View Full Amazon AWS Certified Developer – Associate DVA-C02 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps.

 

Question 361

A developer wants to configure an S3 bucket so that an application can receive notifications when objects are created. Which destination can S3 event notifications directly invoke?

1. AWS Lambda
2. Amazon RDS
3. Amazon ElastiCache
4. Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Amazon S3 event notifications can send object-related events to supported destinations such as AWS Lambda, Amazon SQS, and Amazon SNS. A Lambda function can process the event and perform application-specific operations after an object is created. This event-driven approach avoids continuous polling of the bucket and allows processing to occur automatically. RDS and ElastiCache are database and caching services, while EC2 Auto Scaling manages compute capacity. Lambda is therefore a suitable destination when application code needs to react automatically to S3 object events.

Question 362

A developer wants to ensure that an SQS message is not processed by another consumer while the current consumer is working on it. Which setting controls this behavior?

1. Message retention period
2. Visibility timeout
3. Delivery delay
4. Maximum message size

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

SQS visibility timeout determines how long a message remains hidden from other consumers after it has been received. During this period, the consumer should process the message and delete it after successful completion. If the consumer fails to delete the message before the visibility timeout expires, the message becomes available again for another processing attempt. Message retention controls how long messages remain in the queue, delivery delay postpones initial availability, and maximum message size controls message size. Visibility timeout is therefore the key setting for controlling concurrent processing of received messages.

Question 363

A developer needs to retrieve multiple DynamoDB items that share the same partition key. Which operation should be used?

1. Scan
2. Query
3. GetItem
4. DeleteItem

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The DynamoDB Query operation retrieves multiple items based on a specific partition key and can optionally apply conditions to the sort key. Query is generally more efficient than Scan when the application knows the partition key required by the access pattern. GetItem retrieves a single item by its complete primary key, DeleteItem removes an item, and Scan examines items across a table or index. Query is therefore appropriate when an application needs to retrieve a collection of related items that share the same partition key.

Question 364

A developer wants to allow a Lambda function to write logs to CloudWatch Logs. Which permissions should the Lambda execution role include?

1. Appropriate CloudWatch Logs permissions
2. Amazon S3 DeleteObject only
3. Amazon DynamoDB Query only
4. Amazon ECR PullOnly

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A Lambda function requires appropriate CloudWatch Logs permissions through its execution role to create log streams and publish log events. AWS-managed or custom IAM policies can provide the required permissions while following least-privilege principles. Lambda can then write application output and runtime logs to CloudWatch Logs for monitoring and troubleshooting. S3 permissions control object operations, DynamoDB permissions control database access, and ECR permissions manage container image operations. CloudWatch Logs permissions are therefore required when the function needs to publish logs to the service.

Question 365

A developer wants to make a Lambda function accessible through a simple HTTPS endpoint with minimal API configuration. Which feature should be used?

1. Lambda function URL
2. Lambda layer
3. Lambda alias
4. Lambda destination

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Lambda function URLs provide a dedicated HTTPS endpoint for invoking a Lambda function. They are useful when an application needs a straightforward HTTP interface without requiring the additional API management features of API Gateway. Developers can configure authentication and resource-based permissions according to the application’s requirements. Lambda layers provide reusable dependencies, aliases provide named references to function versions, and destinations route asynchronous invocation results. A Lambda function URL is therefore appropriate when a simple HTTPS endpoint is required for direct function invocation.

Question 366

A developer wants to prevent unauthorized applications from accessing a private S3 bucket while allowing a specific IAM role to access its objects. Which mechanism should be used?

1. S3 bucket policy and IAM permissions
2. CloudWatch alarm
3. SQS visibility timeout
4. Lambda concurrency

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

S3 access can be controlled using IAM policies and S3 bucket policies. A bucket policy can explicitly allow or deny access for specific principals, while the IAM role also needs appropriate permissions for the requested operations. Keeping the bucket private and granting access only to required principals follows the principle of least privilege. CloudWatch alarms monitor metrics, SQS visibility timeout controls message processing, and Lambda concurrency limits function execution. Therefore, IAM permissions combined with an appropriate S3 bucket policy can provide controlled access to private objects.

Question 367

A developer needs to send the same application event to several independent processing systems. Which AWS service provides a fanout mechanism?

