View Full CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Exam Dumps and Practice Test Dumps

 

Question 1.

A technician needs to install Windows 11 on a computer. Which requirement is associated with Windows 11 security and hardware compatibility?

1. TPM 2.0
   2. FAT32 system partition only
   3. IDE hard drive controller
   4. 32-bit processor

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Windows 11 includes hardware and security requirements that are more restrictive than those of many earlier Windows versions. TPM 2.0 is one of the important requirements because it supports security capabilities such as hardware-backed credential and encryption protection. Windows 11 also requires a compatible 64-bit processor and generally expects UEFI Secure Boot capability. A 32-bit processor does not meet the operating system requirements, and an IDE controller is not a Windows 11 requirement. FAT32 can be involved with an EFI system partition, but saying the system requires only a FAT32 partition does not accurately describe Windows 11 installation requirements.

Question 2.

Which Windows command displays detailed IP configuration information, including DHCP and DNS server addresses?

1. ping
   2. ipconfig /all
   3. netstat -a
   4. tracert

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

The ipconfig /all command displays detailed configuration information for Windows network adapters. It can show the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, physical address, DHCP status, DHCP server, DNS servers, and lease details. This makes it useful when troubleshooting address-assignment or name-resolution problems. ping tests basic IP connectivity, netstat -a displays active connections and listening ports, and tracert shows the path packets take toward a destination. A technician investigating whether a workstation received the correct DHCP and DNS settings should therefore begin with ipconfig /all.

Question 3.

A Windows user accidentally deleted a file and wants to restore it immediately. The Recycle Bin has not been emptied. What should the technician do first?

1. Perform a system image recovery
   2. Run chkdsk
   3. Restore the file from the Recycle Bin
   4. Reinstall Windows

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

When a file is deleted through normal Windows file-management operations, it is often moved to the Recycle Bin rather than immediately erased. If the Recycle Bin has not been emptied, the simplest and least disruptive recovery method is to open it, locate the file, and select Restore. A system image recovery would be excessive for a single deleted file and could affect other data. chkdsk checks file-system integrity and disk errors rather than recovering an ordinary deleted file from the Recycle Bin. Reinstalling Windows would also be unnecessary. Troubleshooting should begin with the simplest recovery method that addresses the problem.

Question 4.

Which Windows utility should a technician use to view and terminate an unresponsive application?

1. Disk Management
   2. System Configuration
   3. Event Viewer
   4. Task Manager

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Task Manager allows technicians to view running applications, processes, services, system performance, startup programs, and user sessions. If an application stops responding, Task Manager can be used to select the application or process and end it. Disk Management is used for disks, partitions, and volumes. System Configuration, often accessed through msconfig, helps troubleshoot startup and service behavior. Event Viewer is used to review system, application, and security logs. For an application that is frozen and must be terminated, Task Manager is the most direct and appropriate Windows utility.

Question 5.

Which Windows file system supports features such as file permissions, encryption, compression, and large file sizes?

1. NTFS
   2. FAT16
   3. FAT32
   4. exFAT only

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

NTFS is the standard Windows file system for modern internal system drives and provides advanced capabilities such as access control lists, file and folder permissions, compression, encryption through EFS, journaling, and support for large files and volumes. FAT32 has broader compatibility with devices but lacks the advanced security and permission features of NTFS and has a relatively small maximum individual file size. exFAT supports large files and is useful for removable media, but it does not provide the same Windows security features as NTFS. For a Windows volume requiring granular permissions and advanced features, NTFS is generally the appropriate choice.

Question 6.

A technician needs to modify which applications automatically start when a Windows user signs in. Which utility is most appropriate?

1. Registry Editor only
   2. Task Manager
   3. Disk Cleanup
   4. Device Manager

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Task Manager includes a Startup section that allows technicians to review and enable or disable applications configured to run when Windows starts or when a user signs in. This is useful for troubleshooting slow startup or preventing unnecessary programs from consuming resources. Registry Editor can contain startup-related entries, but manually editing the registry is more complex and risky than using the available management interface. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, while Device Manager manages hardware devices and drivers. Task Manager provides the most straightforward method for controlling common startup applications.

Question 7.

A user reports that Windows starts normally until a recently installed device driver loads, after which the computer crashes. Which Windows startup option is most useful for troubleshooting?

