View Full CompTIA 220-1202 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps.

 

Question 321

Which Windows feature allows a technician to start the operating system with a limited set of drivers and services for troubleshooting?

1. Disk Management
2. Safe Mode
3. Storage Spaces
4. Credential Manager

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Safe Mode starts Windows with a limited set of drivers and services, making it useful for troubleshooting problems caused by software, drivers, or startup components. If a computer works normally in Safe Mode but fails during a regular startup, a recently installed driver, application, or startup service may be responsible. Technicians can use this environment to remove problematic software, investigate configuration changes, or perform additional diagnostics. Safe Mode is a troubleshooting environment rather than a permanent operating mode and should normally be exited after the underlying issue is addressed.

Question 322

Which Windows tool can be used to configure applications and services that start automatically with the operating system?

1. Character Map
2. Task Manager
3. Disk Cleanup
4. Snipping Tool

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Task Manager provides a Startup section that allows technicians to review applications configured to launch automatically when Windows starts. Disabling unnecessary startup applications can reduce boot time and free system resources. Before disabling an item, the technician should identify what it does and determine whether it is required by the operating system or another application. Some startup programs provide security, synchronization, or hardware functionality. Changes should be made carefully and documented when appropriate, particularly on business systems where standard configurations are required.

Question 323

Which Windows command can display the IP configuration of all network adapters, including DNS and DHCP information?

1. ipconfig /all
2. shutdown /r
3. tasklist /v
4. chkdsk /f

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The ipconfig /all command displays detailed TCP/IP configuration information for network adapters. The output can include IPv4 and IPv6 addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, DNS servers, DHCP status, and physical adapter information. This makes the command useful when diagnosing connectivity, addressing, and name-resolution problems. A technician can compare the displayed settings with the organization’s expected network configuration. If values are missing or incorrect, the technician can investigate DHCP, adapter configuration, cabling, wireless connectivity, or other relevant causes before changing settings.

Question 324

A Windows user cannot access a shared folder, while other users can access it normally. What should the technician check first?

1. Monitor refresh rate
2. User permissions
3. Printer toner
4. Screen resolution

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

If other users can access a shared folder but one particular user cannot, the technician should examine that user’s permissions and account membership. Access may depend on both share permissions and NTFS permissions when the resource is hosted on a Windows system. The technician should verify the user’s identity, group memberships, and effective permissions without granting unnecessary access. Security settings should not be weakened simply to resolve the problem. After correcting an appropriate permission issue, the technician should test access and document the change.

Question 325

Which Windows component is responsible for managing installed hardware drivers?

1. Device Manager
2. Event Viewer
3. Disk Cleanup
4. Resource Monitor

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Device Manager provides a centralized interface for viewing and managing hardware devices and their associated drivers in Windows. Technicians can use it to identify devices with errors, update drivers, disable devices, uninstall drivers, or inspect hardware properties. Warning symbols can indicate configuration or driver problems, but the technician should investigate the specific device before making changes. Installing an incorrect driver can create additional instability. When troubleshooting hardware, technicians should obtain drivers from approved and trustworthy sources and confirm compatibility with the operating system and hardware model.

Question 326

Which command can verify whether a Windows computer can reach another host over an IP network?

1. format
2. ping
3. sfc
4. gpupdate

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The ping command sends network packets to a specified host and reports whether responses are received. It can help determine basic network reachability and measure response times. A technician can use it to test a local interface, default gateway, remote host, or other network destination. However, a failed ping does not always prove that the destination is offline because firewalls may block ICMP traffic. Therefore, ping results should be considered alongside other tests such as DNS resolution, routing information, and application-specific connectivity.

Question 327

Which Windows utility can identify applications or processes that are consuming excessive memory?

1. Task Manager
2. Paint
3. Registry Editor
4. Disk Management

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Task Manager provides information about memory usage by running applications and processes. When a computer becomes sluggish or applications begin reporting insufficient memory, technicians can use the Processes or Details views to identify unusually high memory consumption. The technician should determine whether the process is legitimate and whether the behavior is expected before terminating it. Repeatedly high usage may indicate a memory leak, excessive workload, poorly configured software, or malicious activity. Additional monitoring may be necessary to determine whether the condition occurs consistently.

Question 328

Which Windows command can refresh computer and user Group Policy settings?

1. netstat
2. gpupdate
3. hostname
4. tracert

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The gpupdate command forces Windows to refresh applicable Group Policy settings rather than waiting for the normal policy refresh interval. It can be useful after an administrator changes a policy and needs the affected computer or user to receive the updated configuration. Depending on the policy, a restart or user sign-out may still be required. Technicians should confirm that the computer is connected to the appropriate network and domain resources when policy updates fail. Policy changes should also follow organizational change-management procedures.

Question 329

Which Windows utility can show detailed information about current network connections and listening ports?

1. netstat
2. mkdir
3. passwd
4. whoami

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The Windows netstat command can display active network connections, listening ports, and related network information. It can help technicians identify which connections are established and determine whether a service is listening on a particular port. This information can be useful during troubleshooting or security investigations. Technicians should interpret the results carefully because legitimate applications can create many network connections. If an unfamiliar connection or listening port appears, the technician should identify the associated process and investigate according to organizational security procedures before taking action.

Question 330

Which Windows recovery environment can provide tools for repairing startup problems?

1. Windows Recovery Environment
2. Microsoft Paint
3. Disk Cleanup
4. Calculator

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Windows Recovery Environment, commonly called WinRE, provides several recovery and troubleshooting tools for systems that cannot start normally. Depending on the situation, it can provide access to Startup Repair, System Restore, command-line tools, uninstall options, and other recovery functions. Technicians should select the least disruptive recovery method that addresses the problem. For example, a startup repair operation may be preferable to reinstalling the operating system when boot configuration is damaged. Important data and organizational recovery procedures should be considered before performing major recovery operations.

