ISC CSSLP Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps Part14 Q261-280

View Full ISC CSSLP Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 261.

A development team is defining a requirement for sensitive audit records. Which requirement is MOST appropriate?

  1. Audit records should be available to every application user
  2. Security-relevant audit records must be protected from unauthorized modification and access
  3. Logs should be deleted immediately after creation
  4. Audit records should contain user passwords for troubleshooting

Correct Answer: 2. Security-relevant audit records must be protected from unauthorized modification and access

Explanation:

Audit records support accountability, monitoring, investigations, and incident response. Their value depends on both confidentiality and integrity. Unauthorized users should not be able to alter, delete, or view sensitive logs without permission. Centralized collection, restricted access, reliable timestamps, retention requirements, and integrity monitoring can strengthen protection. Logging should also avoid collecting unnecessary credentials or sensitive data that could create additional exposure.

Question 262.

A web service processes a client-supplied integer that determines memory allocation size. Which secure coding practice is MOST important?

  1. Validate the numeric range before performing the allocation
  2. Increase the server’s physical memory
  3. Store the number in a cookie
  4. Disable exception handling

Correct Answer: 1. Validate the numeric range before performing the allocation

Explanation:

User-controlled numeric values can trigger integer overflow, excessive allocation, or resource-exhaustion conditions. The application should validate acceptable minimum and maximum values before calculations or memory operations and use data types that safely represent the expected range. Arithmetic operations should also be checked where overflow is possible. Adding hardware resources does not correct unsafe handling of untrusted numeric input.

Question 263.

A software architect wants to understand which assets would be most attractive to an attacker and how they could be reached. Which activity is MOST appropriate?

  1. Code formatting review
  2. Capacity planning
  3. Threat modeling and attack-path analysis
  4. User-interface prototyping

Correct Answer: 3. Threat modeling and attack-path analysis

Explanation:

Threat modeling identifies valuable assets, likely threats, trust boundaries, entry points, and security controls. Attack-path analysis extends this by considering how an attacker could move through interconnected components toward sensitive targets. Performing this work during design can expose structural weaknesses before implementation becomes expensive to change. The results can guide architecture, security requirements, testing, and monitoring.

Question 264.

An application detects that a message authentication code on a sensitive request is invalid. What should it do?

  1. Process the request because it arrived over TLS
  2. Attempt to repair the request automatically
  3. Accept the request if the user is known
  4. Reject the request because message integrity cannot be established

Correct Answer: 4. Reject the request because message integrity cannot be established

Explanation:

An invalid message authentication code indicates that the message may have been modified or was not produced by a party possessing the expected secret. The application should reject the request and record the event appropriately. Transport encryption does not justify accepting data that fails an application-level integrity check. Repeated failures may also warrant monitoring or investigation for active tampering.

Question 265.

Which design principle recommends granting access only when it has been explicitly permitted?

  1. Fail-safe defaults
  2. Open design
  3. Economy of mechanism
  4. Least common mechanism

Correct Answer: 1. Fail-safe defaults

Explanation:

Fail-safe defaults establish denial as the normal state and require access to be granted explicitly. This reduces the chance that missing or incomplete configuration unintentionally creates access. Examples include disabling unnecessary services, denying unrecognized roles, and requiring explicit authorization for sensitive resources. The principle is closely related to secure defaults and should be applied consistently across software and supporting infrastructure.

Question 266.

A software team wants to protect API credentials used by automated workloads. Which approach is BEST?

  1. Share one permanent credential among every workload
  2. Use distinct workload identities with narrowly scoped permissions and short-lived credentials where possible
  3. Store credentials in public configuration files
  4. Embed credentials in container images

Correct Answer: 2. Use distinct workload identities with narrowly scoped permissions and short-lived credentials where possible

Explanation:

Distinct workload identities support least privilege, accountability, and independent revocation. Short-lived credentials reduce the useful lifetime of stolen secrets and can remove the need to distribute static passwords or API keys. Permissions should be limited to each workload’s required operations. Shared permanent credentials create a larger blast radius and make compromise harder to investigate and contain.

Question 267.

A web application accepts rich text from users. Which security approach is MOST appropriate when some HTML formatting must be supported?