1. Disk Cleanup
   2. Remote Desktop
   3. Safe Mode
   4. BitLocker

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Safe Mode starts Windows with a limited set of drivers and services. This makes it useful when a third-party driver, startup application, or service is preventing Windows from operating normally. If the computer functions in Safe Mode, the technician can investigate recently installed drivers or software and potentially roll back, uninstall, or update the problematic component. Disk Cleanup removes temporary files, Remote Desktop provides remote access, and BitLocker encrypts storage. Safe Mode is specifically intended as a diagnostic startup environment for troubleshooting software and driver problems.

Question 8.

Which Windows tool should a technician use to roll back a recently updated device driver?

1. Task Scheduler
   2. Services
   3. Event Viewer
   4. Device Manager

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Device Manager is the primary Windows utility for viewing hardware devices and managing their drivers. From a device’s properties, a technician can update, uninstall, disable, or, when available, roll back the driver to a previous version. This is useful when a new driver introduces instability or compatibility problems. Task Scheduler automates tasks, Services manages background Windows services, and Event Viewer provides diagnostic logs. When troubleshooting a problem that began immediately after a driver update, using Device Manager to roll back the driver is an appropriate corrective action.

Question 9.

Which type of malware encrypts a victim’s files and typically demands payment in exchange for recovery?

1. Ransomware
   2. Rootkit
   3. Adware
   4. Logic bomb

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

Ransomware is malware designed to deny access to systems or data, commonly by encrypting files and demanding payment for a decryption key. Modern ransomware attacks may also steal information before encryption and threaten to publish it. Rootkits attempt to hide malicious activity or provide persistent privileged access. Adware displays unwanted advertising, and a logic bomb activates malicious behavior when a defined condition is met. Protection against ransomware includes regular patched systems, endpoint security, least privilege, user awareness, network segmentation, and reliable offline or otherwise protected backups that have been tested for recovery.

Question 10.

Which security principle gives users only the permissions necessary to perform their assigned job duties?

1. Availability
   2. Least privilege
   3. Open permissions
   4. Non-repudiation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Least privilege means that users, applications, and processes should receive only the access needed to perform their required tasks and no more. This limits the impact of mistakes, account compromise, and malicious actions. For example, everyday users should not normally operate with administrative rights if their work does not require them. Availability refers to keeping resources accessible when needed, while non-repudiation provides evidence that an action or communication cannot reasonably be denied. Open permissions contradict least privilege because they unnecessarily expose systems and data to additional risk.

Question 11.

Which authentication factor is represented by a fingerprint scan?

1. Something you know
   2. Something you have
   3. Something you are
   4. Somewhere you are

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

A fingerprint is a biometric characteristic and therefore represents the authentication category of “something you are.” Other examples include facial recognition, iris scans, and other biometric identifiers. “Something you know” includes passwords and PINs, while “something you have” includes smart cards, security tokens, or phones used for authentication. Location can sometimes be considered a contextual authentication factor but is not what a fingerprint represents. Multifactor authentication becomes stronger when independent factors from different categories are combined, such as a password plus a fingerprint or a password plus a hardware token.

Question 12.

A company wants employees to prove their identity using both a password and a one-time code generated by a mobile authenticator application. What security method is being used?

1. Single sign-on
   2. Password history
   3. Account lockout
   4. Multifactor authentication

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

Multifactor authentication requires two or more independent authentication factors. A password represents something the user knows, while a one-time code generated by an authenticator application is generally associated with something the user possesses. Combining these factors provides stronger protection than relying only on a password. Single sign-on allows a user to access multiple services after one authentication process but does not inherently mean multiple factors are used. Password history prevents immediate password reuse, while account lockout limits repeated failed login attempts. MFA helps reduce the risk posed by stolen or guessed passwords.

Question 13.

Which Windows security feature can encrypt an entire system drive and help protect data if the computer is stolen?

1. BitLocker
   2. Windows Defender Firewall
   3. Task Scheduler
   4. System Restore

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

BitLocker provides full-volume encryption for supported Windows editions and can protect data stored on a system drive if a computer or storage device is lost or stolen. It can work with TPM hardware to protect encryption keys and verify aspects of the startup environment. Windows Defender Firewall controls network traffic, Task Scheduler automates tasks, and System Restore rolls back selected system changes. BitLocker primarily addresses data confidentiality at rest. Organizations should also maintain secure recovery keys because losing access to the appropriate recovery information can make encrypted data inaccessible.

Question 14.

Which type of attack attempts to trick a user into revealing credentials by sending a fraudulent email that appears to come from a trusted organization?