Question 331

Which Linux command changes the owner of a file or directory?

1. chmod
2. chown
3. grep
4. df

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

The Linux chown command changes the ownership of a file or directory. Ownership can affect which users and groups are permitted to access or modify resources. A technician may need to use chown when an application or user cannot access a file because ownership is incorrect. Changes should be made carefully because assigning ownership to the wrong account can create security or functionality problems. Before changing ownership, the technician should verify the intended account, group, and permission requirements and confirm that the modification follows organizational policies.

Question 332

Which Linux command creates a new directory?

1. cp
2. mv
3. mkdir
4. kill

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

The Linux mkdir command creates a new directory in the specified location. It is commonly used when organizing files, preparing application directories, or creating locations for user data. The technician must have sufficient permissions to create the directory in the selected location. Before executing the command, verifying the current working directory with pwd can help prevent accidental creation in the wrong location. Directory permissions should also be configured appropriately so that only authorized users or processes can access or modify the resulting content.

Question 333

Which Linux command can display information about currently running processes?

1. ps
2. passwd
3. mount
4. cp

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

The Linux ps command provides information about currently running processes. Depending on the options used, it can display process IDs, users, CPU or memory information, and command details. Technicians can use this information to identify whether a particular application or service is running and to locate its process ID for further troubleshooting. Because different command options provide different levels of detail, technicians should select an appropriate form for the task. Processes should not be terminated without first determining their purpose and potential impact.

Question 334

Which macOS security feature helps prevent unauthorized applications from running by verifying software sources and developer information?

1. Time Machine
2. Gatekeeper
3. Spotlight
4. Finder

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Gatekeeper is a macOS security feature that helps protect users from potentially unsafe applications by applying controls to software based on factors such as its source and developer verification. When an application is blocked, users should not immediately bypass the warning without determining why the software was restricted. Technicians should verify that software comes from a legitimate source and is appropriate for the organization’s environment. Security controls should remain enabled unless there is a documented reason and authorized procedure for changing them.

Question 335

Which macOS application can manage stored passwords, certificates, and other secure credentials?

1. Keychain Access
2. Disk Utility
3. Activity Monitor
4. Console

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Keychain Access is used by macOS to manage securely stored credentials and other sensitive information, including passwords, certificates, and cryptographic keys. Technicians may use it when troubleshooting authentication problems or inspecting credentials associated with supported services. Because Keychain data can contain sensitive information, access should be handled carefully and only by authorized personnel. A technician should avoid unnecessarily exposing stored passwords or copying confidential credential information. When authentication problems occur, the technician should determine whether the issue involves the account, stored credentials, permissions, or the service itself.

Question 336

Which mobile security control requires a user to enter a PIN, password, or pattern before accessing a device?

1. Screen lock
2. NFC
3. Hotspot
4. GPS

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A screen lock protects a mobile device by requiring authentication before the user can access its contents. Common methods include PINs, passwords, patterns, and biometric authentication. A properly configured screen lock reduces the risk of unauthorized access if the device is lost or stolen. Organizations may enforce minimum complexity, automatic locking intervals, and failed-attempt policies through mobile-device management. Technicians should ensure that users understand the importance of maintaining secure authentication and should avoid recommending easily guessed PINs or patterns.

Question 337

Which technology allows an organization to centrally enforce security settings and application policies on company-owned mobile devices?

1. Bluetooth
2. MDM
3. NFC
4. GPS

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation

Mobile Device Management, or MDM, allows organizations to centrally manage and enforce policies on supported mobile devices. Administrators can use MDM to configure security requirements, manage applications, enforce screen-lock settings, restrict certain functions, and support actions such as remote locking or data removal. Centralized management improves consistency across large numbers of devices. Technicians should enroll devices according to organizational procedures and verify that policies are applied successfully. Users should also understand which device functions may be controlled by the organization.

Question 338

Which type of social engineering uses a phone call to trick a victim into revealing sensitive information?

1. Vishing
2. Smishing
3. Tailgating
4. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

Vishing is voice-based phishing in which an attacker uses a phone call or voice communication to deceive a victim. The attacker may impersonate a bank employee, technical-support representative, government agency, or coworker and attempt to obtain passwords, verification codes, or financial information. Users should independently verify unexpected requests instead of trusting caller identification or information supplied by the caller. Organizations can reduce vishing risks through security awareness training and clear reporting procedures. Technicians should document suspected attacks and escalate them according to incident-response policies.

Question 339

Which backup strategy stores changes made since the last full backup?

1. Differential backup
2. Incremental backup
3. Full backup
4. Mirrorless backup

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation

A differential backup stores data that has changed since the most recent full backup. As additional differential backups are created, each one generally contains all changes made since that full backup, causing the backup size to increase over time until the next full backup. During restoration, the most recent full backup and the desired differential backup are typically required. This differs from an incremental strategy, where each incremental backup contains changes since the previous backup. Technicians should understand the organization’s backup schedule and restoration requirements before selecting a method.

Question 340

A technician is about to replace a user’s storage drive. What should be completed before removing the existing drive?

1. Disable every account permanently
2. Delete all recovery information
3. Verify that required data is backed up
4. Remove the computer from all networks

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation

Before replacing a storage drive, the technician should verify that required user and organizational data has been successfully backed up or otherwise preserved. A backup should not merely be assumed to exist; the technician should confirm that the appropriate data is present and usable according to company procedures. If necessary, important files should be restored or verified before the original drive is removed. This precaution reduces the risk of permanent data loss if the old drive fails during the replacement process or if an expected backup is incomplete.