  1. Display all submitted HTML without modification
  2. Disable authentication
  3. Sanitize content with a trusted allowlist-based mechanism before rendering
  4. Store the HTML in a public file

Correct Answer: 3. Sanitize content with a trusted allowlist-based mechanism before rendering

Explanation:

When an application intentionally supports a limited subset of HTML, simple output encoding may remove required formatting. A trusted HTML sanitizer can allow known-safe elements and attributes while removing scripts, dangerous URLs, event handlers, and other active content. Sanitization should use maintained libraries rather than custom regular expressions. Content security policy can provide an additional defense-in-depth layer.

Question 268.

A software team discovers that its build server can directly modify production databases. What is the BEST improvement?

  1. Give the build server additional administrative privileges
  2. Disable build logging
  3. Use the same account for builds and production administration
  4. Separate build responsibilities from production privileges and enforce least privilege

Correct Answer: 4. Separate build responsibilities from production privileges and enforce least privilege

Explanation:

Build infrastructure is highly sensitive but should not automatically receive unrelated production privileges. A compromised build server with direct database administration rights could create widespread impact. Separate identities, scoped permissions, deployment stages, and controlled promotion mechanisms reduce this risk. Production access should be granted only to components and processes that genuinely require it.

Question 269.

What is the PRIMARY security value of performing a design review before substantial coding begins?

  1. Identify architectural weaknesses while they are still relatively inexpensive to correct
  2. Eliminate the need for later testing
  3. Guarantee that implementation defects cannot occur
  4. Replace security requirements

Correct Answer: 1. Identify architectural weaknesses while they are still relatively inexpensive to correct

Explanation:

Design reviews can identify insecure trust assumptions, weak authorization boundaries, unsafe data flows, missing security controls, and inappropriate technology choices before those decisions are deeply embedded in code. Correcting an architectural problem after deployment can require major redesign. Design review should complement requirements analysis, code review, testing, and operational monitoring rather than replace them.

Question 270.

A software application uses one encryption key for both data encryption and message authentication. What is the BEST practice?

  1. Use the same key for all cryptographic purposes indefinitely
  2. Use appropriate key separation according to the cryptographic design and approved standards
  3. Publish the shared key to simplify troubleshooting
  4. Store the key with the encrypted data without protection

Correct Answer: 2. Use appropriate key separation according to the cryptographic design and approved standards

Explanation:

Cryptographic keys should generally be used only for their intended purpose. Reusing the same key across different algorithms or security functions can create unintended interactions and weaken assurance. Approved protocols and cryptographic libraries often implement appropriate key derivation or separation automatically. Developers should follow established cryptographic guidance instead of creating custom key-management schemes.

Question 271.

A team wants to identify whether a security fix has introduced a functional defect in another part of the application. Which testing approach is MOST useful?

  1. Security testing only
  2. Code formatting checks
  3. Functional and security regression testing
  4. Marketing review

Correct Answer: 3. Functional and security regression testing

Explanation:

Security patches can affect existing functionality, while ordinary feature changes can also reintroduce security weaknesses. Running both functional and security regression suites helps verify that the fix works while existing behavior remains correct. Automated regression testing can provide rapid feedback, especially when tests are added for previously discovered vulnerabilities. High-risk changes may also require focused manual review.

Question 272.

A production API accidentally exposes a development-only endpoint that bypasses normal authorization. What is the BEST action?

  1. Hide the endpoint from documentation
  2. Rename the endpoint
  3. Allow only users who know the URL to access it
  4. Remove or disable the development endpoint and verify production deployment controls

Correct Answer: 4. Remove or disable the development endpoint and verify production deployment controls

Explanation:

Development and test functionality should not be accessible in production when it bypasses normal protections. Obscure URLs are not reliable security controls because attackers can discover endpoints through scanning, application code, logs, or documentation. The team should remove the endpoint, investigate whether it was abused, and strengthen build or deployment checks to prevent similar exposure.

Question 273.

Which requirement BEST supports privacy by design?

  1. Collect only personal information necessary for a defined purpose and retain it only as required
  2. Collect every available attribute for future use
  3. Retain all personal information indefinitely
  4. Share customer information broadly within the organization

Correct Answer: 1. Collect only personal information necessary for a defined purpose and retain it only as required

Explanation:

Privacy by design incorporates privacy considerations into requirements and architecture rather than treating them as an afterthought. Data minimization and appropriate retention reduce exposure, breach impact, and compliance burden. Teams should understand why information is collected, who may access it, how long it is needed, and how it will eventually be deleted or anonymized.

Question 274.

A system uses a message authentication code to protect requests. What security property does this MOST directly provide when the shared secret remains protected?