1. Tailgating
   2. Phishing
   3. Shoulder surfing
   4. Dumpster diving

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

Phishing uses deceptive electronic messages, commonly email, to trick victims into revealing credentials, opening malicious attachments, or visiting fraudulent websites. Attackers often impersonate trusted companies, coworkers, or financial institutions. Tailgating involves following an authorized person into a restricted physical area. Shoulder surfing involves observing sensitive information such as passwords or PINs as they are entered. Dumpster diving involves searching discarded materials for useful information. Users should verify suspicious requests, inspect sender details, avoid unexpected links, and report suspected phishing attempts according to organizational security procedures.

Question 15.

Which social-engineering attack specifically targets high-ranking executives or other important individuals?

1. Tailgating
   2. Vishing
   3. Whaling
   4. Shoulder surfing

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Whaling is a targeted form of phishing aimed at high-value individuals such as executives, senior managers, or other people with access to sensitive information or financial authority. Attackers may research their targets and create convincing messages related to legal matters, payments, business partnerships, or executive responsibilities. Vishing uses voice calls, tailgating involves unauthorized physical entry by following someone, and shoulder surfing involves visually observing sensitive information. Because whaling attacks are highly targeted, organizations should combine technical controls with strong security-awareness training and verification procedures for sensitive requests.

Question 16.

A technician suspects that a Windows PC is infected with malware. According to a standard malware-removal process, which action should occur early in the response?

1. Immediately reconnect the PC to every shared network drive
   2. Disable all backups permanently
   3. Ignore the symptoms until the next update cycle
   4. Quarantine or isolate the infected system

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

A suspected infected computer should be isolated or quarantined as early as practical to reduce the chance that malware spreads to other systems or communicates with malicious infrastructure. The technician can then investigate symptoms, update security tools where appropriate, scan the system, remove or remediate threats, apply patches, and verify functionality. Reconnecting shared resources could spread the infection. Backups should not be permanently disabled because reliable clean backups are an important recovery control. Ignoring signs of malware increases security risk. Containment is a key early step in incident response and malware remediation.

Question 17.

Which Windows command checks protected system files and replaces corrupted copies when possible?

1. sfc /scannow
   2. format
   3. net use
   4. nslookup

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

The sfc /scannow command runs Windows System File Checker, which examines protected system files and attempts to replace corrupted or incorrect versions with valid copies. It is useful when Windows components behave unexpectedly because of damaged operating-system files. The format command prepares a storage volume and can destroy existing data, so it is not an appropriate first step. net use works with network shares, and nslookup helps troubleshoot DNS resolution. System File Checker is a common Windows repair utility for investigating possible system-file corruption.

Question 18.

Which Windows command is used to check a disk volume for file-system errors and potentially repair them?

1. gpupdate
   2. chkdsk
   3. hostname
   4. tasklist

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

chkdsk checks a disk volume for logical file-system errors and, depending on the options used, can attempt repairs and scan for disk-related problems. It is useful when a system experiences file-system corruption, improper shutdown issues, or storage errors. gpupdate refreshes Group Policy settings, hostname displays the computer name, and tasklist lists running processes. Because repair options can modify file-system structures and may require the volume to be locked or checked at restart, technicians should understand the command options and maintain appropriate backups before performing intrusive disk repairs.

Question 19.

Which Windows utility provides centralized logs for system errors, application events, and security-related activity?

1. Disk Cleanup
   2. Registry Editor
   3. Event Viewer
   4. Device Manager

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

Event Viewer provides access to Windows event logs, including Application, Security, System, and other specialized logs. Technicians can use these records to investigate failed services, application crashes, driver problems, authentication events, and other operating-system issues. Disk Cleanup removes unnecessary files, Registry Editor modifies registry settings, and Device Manager manages hardware and drivers. Event Viewer is particularly valuable when a problem is intermittent because event timestamps and error information can provide evidence about what occurred before or during a failure. It is a core Windows troubleshooting and diagnostic utility.

Question 20.

A technician has completed a repair on a user’s workstation. According to standard troubleshooting methodology, what should be done before closing the support ticket?

1. Delete all logs associated with the repair
   2. Immediately begin changing unrelated settings
   3. Avoid discussing the result with the user
   4. Verify full system functionality and document the findings and actions

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

After implementing a solution, the technician should verify that the system works correctly and that the original problem has been resolved. This may include testing affected functions, confirming connectivity, checking applications, and asking the user to validate normal operation when appropriate. The technician should then document the symptoms, troubleshooting steps, root cause when known, solution, and any preventive measures. Documentation creates useful organizational knowledge and helps future technicians solve similar issues more efficiently. Deleting logs or making unrelated changes would reduce accountability and may introduce new problems. Verification and documentation are essential final stages of a professional troubleshooting process.