
   2. Backup sector
   3. Network route
   4. Database record

Correct Answer: 1. Branch

Explanation:

A branch in version control creates a separate line of development so changes can be made without immediately affecting the main codebase. Developers often use branches for new features, bug fixes, experiments, or releases. After changes are tested and reviewed, they can be merged back into another branch. Branching supports collaboration because multiple developers can work on different changes at the same time while preserving a stable main version.

Question 190.

Which version-control action combines changes from one branch into another?

1. Compile
   2. Merge
   3. Encrypt
   4. Format

Correct Answer: 2. Merge

Explanation:

A merge combines changes from one branch with another branch in a version-control system. Teams commonly merge completed feature or bug-fix branches into a main development branch after review and testing. If two changes modify the same part of a file differently, a merge conflict may occur and require manual resolution. Compiling converts source code into another executable form, while encryption and formatting serve unrelated purposes.

Question 191.

Which testing approach verifies whether separate software components work correctly when connected together?

1. Unit testing only
   2. Physical security testing
   3. Integration testing
   4. Backup rotation

Correct Answer: 3. Integration testing

Explanation:

Integration testing verifies that separate software components work correctly when combined. Individual units may pass their own tests but still fail because of incorrect interfaces, data formats, assumptions, or communication between components. Unit testing focuses on smaller pieces independently, while integration testing focuses on their interactions. This is especially important in systems that rely on databases, APIs, authentication services, and other external components.

Question 192.

Which testing approach verifies whether a completed system satisfies the needs and expectations of its intended users?

1. Syntax checking
   2. Disk testing
   3. Cable testing
   4. User acceptance testing**

Correct Answer: 4. User acceptance testing

Explanation:

User acceptance testing, or UAT, evaluates whether a completed system meets business requirements and works as expected for its intended users. It usually occurs after lower-level testing has already confirmed much of the technical functionality. Real users or business representatives perform realistic tasks and determine whether the solution is acceptable for production use. Syntax checks and hardware tests serve different purposes. UAT helps ensure that technically functional software also solves the actual business problem.

Question 193.

Which database action permanently removes selected records from a table?

1. DELETE
   2. SELECT
   3. INSERT
   4. UPDATE

Correct Answer: 1. DELETE

Explanation:

DELETE removes selected records from a database table. It is often combined with a condition that identifies which rows should be removed. Because deleting data can be destructive, administrators should review conditions carefully and maintain appropriate backups or recovery options. SELECT retrieves records, INSERT adds records, and UPDATE modifies existing records. Access controls should also restrict who is allowed to delete important data.

Question 194.

Which SQL clause is commonly used to limit query results to records that meet a specified condition?

1. FROM only
   2. WHERE
   3. DROP
   4. CREATE

Correct Answer: 2. WHERE

Explanation:

The WHERE clause filters records according to one or more specified conditions. For example, a query might retrieve only customers from a particular city or only orders above a certain amount. WHERE can also be used with UPDATE and DELETE statements, making careful condition design important. DROP and CREATE are used for database objects rather than filtering individual records. Filtering allows applications to work with relevant subsets of large datasets efficiently.

Question 195.

Which database concept improves data retrieval performance by creating a structure optimized for searching particular fields?

1. Backup
   2. Encryption only
   3. Index
   4. Virtual machine

Correct Answer: 3. Index

Explanation:

A database index creates an additional structure that can make searches and sorting faster, similar to an index in a book. Indexes are especially useful for columns that are frequently searched, sorted, or used in relationships. However, indexes consume storage and can add overhead when data is inserted or updated, so they should be designed appropriately. Backups protect data, while encryption and virtualization address different concerns.

Question 196.

Which security practice requires users to change or reset access when an account is suspected to be compromised?

1. Ignore the incident
   2. Increase screen brightness
   3. Disable backups
   4. Credential reset**

Correct Answer: 4. Credential reset

Explanation:

When credentials are suspected to be compromised, resetting the affected password or other authentication secret helps prevent continued unauthorized access. Additional steps may include ending active sessions, reviewing MFA methods, examining account activity, and determining how the compromise occurred. Simply ignoring the event leaves the account exposed. Credential resets should be performed through trusted account-recovery processes rather than links supplied in suspicious messages.

Question 197.

Which security control records events such as login attempts, configuration changes, and application errors for later review?

1. Logging
   2. Compression
   3. Defragmentation
   4. Screen locking only

Correct Answer: 1. Logging

Explanation:

Logging records events generated by operating systems, applications, network devices, and security tools. Logs may show successful and failed login attempts, software errors, configuration changes, network activity, and other events. Administrators use them for troubleshooting, auditing, security investigations, and compliance. Logs should be protected against unauthorized modification and retained according to organizational requirements. Accurate system time is also important so events from multiple systems can be correlated correctly.

Question 198.

Which security practice examines recorded system activity to identify suspicious or unauthorized behavior?

1. Formatting
   2. Log review
   3. File compression
   4. Screen calibration

Correct Answer: 2. Log review

Explanation:

Log review involves examining recorded events to identify errors, abnormal behavior, security incidents, or policy violations. For example, repeated failed login attempts may indicate a password attack, while unexpected administrative changes may require investigation. Automated monitoring tools can help analyze large volumes of logs and generate alerts. Formatting, compression, and display calibration are unrelated. Logging is most useful when organizations actually review and respond to the information it produces.

Question 199.

Which physical security practice helps ensure visitors do not gain unrestricted access to sensitive areas?

1. Disable all door locks
   2. Leave server rooms open
   3. Escort or monitor visitors
   4. Share employee badges

Correct Answer: 3. Escort or monitor visitors

Explanation:

Visitor controls help prevent unauthorized people from accessing sensitive systems, offices, or equipment. Common practices include visitor badges, sign-in procedures, escorts, access restrictions, and monitored entry points. Sharing employee credentials or leaving secure areas unlocked defeats physical access controls. Physical security is important because direct access to computers or networking equipment can allow attackers to bypass some technical protections.

Question 200.

A user reports that an application stopped working immediately after a recent software update. What should the technician do first?

1. Replace the motherboard
   2. Delete all user files
   3. Disable every security control
   4. Confirm the symptoms and determine whether the update is related**

Correct Answer: 4. Confirm the symptoms and determine whether the update is related

Explanation:

The first troubleshooting step is to identify and verify the problem. The technician should reproduce the issue if possible, confirm when it began, determine what changed, and gather relevant error messages or logs. Because the issue appeared after an update, the update is a reasonable theory, but it should still be tested rather than assumed. Replacing hardware or disabling security without evidence can create additional problems. A structured troubleshooting process helps identify the actual root cause before corrective action is taken.