  1. Availability only
  2. Message integrity and authentication
  3. Data compression
  4. Anonymous access

Correct Answer: 2. Message integrity and authentication

Explanation:

A message authentication code allows parties sharing a secret to detect unauthorized modification and verify that the message was generated by someone possessing the secret. It does not inherently encrypt the message, so confidentiality requires a separate or combined encryption mechanism. Key management is critical because anyone with the MAC key can generate apparently valid messages.

Question 275.

A development organization wants to improve security of code changes made by automated bots. Which control is MOST appropriate?

  1. Give every bot unrestricted repository privileges
  2. Disable review for bot-generated changes
  3. Use scoped bot identities, branch protections, automated tests, and required review for sensitive changes
  4. Share developer credentials with automation tools

Correct Answer: 3. Use scoped bot identities, branch protections, automated tests, and required review for sensitive changes

Explanation:

Automation should use dedicated identities with only the permissions necessary for its tasks. Bot-generated changes can still introduce vulnerabilities or malicious dependencies, so branch protections and appropriate review should remain in place. Separate identities improve accountability and make credentials easier to rotate or revoke. Human credentials should not be reused by automated systems.

Question 276.

A software system must protect against replay of previously valid authentication messages. Which control is MOST appropriate?

  1. Use longer usernames
  2. Disable encryption
  3. Accept duplicate messages indefinitely
  4. Use freshness controls such as nonces, sequence numbers, or timestamps**

Correct Answer: 4. Use freshness controls such as nonces, sequence numbers, or timestamps

Explanation:

Authentication and integrity alone do not always prove that a message is new. Attackers may capture a valid message and resend it later. Nonces, sequence numbers, timestamps, or similar freshness controls can help servers detect duplicates or stale requests. These values should be protected by the same authentication or integrity mechanism as the rest of the message.

Question 277.

A software security team wants to determine whether users have accumulated unnecessary permissions over time. Which activity is BEST?

  1. Periodic access and privilege reviews
  2. Performance testing
  3. Source-code compilation
  4. Database backup testing

Correct Answer: 1. Periodic access and privilege reviews

Explanation:

Permissions often accumulate as users change jobs, projects, or responsibilities. Periodic access reviews compare current privileges with legitimate business needs and identify excessive, obsolete, or conflicting access. This supports least privilege and separation of duties. Reviews are especially important for administrative roles, production access, sensitive data, and service identities with broad permissions.

Question 278.

A development team must choose between writing a custom authentication framework and using a mature supported framework. Which option is generally BEST?

  1. Always create a custom framework because it is less familiar to attackers
  2. Prefer a mature, supported, well-vetted framework that meets security requirements
  3. Avoid authentication entirely
  4. Store authentication logic only in client-side code

Correct Answer: 2. Prefer a mature, supported, well-vetted framework that meets security requirements

Explanation:

Authentication is complex and security-critical. Mature frameworks usually benefit from broader testing, maintenance, vulnerability response, and established integration patterns. Teams should still configure them correctly, monitor advisories, and verify that their capabilities satisfy application requirements. Custom authentication should be avoided unless there is a compelling need and sufficient expertise to design, review, and maintain it securely.

Question 279.

A software team discovers that two microservices trust each other solely because they are on the same internal network. What is the BEST improvement?

  1. Continue trusting all internal traffic automatically
  2. Remove all service identities
  3. Authenticate service identities and authorize each required interaction explicitly
  4. Disable network monitoring

Correct Answer: 3. Authenticate service identities and authorize each required interaction explicitly

Explanation:

Network location alone is a weak basis for trust because attackers who compromise one internal component may move laterally. Services should establish authenticated identities and enforce least-privileged authorization for each interaction. Protected transport, segmentation, workload identities, and monitoring can provide additional defense. Internal communication should be treated as a security boundary where appropriate.

Question 280.

Which practice BEST demonstrates continuous software security assurance after production release?

  1. Stop testing when customers begin using the product
  2. Address only vulnerabilities that are publicly exploited
  3. Depend entirely on the original threat model
  4. Monitor vulnerabilities, dependencies, operational controls, incidents, and changing threats throughout support

Correct Answer: 4. Monitor vulnerabilities, dependencies, operational controls, incidents, and changing threats throughout support

Explanation:

Security conditions change after release as new vulnerabilities are discovered, dependencies age, configurations drift, and attacker techniques evolve. Mature assurance therefore includes continuous monitoring, vulnerability management, incident learning, dependency review, and reassessment of security assumptions. Security responsibility continues until the software is formally retired and remaining credentials, data, and access paths are addressed.