1. Amazon SNS
2. Amazon RDS
3. Amazon EFS
4. Amazon ECR

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Amazon SNS supports a publish/subscribe model that can distribute a published message to multiple subscribers. For example, an SNS topic can deliver the same event to multiple SQS queues, Lambda functions, or other supported endpoints. This provides a fanout architecture in which the producer does not need to know the details of each consumer. RDS provides relational databases, EFS provides shared file storage, and ECR stores container images. SNS is therefore appropriate when one application event needs to be distributed independently to multiple downstream systems.

Question 368

A developer wants to store a value such as an API endpoint as application configuration without placing it directly in source code. Which service can provide centralized parameter storage?

1. Amazon S3
2. AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
3. Amazon CloudFront
4. Amazon ECR

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store provides centralized storage for configuration values and parameters. Applications can retrieve parameters at runtime through AWS SDKs or other supported interfaces. This keeps configuration separate from application source code and allows different values to be used across environments. Parameter Store also supports SecureString parameters for values requiring encryption. S3 provides object storage, CloudFront provides content delivery, and ECR stores container images. Parameter Store is therefore suitable when developers need centralized and manageable application configuration.

Question 369

A developer needs to automatically retry a failed Step Functions task a specific number of times before handling the failure. Which state configuration should be used?

1. Retry
2. Catch
3. Wait
4. Choice

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

AWS Step Functions provides Retry configuration within task states to define how failed executions should be retried. Developers can specify parameters such as the error types to retry, the number of attempts, the interval between attempts, and the backoff rate. This is useful for transient failures where another attempt may succeed. Catch is used to route execution after an error according to configured handlers, Wait pauses execution, and Choice evaluates conditions. Retry is therefore the appropriate configuration when a Step Functions task should automatically attempt processing again.

Question 370

A developer wants to store a container image for an ECS task in a private AWS-managed registry. Which service should be used?

1. Amazon ECR
2. Amazon SQS
3. Amazon SNS
4. Amazon Route 53

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Amazon Elastic Container Registry, or ECR, provides managed repositories for storing container images. ECS task definitions can reference images stored in ECR, allowing containerized applications to be deployed using AWS-managed registry infrastructure. ECR integrates with IAM and other AWS services and supports private repositories. SQS provides message queuing, SNS provides notification and pub/sub messaging, and Route 53 provides DNS services. ECR is therefore the appropriate service for storing private container images that will be used by ECS workloads.

Question 371

A developer wants to prevent a Lambda function from consuming all available account concurrency and affecting other functions. Which setting should be configured?

1. Provisioned concurrency
2. Reserved concurrency
3. Lambda layer
4. Environment variable

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Reserved concurrency allows developers to reserve and limit the concurrent executions available to a specific Lambda function. Setting an appropriate reserved concurrency value prevents that function from consuming all available account concurrency and potentially affecting other functions. Provisioned concurrency addresses startup latency by keeping execution environments initialized, while layers provide shared dependencies and environment variables store configuration values. Reserved concurrency is therefore the appropriate setting when the primary requirement is controlling the maximum concurrent executions of a Lambda function.

Question 372

A developer needs to retrieve a secret from AWS Secrets Manager using a Lambda function. What should be configured first to authorize the function?

1. An IAM execution role with Secrets Manager permissions
2. An S3 lifecycle policy
3. A CloudFront distribution
4. An SQS delivery delay

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A Lambda function uses its execution role to obtain permissions for AWS API operations. To retrieve a secret from Secrets Manager, the role should have the necessary Secrets Manager permission, such as permission to retrieve the specific secret. Developers should restrict the permission to only the required secret and actions whenever possible. S3 lifecycle policies manage object retention, CloudFront distributes content, and SQS delivery delay controls message availability. An IAM execution role with appropriate Secrets Manager permissions is therefore required for authorized secret retrieval.

Question 373

A developer wants to configure an EventBridge rule that sends matching events to an SQS queue. Which component receives the matched event?

1. Event source
2. Event target
3. IAM user
4. Parameter Store

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

In Amazon EventBridge, a rule evaluates incoming events using an event pattern or schedule and sends matching events to configured targets. An SQS queue can be configured as a target, allowing matched events to enter the queue for asynchronous processing. The event source is where an event originates, while the target is the destination to which EventBridge sends the matching event. IAM users and Parameter Store serve different purposes. Therefore, the SQS queue is configured as the EventBridge event target.

Question 374

A developer needs to execute a Lambda function only after a specific condition in a workflow becomes true. Which Step Functions state can evaluate conditions and choose a path?

1. Task
2. Choice
3. Wait
4. Parallel

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The Step Functions Choice state evaluates configured conditions and directs workflow execution to the appropriate next state. This allows developers to implement branching logic based on values in the state input or other supported conditions. A Task state performs work, a Wait state pauses execution, and a Parallel state runs multiple branches concurrently. The Choice state is therefore appropriate when a workflow needs to select a processing path based on whether a specific condition is satisfied.

Question 375

A developer wants to monitor the age of records waiting to be processed by a Lambda function consuming from Kinesis. Which metric can help identify processing lag?

1. IteratorAge
2. Invocations
3. Duration
4. ConcurrentExecutions

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The Lambda IteratorAge metric can help identify how far behind a stream-processing Lambda function is from the latest records in an event source such as Kinesis. A growing IteratorAge can indicate that the function is not processing incoming records quickly enough relative to the arrival rate. Invocations measures invocation activity, Duration measures execution time, and ConcurrentExecutions measures concurrent Lambda executions. IteratorAge is therefore useful when monitoring processing lag for Lambda functions consuming records from stream-based event sources.

Question 376

A developer wants to use different Lambda function versions for production and testing while keeping stable version references. Which feature should be used?

1. Lambda aliases
2. Lambda layers
3. Lambda destinations
4. CloudWatch Logs

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Lambda aliases provide stable names that point to specific published function versions. For example, an application can use a production alias pointing to one version while a testing alias points to another. Developers can update the aliases without changing clients that reference the alias name. Lambda layers manage shared dependencies, destinations route asynchronous invocation results, and CloudWatch Logs stores application logs. Aliases are therefore appropriate when multiple Lambda versions need stable references for environments such as testing and production.

Question 377

A developer needs to encrypt data using a customer-controlled key and wants to audit usage of that key. Which AWS service should be used?

1. AWS KMS
2. Amazon SQS
3. Amazon CloudFront
4. Amazon Route 53

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

AWS Key Management Service provides managed cryptographic keys and controls for encrypting and decrypting data. KMS key usage can be monitored and audited through AWS logging and monitoring integrations such as CloudTrail. Developers can define IAM and key policies to control which principals can use a key. SQS provides messaging, CloudFront provides content delivery, and Route 53 provides DNS services. AWS KMS is therefore appropriate when an application requires managed encryption keys together with controlled access and auditable key usage.

Question 378

A developer wants to deploy a new application version while gradually shifting traffic from the old version to the new version. Which deployment strategy supports gradual traffic shifting?

1. Canary deployment
2. S3 lifecycle transition
3. SQS long polling
4. DynamoDB Scan

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A canary deployment introduces a new application version to a limited portion of traffic before increasing its exposure. This allows developers to observe the new version’s behavior and metrics before directing additional traffic to it. Canary strategies can be implemented using supported AWS deployment services and traffic-routing mechanisms. S3 lifecycle transitions manage object storage classes, SQS long polling manages message retrieval, and DynamoDB Scan retrieves database items. Canary deployment is therefore the strategy suited to gradually shifting traffic while monitoring the new application version.

Question 379

A developer wants an application to continue processing messages even when one message repeatedly causes processing failures. Which SQS feature can isolate the problematic message?

1. Dead-letter queue
2. Long polling
3. Delivery delay
4. Queue encryption

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

An SQS dead-letter queue can isolate messages that repeatedly fail processing. The source queue’s redrive policy can specify a maximum receive count, after which a problematic message is moved to the dead-letter queue. This prevents the same failed message from repeatedly interfering with normal message processing and gives developers a separate location for investigation or recovery. Long polling reduces empty receives, delivery delay postpones initial message availability, and encryption protects stored messages. A dead-letter queue is therefore appropriate for isolating repeatedly failed messages.

Question 380

A developer wants to automatically build, test, and deploy application changes through a managed CI/CD workflow. Which AWS service can orchestrate the different stages of this process?

1. AWS CodePipeline
2. Amazon DynamoDB
3. Amazon S3 Glacier
4. Amazon ElastiCache

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

AWS CodePipeline provides a managed continuous delivery service that can orchestrate stages such as source retrieval, building, testing, and deployment. It can integrate with services including CodeBuild and CodeDeploy to create automated software delivery workflows. DynamoDB provides NoSQL database capabilities, S3 Glacier storage classes provide archival storage, and ElastiCache provides in-memory caching. CodePipeline is therefore appropriate when a developer needs to coordinate multiple CI/CD stages into an automated application delivery process.